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Default Bank of Baroda Probationary Officers exam previous year question papers

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Old 16th July 2014, 02:24 PM
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Default Re: Bank of Baroda Probationary Officers exam previous year question papers

As you want to get the Bank of Baroda Probationary Officers exam previous year question papers so here it is for you:

1. If the following numbers are rewritten by interchanging the digits in
ten’s place and hundred’s place and then arranging them in the descending
order. What will be the second digit of the newly formed fifth number
from your right ?
479, 736, 895, 978, 389, 675
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Ans : (C)
2. P is 60 m South-East of Q. R is 60 m North-East of Q. Then R is in
which direction of P ?
(A) North
(B) North-East
(C) South
(D) South-East
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 3–5) Read the following information for answering the
questions that follow—
On a playing ground A, B, C, D and E are standing as described below
facing the North.
(i) B is 50 metres to the right of D.
(ii) A is 60 metres to the South of B
(iii) C is 40 metres to the West of D.
(iv) E is 80 metres to the North of A.
3. If a boy walks from C, meets D followed by B, A and then E, how many
metres has he walked if he has travelled the straight distance all
through ?
(A) 120
(B) 150
(C) 170
(D) 230
Ans : (D)
4. What is the minimum distance (in metre approximately) between C and E
?
(A) 53
(B) 78
(C) 92
(D) 120
Ans : (C)
5. Who is to the South-East of the person who is to the left of D ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) E
Ans : (A)


6. A man was walking in the evening just before the sun set. His wife
said that, his shadow fell on his right. If the wife was walking in the
opposite direction of the man, then which direction the wife was facing ?
(A) North
(B) West
(C) South
(D) East
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 7–11) In each of the following questions choose the set of
numbers from the four alternative sets that is similar to the given set.
7. Given set : (4, 9, 18)
(A) (8, 14, 22)
(B) (10, 15, 25)
(C) (6, 12, 23)
(D) (12, 17, 26)
Ans : (D)
8. Given set : (10, 14, 17)
(A) (4, 11, 14)
(B) (9, 12, 15)
(C) (8, 13, 18)
(D) (6, 9, 12)
Ans : (A)
9. Given set : (7, 27, 55)
(A) (21, 35, 52)
(B) (18, 42, 65)
(C) (16, 40, 72)
(D) (13, 30, 58)
Ans : (C)
10. Given set : (39, 28, 19)
(A) (84, 67, 52)
(B) (52, 25, 17)
(C) (70, 49, 36)
(D) (65, 45, 21)
Ans : (A)
11. Given set : (246, 257, 358)
(A) (233, 343, 345)
(B) (273, 365, 367)
(C) (143, 226, 237)
(D) (145, 235, 325)
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 12–16) Each question contains six or seven statements
followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which
the statements are logically related.
12. (1) All books are having pages.
(2) All kings are having pages.
(3) All kings are books.


(4) Some heavy things are having pages.
(5) Some heavy things are books.
(6) Some books are heavy.
(7) Some heavy things are having pages.
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 6, 1, 4
(C) 4, 6, 1
(D) 1, 5, 7
Ans : (D)
13. (1) No athletes are vegetarians.
(2) All cricket players are athletes.
(3) Some athletes play cricket.
(4) Some cricket players are vegetarians.
(5) No cricket player is a vegetarian.
(6) All athletes are vegetarians.
(A) 1, 2, 5
(B) 3, 4, 1
(C) 1, 5, 2
(D) 2, 5, 6
Ans : (A)
14. (1) All grandmothers cook well.
(2) No man is a grandmother.
(3) Some men do not cook well.
(4) All those who cook well are men.
(5) No one who cooks well is a man.
(6) All those who cook well are grandmothers.
(7) Some men are not grandmothers.
(A) 2, 6, 5
(B) 2, 5, 6
(C) 1, 4, 2
(D) 6, 4, 7
Ans : (B)
15. (1) Looting is a crime.
(2) Some crooked people are criminals.
(3) All those involved in looting are criminals.
(4) Some crooked people are involved in looting.
(5) All criminals are looked down in society.
(6) Some crooked people are not criminals.
(A) 1, 4, 6
(B) 3, 6, 2
(C) 1, 2, 6
(D) 3, 4, 2
Ans : (D)
16. (1) Some women are those who are successful in life.
(2) Some men are those who have patience.
(3) No man is a woman.
(4) All those who have patience are successful in life.
(5) Some who are successful in life are men.
(6) Some men are not those are successful in life.
(A) 1, 3, 6


(B) 4, 2, 6
(C) 1, 5, 3
(D) 2, 4, 5
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 17–21) Each of the questions below consists of a question
and two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the
data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answers—
(A) If the data in statement (I) alone are sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in statement (II) alone are not sufficient to
answer the question;
(B) If the data in statement (II) alone are sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in statement (I) alone are not sufficient to
answer the questions;
(C) If the data even in both statements (I) and (II) together are not
sufficient to answer the question;
(D) If the data in both statement (I) and (II) together are necessary to
answer the question.
17. In which direction is Mahatmaji’s statue facing ?
I. The statue is towards the northern end of the city.
II. The statue’s shadow falls towards East at 5 O’clock in the evening.
Ans : (C)
18. What is the total number of pupils in the final year class ?
I. The number of boys in the final year class is twice as much as the
number of girls in that class.
II. The sum of the ages of all the pupils in the class is 399 years and
their average age is 19 years.
Ans : (B)
19. Who is the tallest among A, B, C and D ?
I. A is taller than C.
II. B is taller than C and D.
Ans : (C)
20. How many Sundays are there in a particular month of a particular year
?
I. The month begins on Monday.
II. The month ends on Wednesday.
Ans : (D)
21. What is the total number of pages in this book ?
I. I counted 132 pages from the beginning of this book.
II. My wife counted 138 pages starting from the end of the same book.
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 22–26) In each of the questions given below, there is a
statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An
assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to
consider the statement and assumptions and then decide, which of the
assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.


