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Re: Infosys placement papers with answers

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Infosys Placement Question Paper 1


Graphic Era University, Dehradun, 13 January 2010
Infosys Placement Paper

Svits, Indore, 22 January 2010

1) APTITUDE TEST:

Questions = 70; time limit = 75 minutes. Sectional cut-off in each section it’s around 60% in Logical Reasoning part and 50% in Verbal Ability. No negative marking Offline (paper & pen) test.

Analytical & Logical reasoning 30 question: 40 minutes)

English section: (40 question : 35 minutes)

Analytical reasoning

1. Joe's age, Joe's sister's age and Joe’s fathers age sums up to a century. When son is as old as his father, Joe's sister will be twice as old as now. When Joe is as old as his father then his father is twice as old as when his sister was as old as her father

Ans: Joe=20 sister=30 father=50

2. At 6'o clock clock ticks 6 times. The time between first and last ticks was 30sec. How much time it takes at 12'o clock?

Ans. 66 sec. 2 marks.

3. Three friends divided some bullets equally. After all of them shot 4 bullets the total no.of remaining bullets is equal

to that of one has after division. Find the original number divided.

Ans: 18

4. A ship went on a voyage after 180 miles a plane started with 10 times speed that of the ship. Find the distance when they meet from starting point.

Ans: 200

5. A man sold two cows for Rs. 210 at a total profit of 5 %. He sold one cow at a loss of 10% and another at a profit of 10%. What is the price of each cow?

Ans: Rs. 150 and Rs. 50

Directions: 6 -10 In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

Answers 6-10

6) B 7) D 8) E 9) A 10) C

Questions 11- 15 are to be answered on the following data

A causes B or C, but not both

F occurs only if B occurs

D occurs if B or C occurs

E occurs only if C occurs

J occurs only if E or F occurs

D causes G, H or both

H occurs if E occurs

G occurs if F occurs


11. If A occurs which of the following must occurs?



I. F and G

II. E and H

III. D

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) III only

(d) I,II, & III

(e) I & II (or) II & III but not both

Ans. (e)


12. If B occurs which must occur

(a) D

(b) D and G

(c) G and H

(d) F and G

(e) J

Ans. (a)


13. If J occurs which must have occurred

(a) E

(b) either B or C

(c) both E & F

(d) B

(e) both B & C

Ans. (b)


14. Which may occurs as a result of cause not mentioned

I. D

II. A

III. F

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) I & II

(d) II & III

(e) I,II & III

Ans. (c)


15. E occurs which one cannot occurs

(a) A

(b) F

(c) D

(d) C

Ans: (b)

Directions16-20: Each problem consists of a problem followed by two statements. Decide whether the data in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Select your answer according to whether

(A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question

(B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question

(C) Both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient

(D) Each statement alone is sufficient

(E) Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient, and additional data is needed to answer the question

16. Is x > 0?

1. -2x < 0

2. x³ > 0

A. A.

B. B.

C. C.

D. D.

E. E.

Ans: D

17. A certain straight corridor has four doors, A, B, C and D (in that order) leading off from the same side. How far apart are doors B and C?

1. The distance between doors B and D is 10 meters.

2. The distance between A and C is 12 meters.

A. A.

B. B.

C. C.

D. D.

E. E.

Ans: E

18. Given that x and y are real numbers, what is the value of x + y?

1. (x² – y²) / (x-y) = 7

2. (x + y)² = 49

A. A.

B. B.

C. C.

D. D.

E. E.

Ans: A

19. Two socks are to be picked at random from a drawer containing only black and white socks. What is the probability that both are white?

1. The probability of the first sock being black is 1/3.

2. There are 24 white socks in the drawer.

A. A.

B. B.

C. C.

D. D.

E. E.

Ans: C

20. A bucket was placed under a dripping tap which was dripping at a uniform rate. At what time was the bucket full?

1. The bucket was put in place at 2pm.

2. The bucket was half full at 6pm and three-quarters full at 8pm.

A. A.

B. B.

C. C.

D. D.

E. E.

Ans: B

Directions (Question 21-25): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Rohit, Kunal, Ashish and John are students of a school. Three of them stay far from the school and one near it. Two study in class IV, one in class V and one in class VI. They study Hindi , mathematics, Social Science. One is good at all the four subjects while another weak in all of these. Rohit stays far from the school and good at Mathematics only while Kunal is weak in Mathematics only and stays close to the school. Neither of these two nor Ashish studies in class VI. One who is good at all the subjects’ studies in class V.