22. Statement : During pre-harvest kharif seasons, the government has
decided to release vast quantity of foodgrains from FCI.
Assumptions :I. There may be a shortage of foodgrains in the market
during this season.
II. The kharif crop may be able to replenish the stock of FCI.
III. There may be a demand from the farmers to procure kharif crop
immediately after harvest.
(A) None is implicit
(B) Only I and II are implicit
(C) Only II and III are implicit
(D) All are implicit
Ans : (D)
23. Statement : To improve the employment situation in India, there is a
need to recast the present educational system towards implementation of
scientific discoveries in daily life.
Assumptions :I. The students after completing such education may be able
to earn their livelihood.
II. This may bring meaning of education in the minds of the youth.
III. The state may earn more revenue as more and more people will engage
themselves in self employment.
(A) Only I and II are implicit
(B) Only III is implicit
(C) Only I and III are implicit
(D) None is implicit
Ans : (A)
24. Statement : To increase profit, the oil exporting countries decided
to reduce the production of crude by 5 million barrels per day.
Assumptions :I. The price of crude may increase due to less production.
II. The demand of crude may remain same in future.
III. Other countries may continue buying crude from these countries.
(A) All are implicit
(B) Only II and III are implicit
(C) Only I and II are implicit
(D) None is implicit
Ans : (C)
25. Statement : “We do not want you to see our product on newspaper,
visit our shop to get a full view.” – an advertisement.
Assumptions :I. People generally decide to purchase any product after
seeing the name in the advertisement.
II. Uncommon appeal may attract the customers.
III. People may come to see the product.
(A) All are implicit
(B) None is implicit
(C) Only II and III are implicit
(D) Only I and II are implicit
Ans : (A)
26. Statement : The Reserve Bank of India has directed the banks to
refuse fresh loans to major defaulters.
Assumptions :I. The banks may still give loans to the defaulters.
II. The defaulters may repay the earlier loan to get fresh loan.


III. The banks may recover the bad loans through such harsh measures.
(A) All are implicit
(B) None is implicit
(C) Both II and III are implicit
(D) Both I and II are implicit
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 27–31) In questions given below, statements 1 and 2 are
followed by conclusions I and II. Taking the statements to be right
although they may seem at variance with commonly accepted facts, mark
your answers as under—
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If both I and II follows.
(D) Neither I nor II follows.
27. Statements :1. All hands are machines.
2. All machines are wheels.
Conclusions :I. All wheels are hands.
II. All hands are wheels.
Ans : (B)
28. Statements :1. Some buds are leaves.
2. Some leaves are red.
Conclusions :
I. Some buds are red.
II. Some leaves are not buds.
Ans : (B)
29. Statements :
1. Some stones are shells.
2. All shells are pearls.
Conclusions :I. Some stones are pearls.
II. All pearls are shells.
Ans : (A)
30. Statements :1. Brown is red and blue is green.
2. Green is pink and yellow is red.
Conclusions :
I. Yellow is brown.
II. Pink is blue.
Ans : (C)
31. Statements :
1. Merchants who do not own cars do not have bicycles either.
2. Those who do not have bicycles have tricycles.
Conclusions :I. Some merchants have only tricycles.
II. No one has both, the car and the tricycles.
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 32–36) A number arrangement machine, when given a
particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The
following is the illustration of the input and the stages of arrangement.
Input : 245, 316, 436, 519, 868, 710, 689


Step I : 710, 316, 436, 519, 868, 245, 689
Step II : 710, 316, 245, 519, 868, 436, 689
Step III : 710, 316, 245, 436, 868, 519, 689
Step IV : 710, 316, 245, 436, 519, 868, 689
Step IV is the last step of input.
32. If 655, 436, 764, 799, 977, 572, 333 is the input which of the
following steps will be ‘333, 436, 572, 655, 977, 764, 799’ ?
(A) II
(B) III
(C) IV
(D) I
Ans : (B)
33. How many steps will be required to get the final output from the
following input ?
Input : 544, 653, 325, 688, 461, 231, 857
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 6
Ans : (A)
34. For the given input, which of the following will be third step ?
Input : 236, 522, 824, 765, 622, 463, 358
(A) 522, 236, 765, 824, 622, 463, 358
(B) 522, 622, 236, 824, 765, 463, 358
(C) 522, 622, 236, 765, 824, 463, 358
(D) 522, 622, 236, 463, 824, 765, 358
Ans : (C)
35. If following is the second step for an input, what will be the fourth
step ?
Step II : 620, 415, 344, 537, 787, 634, 977
(A) 620, 415, 344, 537, 634, 787, 977
(B) 620, 415, 344, 634, 537, 787, 977
(C) 620, 415, 344, 634, 787, 537, 977
(D) Can’t be determined
Ans : (B)
36. Which of the following is the last step for the following input ?
Input : 473, 442, 735, 542, 367, 234, 549
(A) 234, 442, 542, 473, 735, 367, 549
(B) 234, 442, 542, 735, 473, 367, 549
(C) 234, 442, 542, 473, 367, 735, 549
(D) 234, 442, 542, 735, 367, 473, 549
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 37–41) Read the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below it—
(1) There is a group of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a family. They
are Psychologist, Manager, Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer.
(2) The doctor is the grandfather of F, who is a Psychologist.
(3) The Manager D is married to A.


(4) C, the Jeweller, is married to the Lawyer.
(5) B is the mother of F and E.
(6) There are two married couples in the family.
(7) The Psychologist is a female while Engineer is a male.
37. What is the profession of E ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Engineer
(C) Manager
(D) Psychologist
Ans : (B)
38. How is A related to E ?
(A) Brother
(B) Uncle
(C) Father
(D) Grandfather
Ans : (D)
39. How many male numbers are there in the family ?
(A) One
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Two
Ans : (B)
40. What is the profession of A ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Lawyer
(C) Jeweller
(D) Manager
Ans : (A)
41. Which of the following is one of the pairs of couples in the family ?
(A) AB
(B) AC
(C) AD
(D) AE
Ans : (C)
42. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a
group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Papaya
(B) Mango
(C) Jackfruit
(D) Watermelon
Ans : (C)
43. Three of the following four are similar in relation to their
positions in the English alphabet and hence form a group. Which one does
not belong to that group ?
(A) SPEAK : PZVKH
(B) HUSKY : BPGFS
(C) BRAIN : MRZIY


(D) BREAK : PZVIY
Ans : (B)
44. Three of the following four groups of letters are alike in some way
while one is different. Find out which one is different ?
(A) DJWR
(B) EKXR
(C) KQDX
(D) AGTN
Ans : (A)
45. Four groups of letters are given below. Three of them are alike in a
certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.
(A) GWOURV
(B) LZKMSU
(C) SFXPMG
(D) JOEHNP
Ans : (C)
46. Four pairs of words are given below out of which the words in all
pairs except one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in
which the words are differently related.
(A) Watt : Power
(B) Ampere : Current
(C) Pascal : Pressure
(D) Radian : Degree
Ans : (D)
47. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters of the series
starting from behind are increased by one. Which of the following series
observes this rule ?
(A) ONLKI
(B) OMKIG
(C) OMJFA
(D) OIGDC
Ans : (C)
48. If the letters of the word ‘PROTECTION’ which are at odd numbered
position in the English alphabet are picked up and are arranged in
alphabetical order from left and if they are now substituted by Z, Y, X
and so on, beginning from left which letter will get substituted by X ?
(A) E
(B) O
(C) T
(D) I
Ans : (D)
49. How many pairs of letters are there in the word OPERATION in which
the difference between them is the same as in the English alphabet ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
Ans : (C)