21. Name of the boy who is good at all the subjects.

A) Rohit B) Kunal C) Ashish D) John

Ans: C

22. Name the boy who is weak in all the subjects

A) Rohit B) Kunal C) Ashish D) John

Ans: D

23. Which two boys are good at Hindi?

A) Rohit and Kunal B) Kunal and Ashish C) Ashish and John D) John and Rohit

Ans: B

24. Which two boys are good at Mathematics?

A) Rohit and Ashish B) Kunal and Ashish C) John and Ashish D) Rohit and John

Ans: A

25. Other than Rohit and the boy good at all the subjects, who else stays far from the school?

A) Rohit B) Kunal C) Ashish D) John

Ans: D

Directions 26-30: The table above shows imports for three types of steel over a six month period. Use this information to answer the following questions

26. Which month showed the largest decrease in total imports over the previous month?

A. Feb B. Mar C. Apr D. May E. Jun

Ans. B

27. What was the total value of sheet steel (in $) imported over the 6 month period?

A. 56,750 B. 75,300 C. 55,550 D. 42,370 E. 44,750

Ans. C

28. What was the percentage of scrap steel imported in the 6 month period?

A.37.5 B.35.2 C.36.1 D.31.2 E.38.3

Ans. D

29. What was the difference (in thousands of tons) between coil steel and sheet steel imports in the first 3 months of the year?

A. 10 B.16 C.18 D.19 E. 20

Ans. E

30. What was the approximate ratio of sheet steel and coil steel imports in the first 3 months of the year?

A. 11:9 B.8:9 C. 7:11 D. 3:8 E. 7:4

Ans. A



Verbal Ability Test (40 Questions in 35 minutes)

Directions for Questions 1-5: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage

A snow leopard roars in the high mountains of Asia. A black rhinoceros gallops across the plains of Africa. A grizzly bear hunts for fish in a North American river. A mother blue whale and her calf glide through the deep waters of the ocean.

All of these animals share the Earth with us. They fascinate us with their beauty, their grace, and their speed. We love observing their behavior, and learning more about their habits. But just loving them is not enough. All of these animals are endangered. Many of them have died, and without special care, they may someday disappear from the Earth.

Why is it important to care for animals like these? One reason is to protect the balance of life on Earth. Another reason is the beauty of the animals themselves. Each species of animal is special. Once it is gone, it is gone forever.

Africa was once filled with an abundance of wild animals. But that is changing fast. One of these animals, the black rhinoceros, lives on the plains of Africa. It has very poor eyesight and a very bad temper! Even though the black rhino is powerful, and can be dangerous, its strength can’t always help it to escape hunters. Some people think that the rhino’s horn has magical powers, and many hunters kill rhinos for their valuable horns. This has caused the black rhino to be placed on the endangered species list.

The elephant seems to represent all that is strong and wild in Africa. It once had no natural enemies, but is now endangered—killed for its ivory tusks.

The fastest land animal, the cheetah, also lives in Africa. It, too, is becoming extinct as people take over more and more of the land that is the cheetah's natural habitat.

Imagine Africa without the powerful rhino, the gentle, intelligent elephant, or the lightning quick cheetah. Once they are gone, they are gone forever.

Wherever people are careless about the land, there are endangered species.

Grizzly bears like to wander great distances. Each bears needs up to 1,500 square miles of territory to call its homeland. Today, because forests have been cleared to make room for people, the grizzly’s habitat is shrinking and the grizzly is disappearing. It joins other endangered North American animals, such as the red wolf and the American crocodile.

In South America, destruction of the rain forest threatens many animals. Unusual mammals, such as the howler monkey and the three-toed sloth, are endangered. Beautiful birds like the great green macaw and the golden parakeet are also becoming extinct. They’re losing their homes in the rain forest, and thousands die when they are caught and shipped off to be sold as exotic pets.

The giant panda of Asia is a fascinating and unique animal. Yet there are only about 1,000 still living in the wild. The giant panda’s diet consists mainly of the bamboo plant, so when the bamboo forests die, so does the panda. China is now making an effort to protect these special creatures from becoming extinct.

Asia’s big cats are also in trouble. The exotic snow leopard lives high in the mountains. Even there, it faces the loss of its natural habitat, and hunters who kill it for its fur. The tiger, the largest of all the big cats, is hunted merely for sport.