50. Arrange the given words in order in which they occur in the
dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.
(1) Dissipate
(2) Dissuade
(3) Disseminate
(4) Distract
(5) Dissociate
(6) Dissect
(A) 6, 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
(B) 1, 6, 3, 2, 4, 5
(C) 3, 6, 1, 2, 5, 4
(D) 4, 6, 3, 1, 5, 2
Ans : (A)
51. The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are
followed by equal space. Which of the following series observes this rule
?
(A) SUXADF
(B) RVZDFG
(C) HKNGSW
(D) RVZDHL
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 52–56) In a certain code, letters of English alphabet are
coded as given for some words. The numeric code for each letter is given
in bracket under coded form and corresponds to the letter in the word in
the same serial order, study the coded forms of the given words and find
out the rules for their classification. Applying those rules find out the
code for the words given in capital letters in the questions that follow—
Word Codes FormATE (0) (5) (0)
NONE (5) (25) (5) (25)
UNIT (30) (5) (30) (5)
PIN (5) (10) (5)
PAGE (5) (25) (5) (25)
OPEN (30) (5) (30) (5)
ONE (0) (5) (0)
CUT (5) (10) (5)
SEAT (5) (15) (15) (5)
DEEP (5) (20) (20) (5)
52. VINA
(A) (5) (0) (5) (15)
(B) (5) (25) (5) (25)
(C) (5) (30) (5) (30)
(D) (5) (10) (5) (30)
Ans : (B)
53. AGE
(A) (0) (15) (0)
(B) (15) (15) (15)
(C) (0) (10) (10)
(D) (0) (5) (0)
Ans : (D)


54. PEAR
(A) (5) (15) (15) (5)
(B) (5) (25) (5) (25)
(C) (5) (10) (5) (10)
(D) (5) (30) (5) (30)
Ans : (A)
55. TIN
(A) (0) (5) (0)
(B) (5) (0) (5)
(C) (0) (10) (0)
(D) (5) (10) (5)
Ans : (D)
56. UNIT
(A) (5) (30) (5) (30)
(B) (5) (10) (30) (10)
(C) (30) (5) (30) (5)
(D) (15) (10) (10) (15)
Ans : (C)
57. If the first and second digits in the squence 7 9 8 4 5 3 6 7 8 3 4 5
are interchanged, also the third and fourth digits, the fifth and sixth
digits and so on which digit would be the sixth counting from your right
?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
Ans : (C)
58. The letter I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T in their order are
substituted by twelve numbers but not in that oder. 3 is assigned to R.
The difference between R and M is 7. The difference between K and M is 2.
What number is assigned to K ?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 7
(D) 11
Ans : (B)
59. Below are given six three-character numbers. The characters comprise
of digits and letters. The letter stands for one less than its serial
order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle character of the
3rd number when the numbers are arranged in the decending order ?
8G6, 3DJ, F4C, 7HB, 4E6, B8I
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) 4
Ans : (D)


60. Which of the following will be the third digit of the fourth number
after the following numbers are arranged in descending order after
reversing the positions of the digits within each number ?
645, 869, 458, 347, 981, 792
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans : (A)
1. Which of the following stars lies nearest to our solar system ?
(A) Barnard’s Star
(B) Sirius A
(C) Alpha Centauri A
(D) Proxima Centauri
Ans : (D)
2. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves constitute
approximately—
(A) 5• 8%
(B) 4• 5%
(C) 2• 59%
(D) 1• 2%
Ans : (C)
3. The term ‘Bishop’ in sports is related to—
(A) Chess
(B) Hockey
(C) Badminton
(D) Bridge
Ans : (A)
4. Yakshagan is the famous dance form of the State of—
(A) Orissa
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Karnataka
Ans : (D)
5. Balance of Payments means—
(A) Difference between export and imports
(B) Balance to be paid to the exporters
(C) Balance to be paid to the industrialists
(D) Balance coming in allocation of funds for States
Ans : (A)
6. A light year is equivalent to about—
(A) 365 days
(B) Six million miles
(C) Six billion miles
(D) Six trillion miles
Ans : (D)


7. Denmark, Iceland, Norway, Sweden and Finland are together called—
(A) Slovakia
(B) Scandinavia
(C) Netherlands
(D) Australasia
Ans : (B)
8. The device used for locating submerged objects under sea is—
(A) Sonar
(B) Radar
(C) Laser
(D) Maser
Ans : (A)
9. Which article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to
ammend Constitution ?
(A) 376
(B) 370
(C) 368
(D) 390
Ans : (C)
10. What is the name of the first successfully cloned deer ?
(A) Dawn
(B) Deluxe
(C) Demor
(D) Dewey
Ans : (D)
11. The idea of motion pictures was propounded by—
(A) N. R. Finsen
(B) T. A. Edison
(C) J. L. Baird
(D) Berliner
Ans : (B)
12. In Greek mythology, Apollo is the god of which of the following ?
(A) Love
(B) Peace
(C) Prophecy
(D) Medicine
Ans : (C)
13. NASA’s new space telescope is—
(A) Wise
(B) Rise
(C) Barack
(D) Telle
Ans : (A)
14. Bull fighting is the national game of—
(A) Italy
(B) Poland