Ocean-dwelling animals are in danger of extinction as well. The blue whale is the largest animal in the world. It weighs up to 390,000 pounds. Whale hunting and pollution are this species’ greatest enemies.

Unfortunately, it is people who cause many of the problems that animals face. We alter and pollute their habitats. We hunt them for skins, tusks, furs, and horns. We destroy animals that get in the way of farming or building. And we remove them from their natural habitats and take them home as pets.

What can you do to help endangered animals? Learn as much as you can about them. The more you know, the more you can help. Make an effort to support zoos and wildlife groups. Many zoos breed endangered animals, helping to ensure that they will continue to live on. Contribute to groups, such as the National Wildlife Federation and the Sierra Club, that work hard to protect animals. You can also be a smart shopper and never buy a pet that has been raised in the wilderness.

The world is made up of many living things, and each thing is dependent on the others to survive. If we allow even one species on Earth to become extinct, it has an impact on other living things and changes our world. When we mention any endangered wild animals, let’s hope that we never again have to say, "Gone forever."

1. Which of the following is NOT an opinion?

A. It is important for us to take care of endangered animals.

B. The black rhinoceros is the most frightening animal in Africa.

C. The fastest land animal, the cheetah, also lives in Africa.

D. If we don’t protect endangered animals now, we will regret it in the future.

Ans: B

2. Read this sentence from the article. Today, because forests have been cleared to make room for people, the grizzly’s habitat is shrinking and the grizzly is disappearing.

What does habitat mean?

A. an animal’s natural environment

B. a bear’s thick wool coat

C. a bear’s den

D. an animal’s vision

Ans: A

3. Which of the following does NOT support the main idea of the article?

A. Ocean-dwelling animals are in danger of extinction as well.

B. Beautiful birds like the great green macaw are also becoming extinct.

C. Wherever people are careless about the land, there are endangered species.

D. The elephant seems to represent all that is strong and wild in Africa.

Ans: D

4. Read this sentence from the article. They fascinate us with their beauty, their grace, and their speed.

What is an antonym for the word fascinate?

A. thrill

B. bore

C. scare

D. humor

Ans: B

5. What will happen to some animal species if current trends continue?

A. Their numbers will increase.

B. There will be no significant change.

C. They will become extinct.

D. They will move to other habitats

Ans: C

Directions for Questions 6-10: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage

The last half of my life has been lived in one of those painful epochs of human history during which the world is getting worse, and past victories which had seemed to be definitive have turned out to be only temporary. When I was young, Victorian optimism was taken for granted. It was thought that freedom and prosperity would speed gradually throughout the world by an orderly process, and it was hoped that cruelty, tyranny, and injustice would continually diminish. Hardly anyone was haunted by the fear of great wars. Hardly anyone thought of thenineteenth century as a brief interlude between past and future barbarism.

6. The author feels and about the later part of his life because

A) The world had not become prosperous

B) He was nostalgic about his childhood.

C) The world was painfully disturbed during that period of time.

D) The author had not won any further victories.

Ans: C

7. The victories of the past

A) Filled men with a sense of pessimism

B) Proved to be temporary events

C) ended, cruelty, tyranny, and injustice

D) Brought permanent peace and security

Ans: B

8. The world 'definitive' as used in the passage means

A) Incomplete B) defined C) temporary D) final

Ans: D

9. During the Victorian age people believed that

A) There would be unlimited freedom

B) Strife would increase

C) Peace would prevail and happiness would engulf the whole world.

D) Wars would be fought on a bigger scale

Ans: C

10. A brief interlude between past and future barbarism' can be interpreted as

A) A dramatic performance during wars

B) An interval between cruel wars

C) A short space of time between two great events

D) A short period of time between past and future acts of savagery.

Ans: D

Directions 11-18: Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

11. The petition before the Court prayed for .....................the appointment orders issued by the management

A) Removing B) granting C) posting D) quashing E) dismissing

Ans: D

12. I have a profound respect for his political..................

A) Personality B) ambition C) temperament D) sagacity E) involvement

Ans: D

13. The truck was.............. The traffic and the policemen asked the driver to move off.

A) Failing B) obstructing C) obviating D) hiding E) disturbing

Ans: B

14. The paternalistic attitude is so ingrained in the managements that they have to.....................try to change it

A) Casually B) slowly C) subtly D) inadvertently E) conscientiously

Ans: C

15. For a few seconds, Madan was.............blinded by the powerful lights of the oncoming car

A) Heavily B) largely C) greatly D) powerfully E) totally

Ans: E

16. Sachin was to reach that afternoon but was ...... up at Delhi for some personal work.

A. delayed B. kept C. held D.stayed E. detained

Ans: A

17. He..... his shoes till they shone.

A. brushed B. scrubbed C. wiped D. polished. E. shined.

Ans: C

18. Let us take him upon his word. I see no room for any ....... in the matter

A) Deviation B) duplicity C) difference D) cynicism

Ans: B

Direction Questions 19 - 26: In each question below is given a passage followed by several inferences. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.