(C) Spain
(D) Sudan
Ans : (C)
15. In a rare recognition, the Government of Mauritius decides to
introduce a book written by Uttarakhand Chief Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal
Nishank in the School Syllabus of the island nation, what is the name of
the book ?
(A) Sound of Hills
(B) Sparsh Ganga
(C) Heaven
(D) Amrit
Ans : (B)
16. Who has been selected for the ‘Niwano Peace Prize, 2010’ for her
contribution to the uplift of poor women in India ?
(A) Ela Bhatt
(B) Jhumpa Lahiri
(C) Punam Suri
(D) Mandakni Apte
Ans : (A)
17. On which of the following dates in 2010 did the safeguard agreement
with regard to civilian nuclear facilities between India and the
International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) come into force ?
(A) February 28
(B) February 21
(C) February 11
(D) February 4
Ans : (D)
18. The tax which the kings used to collect from the people in the Vedic
period was called—
(A) Bali
(B) Vidatha
(C) Varman
(D) Kara
Ans : (B)
19. The cells which are responsible for the production of antibodies are—
(A) Red blood cells
(B) Neutrophils
(C) Lymphocytes
(D) Platelets
Ans : (C)
20. Correct expansion of the term ‘http’ in Internet address is—
(A) Hybrid text transfer protocol
(B) Hyper text transfer protocol
(C) Higher transfer text protocol
(D) Higher text transfer protocol
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold
to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Once upon a time, there was a royal elephant which used to reside in the
premises of the king’s palace. The elephant was very dear to the king, so
he was well-fed and well-treated. There was also a Dog who lived near the
Elephant’s shed. He was very weak and skinny. He was always fascinated by
the smell of rich sweet rice being fed to the royal elephant.
One day, the Dog could no longer resist the aroma of the rice and somehow
managed to sneak into the Elephant’s shed. He ate the grains of sweet
rice that fell from the Elephant’s mouth. He liked the rice so much, that
he started going there daily to eat the rice. For days, the huge Elephant
didn’t notice the small dog as he was busy enjoying the delicious food.
Gradually, the Dog grew bigger and stronger eating such rich food.
Finally, the Elephant noticed him and allowed him access to the food.
The Elephant enjoyed the company of the Dog and started sharing his food
with him. They also started spending time with each other and soon became
good friends. They ate together, slept together and played together.
While playing, the Elephant would hold the Dog in his trunk and swing him
back and forth. Soon neither of them was happy without the other. They
became great friends and didn’t want to be separated from each other.
Then one day, a man saw the Dog and asked the Elephant-keeper, “I want to
buy this Dog. What price do you want for it ?” The Elephant-keeper didn’t
own the Dog but sold it and extracted a sum of money from this deal. The
man took the Dog to his home village, which was quite far away. The
King’s Elephant became very sad after this incident. He missed his friend
a lot and started neglecting everything. He didn’t want to do anything
without his dear friend, so he stopped eating, drinking and even bathing.
Finally, the Elephant-keeper reported this to the King; however he didn’t
mention anything about the Dog. The King had a wise minister, who was
known for his keen understanding of animals. The King ordered the
minister, “Go to the Elephant shed and find out the reason for the
Elephant's condition”. The intelligent minister went to the Elephant shed
and found the Elephant very sad. He examined the Elephant and asked the
Elephant-keeper. “There is nothing wrong with this Elephant’s body, then
why does he look so sad ? I think this Elephant is grief stricken,
possibly due to the loss of a dear friend. Do you know if this Elephant
shared a close friendship with anyone ?”
The Elephant-keeper said, “There was a Dog who used to eat, sleep and
play with the Elephant. He was taken by a stranger three days ago”. The
minister went back to the King and said, “Your majesty, in my opinion,
the royal Elephant is not sick, but he is lonesome without his dear
friend, the Dog”. The King said, “You’re right, friendship is one of the
most wonderful things of life. Do you know where that Dog is ?’


The Minister replied, “Elephantkeeper has informed me that a stranger
took him away and he doesn’t know his whereabouts”. The King asked, “How
can we bring back my Elephant’s friend and make him happy again ?” The
Minister suggested, “Your Majesty, make a declaration, that whoever has
the dog that used to live at the royal Elephant’s shed will be
penalized”. The King did the same and the man who had taken the dog,
instantly turned him loose when he heard the proclamation.
As soon as he was freed, the Dog ran back as fast as he could to the
Elephant’s shed. The Elephant was so delighted to see the Dog that he
picked his friend up with his trunk and swung him back and forth. The Dog
wagged his tail, while the Elephant’s eyes sparkled with happiness. The
King was content to see the Elephant happy once again and rewarded the
minister for his wise judgement.
1. What was the Minister’s diagnosis of the Elephant’s condition ?
(A) The Elephant hated his keeper
(B) The Elephant was lonely
(C) The Elephant was starving
(D) The Elephant had hurt his leg and was in pain
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
2. What method did the Minister suggest to the King to get back the Dog ?
(A) To declare that whoever had that particular Dog would be punished
(B) To keep a bowl of rice for the Dog in the Elephant’s shed so that he
could be lured back to the palace
(C) To command the Elephant keeper to look for the Dog in the village
(D) To persuade the Elephant to call out to the Dog
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
3. Why had the Elephant become very sad ?
(A) He no longer got his daily bowl of rice
(B) He was unhappy with the King for having sold the Dog
(C) He missed his friend the Dog
(D) He was sold to an unknown man by his keeper
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
4. What did the Elephant-keeper do to the Dog ?
(A) He sold the Dog to an unknown man for a price
(B) He hit the Dog as the Dog was eating the Elephant’s food
(C) He killed the Dog
(D) He complained to the King about the Dog
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
5. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the
passage ?
(A) Friends and Enemies
(B) The Playful Dog
(C) The King and the Minister


(D) The Elephant-keeper
(E) The Bond of Friendship
Ans : (E)
6. Why was the Elephant taken care of ?
(A) He was a very special Elephant as he could talk to Dogs
(B) He was a very loyal Elephant
(C) He was the strongest Elephant in the Kingdom
(D) He was weak and the King had a lot of sympathy for him
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
7. Why did the Dog start going to the Elephant’s shed everyday ?
(A) He liked the Elephant a lot and wanted to become friends with him
(B) He was being fed by the King everyday
(C) He was fond of the Elephant’s shed
(D) He liked the taste of the rice being fed to the Elephant
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
8. What did the Dog do once he was set free ?
(A) He ate rice to his heart’s content
(B) He thanked the King for his kindness
(C) He ran away from the Kingdom to a place far away
(D) He ran back to his friend the Elephant
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. What of the following can definitely be said about the Elephantkeeper
?
(1) He was greedy
(2) He was insensitive
(3) He was brave
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (A)
10. Which of the following can definitely be said about the King ?
(1) He was compassionate.
(2) He was deceitful.
(3) He loved animals.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 2
(E) All the three 1, 2, and 3
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word/group of words which is most
similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in
the passage.


11. EXTRACTED
(A) pulled
(B) inserted
(C) wring
(D) dug out
(E) received
Ans : (E)
12. DECLARATION
(A) pact
(B) praise
(C) announcement
(D) writ
(E) resolve
Ans : (C)
13. KEEN
(A) shallow
(B) urgent
(C) concentrated
(D) deep
(E) eager
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word/group of words which is most
opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in
the passage.
14. RESIST
(A) give in
(B) please
(C) struggle
(D) try out
(E) defy
Ans : (A)
15. SEPARATED
(A) stuck
(B) united
(C) estranged
(D) bound
(E) joined
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given
below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the
sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as
it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
16. Trisha could not solve the problem at all and was at her wit’s
ending.
(A) her wit’s end
(B) the wit ends


(C) her witty end
(D) the wit end
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)
17. It’s a small theatre and the seats are uncomfortable, but the saving
grace is that the air conditioning is good.
(A) grace to save
(B) gracing save
(C) saver grace
(D) save to grace
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)
18. Tarun had to prepare the document for his meeting urgently but he was
hardly pressed for time.(A) hard pressed for timely
(B) hard pressed for time
(C) hardly press to time
(D) hard pressing to timely
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)
19. Suraj lied from his teeth to get out of the tense situation with his
boss.
(A) lies for his teeth
(B) lie to his teeth
(C) lied through his teeth
(D) lied from his tooth
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
20. Satish lay in bed wide awaken as he was worried about his exams
starting the next day.
(A) widen awakening
(B) widely awake
(C) wide and awake
(D) wide awake
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below, a sentence with four words
printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (A), (B), (C) and
(D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt
or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which
is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is
your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and
also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All
correct’ as your answer.
21. People went crazy (A) when the musician along with his friend, (B)
took to the staging (C) and belted out popular (D) tracks. All correct
(E)
Ans : (C)


22. For a growing number of coupals, (A) adoption is not a helpless
compulsion (B) but a deliberate, (C) vand often noble, (D) choice. All
correct (E)
Ans : (A)
23. On two consecutive (A) nights the two greatest icones (B) of showbusiness
were honoured with unprecedented (C) affection. (D) All correct
(E)
Ans : (B)
24. We are so busy looking at mediocrity (A) that when a truly
outstanding achievement (B) stares us in the face we resort (C) to the
same terms of praise. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)
25. The unlikely migration (A) was officially (B) explained as a move to
meet expanding (C) business oportunities. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2),
(3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.
(1) He immediately acknowledged Mohan’s good work and invited him to his
home for dinner.
(2) One day a wealthy merchant sent his son’s bicycle to the shop for
repair.
(3) The next day the merchant came to claim the bicycle and noticed that
it was shiny.
(4) After repairing the bicycle, Mohan cleaned it up and made it look
new.
(5) Once upon a time, there was a boy named Mohan who worked as an
apprentice in a bicycle shop.
(6) Other apprentices in the shop laughed at Mohan for doing unnecessary
work.
26. Which of the following should be the second sentence after
rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (B)
27. Which of the following should be the third sentence after
rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)


28. Which of the following should be the first sentence after
rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)
29. Which of the following should be the last (sixth) sentence after
rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (A)
30. Which of the following should be the fourth sentence after
rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there
is ‘No error’, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
31. In about five minutes, they would (A) / cover the distance from the
road to the point (B) / where the waves would v/ begin lick their feet.
(D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
32. The devastating experiences (A) / of many wars taught some countries
(B) / the necessary of pursuing peace (C) / at the expense of nationalist
egos. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
33. The former superstar recently (A) / visit an orphanage (B) / fuelling
speculation that (C) / she is planning to adopt a child. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
34. Accordance to a new study (A) / taking steps to remain healthy any
young (B) / may help delay (C) / the onset of Alzheimer’s disease. (D) No
error (E)
Ans : (A)
35. A day after he was diagnosed with (A) / swine flu, preventive
measures were put in place (B) / to ensure that others were not v/
affected by the dreaded virus. vNo error (E)


Ans : (A)
36. The administration has conclusive (A) / that it is retailers who are
(B) / responsible for upsetting (C) / the city’s household budget. (D) No
error (E)
Ans : (A)
37. The assurances, unfortunately, (A) / remained on paper, as (B) /
neither the Centre or the state initiated steps (C) / for the development
of the backward region. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
38. Sediment deposit along the coast (A) / may be the primary reason for
(B) / the change in conditions, (C) / but a lot more remains to be
understand. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
39. A committee will be set-up (A) / to explore pros and cons by (B) / a
common fee structure, and will (C) / take a final decision on it within a
week. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
40. The infection which causes (A) / gums to bleed and teeth to fall out
v/ results from the build-up of (C) / a particular bacteria that is
common to most mouths. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of
which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and
against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Once upon a time there was a prince who wanted to marry a princess; but
she would have to be a real princess. He …(41)… all over the world to
find one, but nowhere could he get what he wanted. One evening during a
terrible storm; there was thunder and lightning and the rain poured down
in torrents. Suddenly a knocking was …(42)… at the palace door and the
old king went to open it. It was a princess standing out there. But, good
gracious ! What a sight the rain and the wind had made her look. The
water ran down her hair and clothes; into the toes of her shoes and out
again at the heels. And yet she insisted that she was a real princess.
Well, we’ll soon …(43)… out, thought the old queen. But she said nothing,
went into the bedroom, took all the bedding off the bedstead and …(44)… a
pea on the bottom, then she took twenty mattresses and laid them on the
pea, and then twenty quilts on …(45)… of the mattresses. On this the
princess had to lie all night. In the …(46)… she was asked how she had
slept. “Oh, very badly !” said she. “I scarcely closed my eyes all night.
Heaven only knows what was in the bed, but I was lying on something hard,
as a …(47)… I am black and blue all over my body. It’s horrible !” Now
they knew that she was a real princess because she had …(48)… the pea
right through the twenty mattresses and the twenty quilts. Nobody but a
real princess could be as …(49)… as that. So, the prince took her for his
wife, for now he …(50)… that he had a real princess.


41. (A) called
(B) tour
(C) sent
(D) saw
(E) travelled
Ans : (E)
42. (A) made
(B) felt
(C) heard
(D) seen
(E) sounded
Ans : (C)
43. (A) assure
(B) find
(C) judge
(D) mark
(E) try
Ans : (B)
44. (A) drew
(B) flung
(C) placed
(D) cooked
(E) stitch
Ans : (B)
45. (A) top
(B) head
(C) bottom
(D) between
(E) middle
Ans : (A)
46. (A) morning
(B) dinner
(C) room
(D) fields
(E) dark
Ans : (A)
47. (A) vengeance
(B) price
(C) cause
(D) result
(E) time
Ans : (D)
48. (A) slept
(B) felt
(C) located
(D) carried
(E) found


Ans : (B)
49. (A) worried
(B) rough
(C) irritable
(D) sensitive
(E) pretty
Ans : (D)
50. (A) trust
(B) assured
(C) wanted
(D) think
(E) knew
Ans : (E)
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  #3  
Old 2nd August 2014, 10:15 AM
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Default Bank of Baroda Probationary Officers exam previous year question papers

Will you p[lease share with me the Bank of Baroda Probationary Officers exam previous year question papers?
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Old 2nd August 2014, 12:11 PM
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Default Re: Bank of Baroda Probationary Officers exam previous year question papers

As you want to get the Bank of Baroda Probationary Officers exam previous year question papers so here it is for you:

1 (95.6x 910.3) ÷ 92.56256 = 9?
(A) 13.14
(B) 12.96
(C) 12.43
(D) 13.34
(E) None of these
2. (4 86%of 6500) ÷ 36 =?
(A) 867.8
(B) 792.31
(C) 877.5
(D) 799.83
(E) None of these
3. (12.11)2 + (?)2 = 732.2921
(A)20.2
(B) 24.2
(C)23.1
(D) 19.2
(E) None of these
4.576÷ ? x114=8208
(A)8
(B)7
(C)6
(D)9
(E) None of these
5. (1024—263—233)÷(986—764— 156) =?
(A)9
(B)6
(C)7
(D)8
(E) None of these
6. ?125÷5x ?=6265
(A)1253
(B) 1250
(C)1245
(D) 1550
(E) None of these
7.(42)2÷6.3 x 26 =?
(A)7182
(B) 7269
(C)7260
(D) 7240
(E) None of these
8.384×12×2=?
(A)9024
(B) 9216
(C)6676
(D) 6814
(E) None of these
9.6534÷40÷33=?
(A)3.06
(B) 5.25
(C)4.82
(D) 6.12
(E) None of these
10. ?2704 x ?2209=?
(A)1996
(B)2444
(C)2452
(D)1983
(E)None of these
11.2536+4851—?=3450+313
(A)3961
(B)4532
(C)3624
(D)4058
(E) None of these
12. (2560 x 1.4) +(7400 x 0.6) =?
(A)7512
(B) 9746
(C)6523
(D) 8024
(E) None of these
13. 36%of 850+? %of 592 = 750
(A)73
(B)89
(C)82
(D)75
(E) None of these
14.64%of 2650+40% 0f 320=?
(A)1824
(B) 1902
(C)1829
(D) 1964
(E) None of these
15. 486+32×25—59=?
(A) 514
(B) 528
(C) 599
(D) 507
(E) None of these
16. 1827÷ 36 x ?=162.4
(A)4.4
(B)3.2
(C)2.1
(D) 3.7
(E) None of these
17. 1008÷36=?
(A)28
(B) 32.5
(C)36
(D) 22.2
(E) None of these
18. 56.21 +2.36+5.41 —21.4+1.5=?
(A)40.04
(B) 46.18
(C)44.08
(D) 43.12
(E) None of these
19. 65%of 320+?=686
(A) 480
(B) 452
(C)461
(D) 475
(E) None of these
20. 83250÷?=74×25
(A)50
(B) 45
(C)40
(D) 55
(E) None of these
21. ?7744=?
(A)88
(B)62
(C)58
(D)78
(E)None of these
22.35%of ?=242
(A)729
(B)652
(C)693
(D)759
(E) None of these
23. 1256+4813+765=?
(A)5642
(B) 5876
(C)6788
(D) 6878
(E) None of these
24. 22 x4+(?)2=(13)2
(A) 81
(C) 27
(B) 9
(D) 64
(E) None of these
25. 432+2170+35=?
(A)494
(B) 475
(C)481
(D) 469
(E) None of these
26. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3: 4 :5 respectively. If the sum of
the first and third numbers is more than the second number by 52, then
which will be the largest number?
(A) 65
(B) 52
(C) 79
(D) 63
(E) None of these
27. The compound interest on a certain amount for 2 years at the rate of
8 p.c.p.a. is Rs.312. What will be the simple interest on the same amount
and at the same rate and same time?
(A)Rs. 349.92
(B) Rs. 300
(C)Rs. 358.92
(D) Rs. 400
(E) None of these
28. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 7 ems. If the length
is decreased by 4 cm. and the breadth is increased by 3 cms., then the
area of the new rectangle will be the same as the area of the original
rectangle. What will be the perimeter of the original rectangle?
(A)45 cms.
(B)40 cems.
(C)50 cms.
(D)55 cms.
(E)None of these
29. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number
formed by reversing the digits is greater than the original number by 54,
then what will be the original number?
(A)28
(B) 48
(C)39
(D) 93
(E) None of these
30. In a fraction, twice the numerator is two more than the denominator.
If 3 is added to the numerator and the denominator each, then the
resultant fraction will be 2/3 .What was the original fraction ?
(A)5/18
(B)6/13
(C)13/6
(D)7/12
(E) None of these
31. Four-fifth of a number is 10 more than two-third of the same number.
What is the number?
(A) 70
(B) 75
(C) 69
(D) 85
(E) None of these
32. A shopkeeper purchased 200 bulbs for Rs. 10 each. However, 5 bulbs
were fused and had to be thrown away. The remaining were sold at Rs. 12
each. What will be the percentage
profit?
(A) 25
(B) 15
(C) 13
(D) 17
(E) None of these
33. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the number
series given below?
25, 34, 52,79, 115,?
(A)160
(B) 140
(C)153
(D) 190
(E)None of these
34. What number should replace both the question marks (?) in the
following question ?
?/144= 49 /?
(A)95
(B) 76
(C)82
(D) 84
(E)None of these
35. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 252. What is the sum of
the smallest and the largest numbers?
(A)158
(B) 148
(C)168
(D) 198
(E) None of these
.
36. Ajay spends 25% of his salary on house rent, 5% on food, 15% on
travel, 10% on clothes and the remaining amount of Rs. 27,000 is saved.
What is Ajay’s income?
(A) Rs. 60,000
(B) Rs. 80,500
(C) Rs. 60,700
(D) Rs. 70,500
(E) None of these
37. In how many different ways, can the letters of the word ‘CRISIS’ be
arranged ?
(A) 150
(B) 240
(C) 120
(D) 200
(E) None of these
38. At each corner of a square park with side equal to 40 m, there is a
flower bed in the form of a sector of radius 14 m. What is the area of
the remaining part of the park?
(A)984 Square m
(B) 789 Square m
(C) 1014 Square m
(D) 1024 Square m
(E) None of these
39. The length of a rectangular field is thrice its breadth. If the cost
of cultivating the field at Rs. 367.20 per square meter is Rs. 27,540,
then what is the perimeter of the rectangle?
(A)47m
(B) 39m
(C)52m
(D)40m
(E) None of these
40. If the fractions8/5,7/2,9/5,5/4,4/5 are arranged in descending order
of their values, which one will be fourth?
(A)4/5
(B)5/4
(C)9/5
(D)8/5
(E) 7/2
41. The present ages of Chetna and Shikha are in the ratio of 5 :7
respectively. After 7 years, their ages will be in the ratio of 11:14
respectively. What is the difference between their ages?
(A)9 years
(B) 4 years
(C)5 years
(D) 7 years
(E) None of these
42. If 13 men can complete a piece of work in 36 days, then in how many
days will 18 men complete the same work?
(A)16 days
(B) 20 days
(C)26 days
(D) 30 days
(E) None of these
43. If the area of a circle is 75.44 square cm then what is the
circumference of the circle?
(A)29.2 cm
(B) 28.9 cm
(C)30.8 cm
(D) 40.2 cm
(E) None of these
44. Girish started a business investing Rs. 45,000. After 3 months, Vijay
joined him with a capital of Rs. 60,000. After another 6 months, Ankush
joined them with a capital of Rs. 90,000. At the end of the year, they
made a profit of Rs. 16,500. What is Girish’s share of profit ?
(A) Rs. 5,500
(B) Rs. 6,000
(C) Rs. 6,600
(D) As. 5,900
(E) None of these
45. What is the average age of a family of five members, whose ages are
42, 49, 56, 63 and 35 years respectively?
(A)60 years
(B) 49 years
(C)45 years
(D) 58 years
(E) None of these
46. A and B are two taps which can fill a tank individually in 10 minutes
and 20 minutes respectively. However, there is a leakage at the bottom
which can empty a filled tank in 40 minutes. If the tank is empty
initially, how much time will both the taps take to fill the tank
(leakage is still there) ?
(A) 8 minutes
(B) 7 minutes
(C) 10 minutes
(D)15 minutes
(E) None of these
47. What is 50% of 40% of Rs. 3,450?
(A) Rs. 690
(B) As. 520
(C) Rs. 517.5
(D) Rs. 499.2
(E) None of these
48. If an amount of Rs. 5,86,700 is distributed equally amongst 25
persons, then how much would each person get?
.
(A) Rs. 2,54,876
(B) Rs. 2,34,68
(C) Rs. 3,74,20
(D) Rs. 1,95,62
(E) None of these
49. An urn contains 9 blue, 7 white and 4 black balls. If 2 balls are
drawn at random, then what is the probability that only one ball is
white?
(A) 71/190
(B) 121/190
(C) 91/190
(D) 93/190
(E) None of these
50. If the price of 5 transistors and 2 pen stands is Rs. 810, then what
will be the price of 7 transistors and 9 pen stands?
(A) Rs. 1,320
(B) Rs. 1,500
(C) Rs.1,150
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