Mark your answer as:

A. if the inference is ' definitely true' i.e. , it directly follows from the facts given in the passage

B. if the inference is ' probably true' though not definitely true in the light of the facts given

C. if you think the data are in adequate i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false

D. if you think the inference is ' probably false' though not definitely false in the light of the facts given; and

E. if you think inference is ' definitely false' i,e , it contradicts the given facts.

Passage I

More than a decade of erosion in budgetary support from the Union Government, has seriously affected Indian Railway's capacity to finance its plan expenditures. The situation has come to a pass where the railways must now think of innovative ways to get longer mileage from its investments. Significantly the resource crunch has had grievous impact on the railways. As a result, it will not be in a position to acquire necessary equipments and this will seriously affect the railway's capacity to serve the needs of the economy in future.

19. Railways had so far belived in traditional ways in generating income.

Ans: A

20. Government has shifted its priority from railways to other areas.

Ans: B

21. The union government has reduced drastically the budgetary support to railways during the last decade.

Ans: A

22. The fiscal position of railways in the earlier plan period was better than the current plan period

Ans: A

23. During the current plan period, the railways will not be able to expand its network

Ans: A

Passage II

The smaller pesticide formulation units in India operate under heavy constraints such as obsolete technology, small scale of operation and dependence on large units for raw materials. In view of the loss of expensive material by the smaller units it is important to either eliminate or reduce losses to the extent possible through innovative and sustainable waste minimization techniques. Operating profit margins of the units are very low and small adverse conditions land these companies in trouble. Maximum losses suffered by these units are through poor house keeping, Sub- optional operating practices, and lack of proper opportunities for recycling waste.

24. Smaller units should be operationally self sufficient so as to minimize loss.

Ans: C

25. Waste management process in India need modernization

Ans: A

26. Lack of funds compels smaller units to ignore house keeping.

Ans: B

Direction 27-32: In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no mistake the answer is 'no error'

27. Our is the only / country in the world / than can boast of / unity in diversity / no error

A B C D E

Ans: B

28. May I know/who you want / to see please / No error

A B C D

Ans: B

29. Due to me being a newcomer / I was unable to get a house / suitable for my wife and me / No error

Ans: A

30. This is the boy / whom I think had won / the gold medal in the dance competition / No error

A B C D

Ans: B

31. The number of vehicles /plying on this road /is more than on the main road / No error

A B C D

Ans: C



32. There has not been any rainfall / in this part of the country / since the last two years / No error

A B C D

Ans: D



Directions 33-40: In each question, a part of sentence is printed in italics. Below each sentence, some phrases are given which can substitute the italicized part of the sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, the answer is 'No correction required'




33. No sooner I saw the tiger than I ran away

A. No sooner I had seen B. No sooner did I see C. as soon as I saw D. No Correction required

Ans: B

34. Let he and I work together

A. him and I B. him and me C. he and me D. No Correction required

Ans: C

35. The child is father of the man

A. A child, man B. Child, a man C. Child, Man D. No Correction required

Ans: D

36. I am used to hard work

A. hard working B. work hard C. work hardly D. No Correction required

Ans: D

37. The doctor examined my pulse

A. observed B. saw C. felt D. No Correction required

Ans: C

38. I wish I have all those luxuries

A. I will have B. I am having C. I had D. No Correction required

Ans: C

39. She did not like the movie, nor I did

A. nor did I B. nor I like it C. nor I liked it D. No Correction required

Ans: A

40. The enthusiastic voters were queuing up outside the polling station since morning.

A. queued up B. Had queued up C. had been queuing up D. No Correction required

Ans: B

Infosys Placement Question Paper
Infosys Placement Paper

JB Institute of engineering&Tech, Hyderabad, 4 February, 2010



1) APTITUDE TEST:

Questions = 70; time limit = 75 minutes. Sectional cut-off in each section its around 60% in Logical Reasoning part and 50% in Verbal Ability. No negative marking Offline (paper & pen) test.

Analytical & Logical reasoning 30 questions: 40 minutes)

English section: (40 questions : 35 minutes)



Analytical reasoning



1. A family I know has several children. Each boy in this family has as many sisters as brothers but each girl has twice as many brothers as sisters. How many brothers and sisters are there?

Ans: 4 boys and 3 girls.



2. In a soap company a soap is manufactured with 11 parts. For making one soap you will get 1 part as scrap. At the end of the day u have 251 such scraps. From that how many soaps can be manufactured?



Ans: 25.



3. There is a 5digit no. 3 pairs of sum is eleven each. Last digit is 3 times the first one. 3 rd digit is 3 less than the second.4 th digit is 4 more than the second one. Find the digit.

Ans: 25296.



4. Every day a cyclist meets a train at a particular crossing. The road is straight before the crossing and both are traveling in the same direction. The cyclist travels with a speed of 10 Kmph. One day the cyclist comes late by 25 min. and meets the train 5km before the crossing. What is the speed of the train?

Ans: 60 kmph





5. Two twins have certain peculiar characteristics. One of them always lies on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday. The other always lies on Tuesdays, Thursdays and Saturdays. On the other days they tell the truth. You are given a conversation.



Person A-- today is Sunday my name is Anil

Person B -- today is Tuesday, my name is Bill

what day is today?



Ans: Today is Tuesday



Directions 6:10 in each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?







Answers 6-10



6) E 7) C 8) B 9) E 10) D



Directions 11-15: Each problem consists of a problem followed by two statements. Decide whether the data in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Select your answer according to whether:



(A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question



(B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question



(C) Both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient



(D) Each statement alone is sufficient



(E) Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient, and additional data is needed to answer the question



11. If x and y are both positive integers, how much greater is x than y?



x + y = 20

x = y²

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Ans: C



12. Fifty percent of the articles in a certain magazine are written by staff members. Sixty percent of the articles are on current affairs. If 75 percent of the articles on current affairs are written by staff members with more than 5 years experience of journalism, how many of the articles on current affairs are written by journalists with more than 5 years experience?



20 articles are written by staff members.

Of the articles on topics other than current affairs, 50 percent are by staff members with less than 5 years experience.

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Ans: A



13. Is xy > 0?



x/y < 0

x + y < 0

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Ans: A



14 One number, n, is selected at random from a set of 10 integers. What is the probability that ½ n + 13 = 0?



The largest integer in the set is 13.

The arithmetic mean of the set is zero.

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Ans: E



15. Is w a whole number?



3w is an odd number.

2w is an even number.

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Ans: B



Directions (Question 16 to 19): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.



IV. i) There are six friends A, B, C, D, E and F



ii) Each one is proficient in one of the games, namely Badminton, Vollyball, Cricket, Hockey, Tennis and Polo



iii) Each owns a different colored car, namely yellow, green, black, white, blue and red.



iv) D plays Polo and owns a yellow colored car



v) C does not play either Tennis or Hockey and owns neither blue nor yellow colored car



vi) E owns a white car and plays Badminton



vii) B does not play Tennis; he owns a red coloured car.



viii) A plays Cricket and owns a black car



16. Who plays Volleyball?



A) B B) C C) F D) Data inadequate E) None of these



Ans: B



17. Which coloured car F owns?



A) Green B) Blue C) Either Green or Blue D) Data inadequate E) None of these



Ans: B



18. Which of the following combinations of colour of car and game played is not correct?



A) Yellow - Polo B) Green - Tennis C) Black - Cricket D) Red- Hockey E) None of these



Ans: B



19. In a group of six women, there are four dancers, four vocal musicians, one actress and three violinists. Girija and Vanaja are among the violinists while Jalaja and Shailaja do not know how to play on the violin. Shailaja and Tanuja are among the dancers. Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailaja and Tanuja are all vocal musicians and two of them are also violinists. If Pooja is an actress, who among the following is both a dancer and violinist?



A) Jalaja B) Shailaja C) Tanuja D) Pooja



Ans: C



20. Salay walked 10 m towards West from his house. Then he walked 5 m turning to his left. After this he walked 10 m turning to his left and in the end he walked 10 m turning to his left. In what direction is he now from his starting point?



(A) South (B) North (C) East (D) West (E) None of these

Ans: (B)



21. Manish goes 7 km towards South-East from his house, then he goes 14 km turning to West. After this he goes 7 km towards North West and in the end he goes 9 km towards East. How far is he from his house?