ANSWERS:

1 - D 2 - C 3 - B 4 - A 5 - D 6 - A 7 - E 8 - B 9 - E 10 - B 11 - C 12
- D 13 - D 14 - A 15 - B
16 - B 17 - A 18 - C 19 - E 20 - B 21 - A 22 - C 23 - E 24 - B 25 - A 26
- A 27 - B 28 - C 29 - C 30 - D 31 - B 32 - D 33 - A 34 - D 35 - C 36 -
A 37 - E 38 - A 39 - D 40 - B 41 - E 42 - C 43 - C
44 - A 45 - B 46 - A 47 - A 48 - B 49 - E 50 – D
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  #5  
Old 4th August 2014, 08:31 AM
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Default Bank of Baroda Probationary Officers exam previous year question papers

Will you please share with me the Bank of Baroda Probationary Officers exam previous year question papers?
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Old 4th August 2014, 10:10 AM
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Default Re: Bank of Baroda Probationary Officers exam previous year question papers

As you want to get the Bank of Baroda Probationary Officers exam previous year question papers so here it is for you:

1. RBI’s open market operation transactions are carried out with a view to regulate—
(A) Liquidity in the economy
(B) Prices of essential commodities
(C) Inflation
(D) Borrowing power of the banks
(E) All the above

2. When more than one banks are allowing credit facilities to one party in coordination
with each other under a formal arrangement, the arrangement is generally known as—
(A) Participation
(B) Consortium
(C) Syndication
(D) Multiple banking
(E) None of these

3. Open market operations, one of the measures taken by RBI in order to control credit
expansion in the economy means —
(A) Sale or purchase of Govt. securities
(B) Issuance of different types of bonds
(C) Auction of gold
(D) To make available direct finance to borrowers
(E) None of these

4. The bank rate means—
(A) Rate of interest charged by commercial banks from borrowers
(B) Rate of interest at which commercial banks discounted bills of their borrowers
(C) Rate of interest allowed by commercial banks on their deposits
(D) Rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of exchange of commercial banks
(E) None of these

5. What is an Indian Depository Receipt ?
(A) A deposit account with a Public Sector Bank
(B) A depository account with any of Depositories in India
(C) An instrument in the form of depository receipt created by an Indian depository against underlying equity shares of the issuing company
(D) An instrument in the form of deposit receipt issued by Indian depositories
(E) None of these

6. An instrument that derives its value from a specified underlying (currency, gold, stocks etc.) is known as—
(A) Derivative
(B) Securitisation Receipts
(C) Hedge Fund
(D) Factoring
(E) Venture Capital Funding

7. Fiscal deficit is—
(A) total income less Govt. borrowing
(B) total payments less total receipts
(C) total payments less capital receipts
(D) total expenditure less total receipts excluding borrowing
(E) None of these

8. In the Capital Market, the term arbitrage is used with reference to—
(A) purchase of securities to cover the sale
(B) sale of securities to reduce the loss on purchase
(C) simultaneous purchase and sale of securities to make profits from price
(D) variation in different markets
(E) Any of the above

9. Reverse repo means—
(A) Injecting liquidity by the Central Bank of a country through purchase of Govt. securities
(B) Absorption of liquidity from the market by sale of Govt. securities
(C) Balancing liquidity with a view to enhancing economic growth rate
(D) Improving the position of availability of the securities in the market
(E) Any of the above

10. The stance of RBI monetary policy is—
(A) inflation control with adequate liquidity for growth
(B) improving credit quality of the Banks
(C) strengthening credit delivery mechanism
(D) supporting investment demand in the economy
(E) Any of the above

11. Currency Swap is an instrument to manage—
(A) Currency risk
(B) interest rate risk
(C) currency and interest rate risk
(D) cash flows in different currencies
(E) All of the above

12. ‘Sub-prime’ refers to—
(A) lending done by banks at rates below PLR
(B) funds raised by the banks at sub-Libor rates
(C) Group of banks which are not rated as prime banks as per Banker’s Almanac
(D) lending done by financing institutions including banks to customers not meeting with normally required credit appraisal standards
(E) All of the above

13. Euro Bond is an instrument—
(A) issued in the European market
(B) issued in Euro Currency
(C) issued in a country other than the country of the currency of the Bond
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these

14. Money Laundering normally involves—
(A) placement of funds
(B) layering of funds
(C) integration of funds
(D) All of (A), (B) and (C)
(E) None of (A), (B) and (C)

15. The IMF and the World Bank were conceived as institutions to—
(A) strengthen international economic co-operation and to help create a more stable and prosperous global economy
(B) IMF promotes international monetary cooperation
(C) The World Bank promotes long term economic development and poverty reduction
(D) All of (A), (B) and (C)
(E) None of (A), (B) and (C)

16. Capital Market Regulator is—
(A) RBI
(B) IRDA
(C) NSE
(D) BSE
(E) SEBI

17. In the term BRIC, R stands for—
(A) Romania
(B) Rajithan
(C) Russia
(D) Regulation
(E) None of these

18. FDI refers to—
(A) Fixed Deposit Interest
(B) Fixed Deposit Investment
(C) Foreign Direct Investment
(D) Future Derivative Investment
(E) None of these

19. What is Call Money ?
(A) Money borrowed or lent for a day or over night
(B) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 3 days
(C) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 7 days
(D) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 14 days
(E) None of these

20. Which is the first Indian company to be listed in NASDAQ ?
(A) Reliance
(B) TCS
(C) HCL
(D) Infosys
(E) None of these

21. Which of the following is the Regulator of the credit rating agencies in India ?
(A) RBI
(B) SBI
(C) SIDBI
(D) SEBI
(E) None of these

22. Who is Brand Endorsing Personality of Bank of Baroda ?
(A) Juhi Chawla
(B) Kiran Bedi
(C) Amitabh Bachchan
(D) Kapil Dev
(E) None of these

23. The branding line of Bank of Baroda is—
(A) International Bank of India
(B) India’s International Bank
(C) India’s Multinational Bank
(D) World’s local Bank
(E) None of these

24. The logo of Bank of Baroda is known as—
(A) Sun of Bank of Baroda
(B) Baroda Sun
(C) Bank of Baroda’s Rays
(D) Sunlight of Bank of Baroda
(E) None of these