(A) 5 km (B) 7 km (C) 2 km (D) 14 km (E) None of these

Ans: (A)



22. Laxman went 15 kms from my house, then turned left and walked 20 kms. He then turned east and walked 25 kms and finally turning left covered 20kms. How far was he from his house?



(A) 5 kms (B) 10 kms (C) 40 kms (D) 80 kms (E) None of these

Ans: (D)



23. The door of Aditya's house faces the east. From the back side of his house, he walks straight 50 metres, then turns to the right and walks 50 metres, then turns towards left and stops after walking 25 metres. Now Aditya is in which direction from the starting point?



(A) South-East (B) North-East (C) South- West (D) North-West (E) None of these

Ans: (D)



24. P, Q, R and S are playing a game of carrom. P, R, and S, Q are partners. S is to the right of R who is facing west. Then Q is facing?



(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West (E) None of these

Ans: (A)



25. A clock is so placed that at 12 noon its minute hand points towards north-east. In which direction does its hour hand point at 1.30 p.m?



(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West (E) None of these



Ans: C



26. A man walks 30 metres towards South. Then, turning to his right, he walks 30 metres. Then turning to his left, he walks 20 metres. Again he turns to his left and walks 30 metres. How far is he from his initial position?



A. 20 metres B. 30 metres C.60 metres D. 80 metres E None of these



Ans: E



Directions 27-30: The table below shows the number of people who responded to a survey about their favorite style of music. Use this information to answer the following questions to the nearest whole percentage.



27. What percentage of respondents under 31, indicated that blues in their favorite style?



A. 7.1 B. 7.6 C. 8.3 D. 14.1 E. 7.2



Ans: B



28. What percentage of respondents aged 21-30 indicated that jazz is their favorite style?



A. 64 % B. 60% C. 75% D. 36% E. 46%



Ans: A



29. What percentage of the total sample indicated that Jazz is heir favorite style of music?



A. 6 % B. 8% C. 22% D. 4% E. 11%



Ans: E



30. What percentage of the total sample were aged 21-30?



A. 31 % B. 23% C. 25% D. 14% E. 30%



Ans: C



Verbal Ability Test (40 Questions in 35 minutes)



Directions for Questions 1-5: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.



Much of the information we have today about chimpanzees comes from the groundbreaking, long-term research of the great conservationist, Jane Goodall.



Jane Goodall was born in London, England, on April 3, 1934. On her second birthday , her father gave her a toy chimpanzee named Jubilee. Jubilee was named after a baby chimp in the London Zoo, and seemed to foretell the course Jane’s life would take. To this day, Jubilee sits in a chair in Jane’s London home. From an early age, Jane was fascinated by animals and animal stories. By the age of 10, she was talking about going to Africa to live among the animals there. At the time, in the early 1940s, this was a radical idea because women did not go to Africa by themselves.



As a young woman, Jane finished school in London, attended secretarial school, and then worked for a documentary filmmaker for a while. When a school friend invited her to visit Kenya, she worked as a waitress until she had earned the fare to travel there by boat. She was 23 years old.



Once in Kenya, she met Dr. Louis Leakey, a famous paleontologist and anthropologist. He was impressed with her thorough knowledge of Africa and its wildlife, and hired her to assist him and his wife on a fossil-hunting expedition to Olduvai Gorge. Dr. Leakey soon realized that Jane was the perfect person to complete a study he had been planning for some time. She expressed her interest in the idea of studying animals by living in the wild with them, rather than studying dead animals through paleontology.



Dr. Leakey and Jane began planning a study of a group of chimpanzees who were living on the shores of Lake Tanganyika in Kenya. At first, the British authorities would not approve their plan. At the time, they thought it was too dangerous for a woman to live in the wilds of Africa alone. But Jane’s mother, Vanne, agreed to join her so that she would not be alone. Finally, the authorities gave Jane the clearance she needed in order to go to Africa and begin her study



In July of 1960, Jane and her mother arrived at Gombe National Park in what was then called Tanganyika and is now called Tanzania. Jane faced many challenges as she began her work. The chimpanzees did not accept her right away, and it took months for them to get used to her presence in their territory. But she was very patient and remained focused on her goal. Little by little, she was able to enter their world.



At first, she was able to watch the chimpanzees only from a great distance, using binoculars. As time passed, she was able to move her observation point closer to them while still using camouflage. Eventually, she was able to sit among them, touching, patting, and even feeding them. It was an amazing accomplishment for Jane, and a breakthrough in the study of animals in the wild. Jane named all of the chimpanzees that she studied; stating in her journals that she felt they each had a unique personality.



One of the first significant observations that Jane made during the study was that chimpanzees make and use tools, much like humans do, to help them get food. It was previously thought that humans alone used tools. Also thanks to Jane’s research, we now know that chimps eat meat as well as plants and fruits. In many ways, she has helped us to see how chimpanzees and humans are similar. In doing so, she has made us more sympathetic toward these creatures, while helping us to better understand ourselves.



The study started by Jane Goodall in 1960 is now the longest field study of any animal species in their natural habitat. Research continues to this day in Gombe and is conducted by a team of trained Tanzanians.



Jane’s life has included much more than just her study of the chimps in Tanzania. She pursued a graduate degree while still conducting her study, receiving her Ph.D. from Cambridge University in 1965. In 1984, she received the J. Paul Getty Wildlife Conservation Prize for "helping millions of people understand the importance of wildlife conservation to life on this planet." She has been married twice: first to a photographer and then to the director of National Parks. She has one son.



Dr. Jane Goodall is now the world’s most renowned authority on chimpanzees, having studied their behavior for nearly 40 years. She has published many scientific articles, has written two books, and has won numerous awards for her groundbreaking work. The Jane Goodall Institute for Wildlife Research, Education , and Conservation was founded in 1977 in California but moved to the Washington, D.C., area in 1998. Its goal is to take the actions necessary to improve the environment for all living things.



Dr. Goodall now travels extensively, giving lectures, visiting zoos and chimp sanctuaries, and talking to young people involved in environmental education. She is truly a great conservationist and an amazing human being.



Read this sentence from the article.



1. 'But she was very patient and remained focused on her goal'. What is an antonym for the word focused?



bothered

tired

disinterested

concerned

Ans: C



2. What is the author’s purpose in writing this article?



to entertain the reader with stories about chimpanzees

to inform the reader of the importance of wildlife conservation

to warn the reader about the challenges of working in Africa

To describe the work and life of Jane Goodall.

Ans: D

3. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons Dr. Leakey chose Jane to work with him?



She knew a lot about Africa.

She knew a lot about African wildlife.

She earned the money to travel to Africa on her own.

She was interested in studying animals in the wild.

Ans: C

4. Which of the following is NOT true of chimpanzees?



Chimpanzees are often comfortable with strangers right away.

Chimpanzees eat meat as well as plants and fruit.

Chimpanzees use tools to help them get food.

Different chimpanzees have different personalities.

Ans: A



5. Jane Goodall is now the world’s most renowned authority on chimpanzees, having studied their behavior for nearly forty years. What does authority mean?



an intelligent person

one who studies animals

a scientist

an expert

Ans: B



Read this sentence from the article.



Directions for Questions 6-10: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.



There are some men who seem to be always on the lookout for trouble and, to tell the truth, they are seldom disappointed. Listening to such men one would think that this world is one of the stormiest and most disagreeable places. Yet, after all it is not such a bad place and the difficulty is often in the man who is too thin- skinned. On the other hand, the man who goes out expecting people to be like himself, kind and brotherly, will be surprised at the kindness he meets even in the most unlike quarters. A smile is apt to be met met with a respective smile while the sneer is just as apt to provoke a snarl. Men living in the same neighborhood may live vastly different lives. But it is not the neighborhood which is quarrelsome, but the man within us. And we have it in out power to change our neighborhood into a pleasant one by simply changing our own ways.



6. The passage is about



A) Our disagreeable and hostile world



B) A kindly and pleasant world



C) Our different and unresponsive world



D) The world and what one makes of it.



Ans: D



7. "..............they are seldom disappointed". The statement denotes that such men



A) Welcome difficulties as a morale booster



B) Do not have face any trouble



C) Manage to keep unruffled in the face of discomforts



D) Generally do not fail to come across troubles



Ans: D



8. The author's own view of the world is that it is



A) One of the loveliest and quietest places



B) An unpleasant and turbulent place



C) one's own excessive sensitivity that makes it a bad place



D) A sordid place for those who suffer in life



Ans: C



9. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the expression 'thin-skinned' as sed in the passage?



A) Insensitive



B) Intelligent



C) Awkward



D) Obstinate



Ans: A



10. "On the other hand............. unlikely quarter" The statement shows that people's reaction to our attitude is



A) Generally indifferent



B) Surprisingly responsive



C) Often adverse



D) Mainly favorable



Ans: B



Directions 11-18: Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.