25. Which of the following statements(s) is/are True about the exports of China which is a close competitor of India ?
(i) China’s economic success is basically on the fact that it exports cheaper goods to rich
nations like the USA, etc.
(ii) In the year 2007 China’s exports became almost 40% of its GDP.
(iii) When compared to India China’s share in the World Exports is more than 30%
whereas India’s share is mere 6% of the global exports.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these

26. One of the major challenges banking industry is facing these days is money laundering. Which of the following acts/norms are launched by the banks to prevent money laundering in general ?
(A) Know Your Customer Norms
(B) Banking Regulation Act
(C) Negotiable Instrument Act
(D) Narcotics and Psychotropic Substance Act
(E) None of these

27. Lot of Banks in India these days are offering M-Banking Facility to their customers. What is the full form of ‘M’ in ‘M-Banking’ ?
(A) Money
(B) Marginal
(C) Message
(D) Mutual Fund
(E) Mobile Phone

28. Which of the following is/are true about the ‘Sub-Prime Crisis’ ? (The term was very much in news recently.)
(i) It is a mortgage crisis referring to credit default by the borrowers.
(ii) Sub-Prime borrowers were those borrowers who were rated low and were high risk
borrowers.
(iii) This crisis originated because of negligence in credit rating of the borrowers.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these

29. Which of the following is not the part of the structure of the Financial System in India ?
(A) Industrial Finance
(B) Agricultural Finance
(C) Government Finance
(D) Development Finance
(E) Personal Finance

30. Which of the following is not the part of the scheduled banking structure in India ?
(A) Money Lenders
(B) Public Sector Banks
(C) Private Sector Banks
(D) Regional Rural Banks
(E) State Co-operative Banks

31. As we all know Govt. of India collects tax revenue on various activities in the country. Which of the following is a part of the tax revenue of the Govt. ?
(i) Tax on Income
(ii) Tax on Expenditure
(iii) Tax on Property or Capital Asset
(iv) Tax on Goods and Services
(A) Both (i) and (iii) only
(B) Both (ii) and (iv) only
(C) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(E) None of these

32. We very frequently read about Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in newspapers. These SEZs were established with which of the following objectives ?
(i) To attract foreign investment directly.
(ii) To protect domestic market from direct competition from multinationals.
(iii) To provide more capital to agricultural and allied activities.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these

33. Which of the following groups of countries has almost 50% share in global emission of carbon every year ?
(A) US, China, India, South Africa
(B) India, China, Russia, Britain
(C) South Africa, Nepal, Myanmar
(D) US, Russia, China & India
(E) None of these

34. Which of the following correctly describes the concept of ‘Nuclear Bank’ floated by International Atomic Energy Agency ?
(i) It is a nuclear fuel bank to be shared by all the nations jointly.
(ii) It is a facility to help nations in enrichment of uranium.
(iii) It is an agency which will keep a close vigil on the nuclear programme of all the
nations.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (iii) only
(D) Only (iii)
(E) Both (i) and (ii) only

35. Many times we read about Future Trading in newspapers. What is ‘Future Trading’ ?
(i) It is nothing but a trade between any two stock exchanges wherein it is decided to
purchase the stocks of each other on a fixed price throughout the year.
(ii) It is an agreement between two parties to buy or sell an underlying asset in the future
at a predetermined price.
(iii) It is an agreement between stock exchanges that they will not trade the stocks of each
other under any circumstances in future or for a given period of time.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these

36. Inflation in India is measured on which of the following indexes/indicators ?
(A) Cost of Living Index (COLI)
(B) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
(C) Gross Domestic Product
(D) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
(E) None of these

37. As per the reports published in the newspapers a section of society staged a demonstration at the venue of the G-8 Summit recently. What was/were the issues towards which these demonstrators were trying to draw the attention of G-8 leaders ?
(i) Food shortage which has taken 50 million people in its grip.
(ii) Inflation which has gone up substantially across the Globe.
(iii) USA’s consistent presence in Iraq.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) Both (i) and (ii) only
(E) None of these

38. Hillary Clinton formally suspended her campaign to ensure election of who amongst the following for the next President of USA ?
(A) George Bush
(B) Barack Obama
(C) John McCain
(D) Bill Clinton
(E) None of these

39. Hugo Chavez whose name was recently in news is the—
(A) President of Congo
(B) Prime Minister of Uganda
(C) President of Venezuela
(D) Prime Minister of Brazil
(E) None of these

40. The Govt. of India has raised the amount of the Loan Waiver to the farmers by 20%. Now the amount is nearly—
(A) Rs. 60,000 crore
(B) Rs. 65,000 crore
(C) Rs. 72,000 crore
(D) Rs. 76,000 crore
(E) Rs. 80,000 crore

41. Delimitation Commission has made a recommendation that next Census should be Panchayat-wise. When is the next Census due ?
(A) 2010
(B) 2011
(C) 2012
(D) 2013
(E) 2015

42. The World Health Organisation has urged that advertisements of which of the following should be banned to protect youth from bad effects of the same ?
(A) Tobacco
(B) Alcoholic drinks
(C) Junk Food
(D) Soft drinks with chemical preservatives
(E) None of these

43. Which of the following countries has allocated a huge amount of US $ 10 billion to provide relief to its earthquake victims ?
(A) Japan
(B) South Korea
(C) China
(D) South Africa
(E) None of these

44. India and Nepal have many agreements on sharing of the water of various rivers. Which of the following rivers is not covered under these agreements ?
(A) Kosi
(B) Gandak
(C) Ganga
(D) Mahakali
(E) All these rivers are covered

45. Which of the following names is not closely associated with space programme of India or any other country ?
(A) CARTOSAT
(B) NLS – 5
(C) RUBIN – 8
(D) GSLV
(E) SCOPE

46. Vijay Hazare Trophy is associated with the game of—
(A) Hockey
(B) Cricket
(C) Badminton
(D) Football
(E) Golf

47. Which of the following was the theme of the Olympic Torch ?
(A) Journey of Harmony
(B) Green World Clean World
(C) Journey of Peace
(D) Journey for Hunger-free World
(E) None of these

48. Which of the following schemes is not a social development Scheme ?
(A) Indira Awas Yojana
(B) Mid Day Meal
(C) Bharat Nirman Yojana
(D) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(E) All are social schemes

49. Which of the following is not a member of the ASEAN ?
(A) Malaysia
(B) Indonesia
(C) Vietnam
(D) Britain
(E) Singapore

50. Which of the following Awards are given for excellence in the field of Sports ?
(A) Kalinga Prize
(B) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
(C) Arjun Award
(D) Pulitzer Prize
(E) None of these

Answers :
1. (E) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (E)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (E) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (E) 27. (E) 28. (D) 29. (E) 30. (A)
31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (E) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (C) 49. (D) 50. (C
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