11. For a few seconds, Madan was.............blinded by the powerful lights of the oncoming car



A) Heavily B) largely C) greatly D) powerfully E) totally



Ans: E



12. His interest in the study of human behavior is indeed very..............



A) Strong B) large C) broad D) vast E) deep



Ans: E



13. The police have................a complaint against four persons



A) Entered B) lodged C) registered D) noted E) received



Ans: C



14. The improvement made by changes in the system was ....................and did not warrant the large expenses.



A) Large B) small C) minute D) marginal E) uncertain



Ans: D



15. The man who is..........................hesitating which of the two things he will do first, will do neither.



A) Persistently B) constantly C) insistently D) consistently E) perpetually



Ans: A



16. He is too...................to be deceived easily



A) strong B) modern C) kind D) honest E) intelligent



Ans: E



17. The Manager gave her his ..... that the complaint would be investigated



A. assurance B. suggestion C. avowal D. support



Ans: A



18. I am feeling ...... better today.



A. rather B. too C. fairly D. very



Ans: C



Direction Questions19-26: In each question below is given a passage followed by several inference. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.



mark your answer as :



A. if the inference is ' definitely true' i.e. , it directly follows from the facts given in the passage



B. if the inference is ' probably true' though not definitely true in the light of the facts given



C. if you think the data are in adequate i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false



D. if you think the inference is ' probably false' though not definitely false in the light of the facts given; and



E. if you think inference is ' definitely false' i.e. , it contradicts the given facts.



Passage I



Urban services have not expanded fast enough to cope with urban expansion. Low investment allocation have tended top be under spent. Both public( e. g. water and sewage) and private (e.g. low-income area housing) infrastructure quality has declined. this impact of the environment in which children live and the supporting services available to them when they fall ill, seems clear. The decline in average food availability and the rise in absolute poverty point in the same satisfactory direction



19. There is nothing to boast about urban services



Ans: A



20. The public transport system is in the hands of private sector.



Ans: C



21. Birth rate is higher in Urban areas compared to rural areas.



Ans: C



22. Low-cost urban housing is one of the priorities



Ans: B



23 The environment around plays an important role on the health status.



Ans: A



Passage II



Though the states cultivate only 3.2 lakh tones of mangoes, they are of premium quality and with mangoes becoming second most consumed fruit in the world after grapes. The government has been trying exporting it through sea route which is cheaper. An experiment which was done in this regard last year has proved successful.



24. Quality of mangoes is an important factor in exports.



Ans: A



25. The state also exports good quality grapes



Ans: C



26. The state also cultivates a large number of medium quality mangoes.



Ans: E



Direction27-32: In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no mistake the answer is 'no error'



27. I going there / will not solve / this complicated problem / No error



A B C D



Ans: A



28. You can get /all the information you want / in this book / No error



A B C D



Ans: A



29. The bus could not / ascend the steep hill / because it was in the wrong gears / No error

A B C D



Ans: C



30. No stronger / a figure than his / is prescribed in the history / No error



A B C D



Ans: C



31. Most people would have /attended the union meeting / if they had / longer notice of it / No error



A B C D E



Ans: D



32. And though one did not / quite believe his claim / one saw no harm / in granting him permission / No error



A B C D E



Ans: E



Directions 33: In each question, a part of sentence is printed in italics. Below each sentence, some phrases are given which can substitute the italicized part of the sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, the answer is 'No correction required'



33. The problems of translation are still remain.



A. are remain. B. wills remain C. will still remain. D. No Correction required



Ans: C



34. It is ten years since I have begun living here



A. begun B. had begun C. began D. No Correction required



Ans: C



35. Education is a strong instruments for moldings the character of the young.



A. striking B. powerful C. potent D. No Correction required



Ans: B



36. He gave the I.A.S. examination in all seriousness.



A. appeared B. took C. undertook D. No Correction required



Ans: B



37. He has cooked that meal so often he can do it with his eyes closed.



A. mind blank B. eyes covered C. hands full D. No Correction required



Ans: D



38. The young hikers went as far as they finally got lost in the valley.



A. so far that B. too far that C. so far as that D. No Correction required



Ans: A



39. He stopped to work an hour ago



A. to working B. to have worked C. working D. No Correction required



Ans: C



40. The fact finding committee has so far not made any advancement.



A. progress B. improvement C. stride D. No Correction required



Ans: A


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