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  #2  
16th July 2012, 07:13 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: May 2012
Re: UGC question paper June

Here I am providing a file,from where you can download model question paper 2nd of political science 2010 for your exam preparation of UGC NET june.
  #3  
23rd February 2015, 11:58 AM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Re: UGC question paper June

Hey I am Prachi , I am going to appear in UGC Public Administration exam, so for an idea Will you please provide the University Grants Commission Public Administration exam question paper ?
  #4  
23rd February 2015, 12:25 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: UGC question paper June

Here I am providing the list of few questions of UGC Public Administration exam question paper which you are looking for .

1. “Administration is the most obvious
part of Government.” Who of the
following made this statement ?
(A) Kautilya
(B) Woodrow Wilson
(C) L.D. White
(D) Frank J. Goodnow
2. “The politics – administration
dichotomy is a misleading distinction
which has become a fetish, a
stereotype in the minds of theorists
and practitioners alike.” Who said
this ?
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Paul H. Appleby
(C) Carl J. Friedrich
(D) Dwight Waldo
3. Which of the following is not the
correct source of New Public
Management ?
(A) New Public Administration
(B) Public Choice Theory
(C) Managerialism
(D) Chicago School of Economics
4. Assertion (A) : New Public
Administration openly rejected
the value neutrality.
Reason (R) : Value neutrality in
Public Administration is an
impossibility and the discipline
should explicitly espouse the
cause of the disadvantaged
sections of the Society.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
5. Match List – I with List – II. Select
the correct answer from the codes
given below :
List-I List-II
(Books) (Authors)
(a) Administration :
The Art and
Science of
Organisation
and
Management
(i) Frank
Marini
(b) Toward a New
Public
Administration :
Minnow brook
Perspective
(ii) Jan-Erick-
Lane
(c) Making
Democracy
Work
(iii) Albert
Lepawaski
(d) Public
Administration
and Public
Management
(iv) Robert D.
Putnam
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(D) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

6. Match List – I with List – II. Select
the correct answer from the codes
given below :
List-I List-II
(Type of
Organisation)
(Characteristics)
(a) Project
Organisation
(i) Existence of
horizontal
and diagonal
relationship
(b) Matrix
Organisation
(ii) Facilitates
co-operation
team work
and customer
orientation
(c) Horizontal
Organisation
(iii) Independent
unit having
link with a
web of other
units
(d) Network
Organisation
(iv) Project
organisation
plus a
functional
organisation
(v) Flexible to
facilitate
management
change
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(B) (i) (v) (ii) (iii)
(C) (v) (ii) (i) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)
7. Which of the following is the basis
of influence in an informal
organisation ?
(A) Organisational position
(B) Person
(C) Authority
(D) Closeness with higher people
8. “Hierarchy is the linchpin that locks
the form.” Who said it ?
(A) Henry Fayol
(B) Urwick and Gullick
(C) Mooney and Reiley
(D) Earl Latham
9. Which one of the following is not a
method of co-ordination ?
(A) Planning
(B) Standardization of procedures
(C) Centralized house-keeping
(D) Inspection
10. “Bureaucracy is an organization that
maximises efficiency in
administration or an institutional
method of organized social conduct
in the interest of administrative
efficiency.” – Who has made this
statement ?
(A) Peter M. Blau
(B) Max Weber
(C) Thomson
(D) Alvin Gouldner
11. Which of the following are the
characteristics of communication
network, called grapevine in an
organisation ? Select the correct
answer by using the codes given
below :
(i) It is not controlled by
management.
(ii) It is perceived by most
employees as being more
believable and reliable.
(iii) It is largely used to serve the
organisational interest.
(iv) It is an important source of
information.
Codes :
(A) (i) & (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(C) (ii) & (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) & (iv)
12. The book ‘From Max Weber :
Essays in Sociology’ was edited by –
(A) H.H. Hearth
(B) C.W. Mills
(C) Talcott Parsons and H.H.
Hearth
(D) H.H. Hearth and C.W. Mills

13. Which among the following are
major functions of line agency ?
(i) Making decisions
(ii) To ensure that Chief Executive
is adequately informed
(iii) Maintaining production
(iv) Taking responsibility
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) (B) (i), (iii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iv)
14. According to Kautilya’s
‘Arthasastra’ a King should avoid –
(i) Lust (ii) Greed
(iii) Confrontation (iv) Vanity
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below.
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) (B) (ii), (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv) (D) (i), (iii), (iv)
15. “Charismatic authority can be
routinized so that it continues to
exist even after the departure of
charismatic leader.” Who said it ?
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Chester Bernard
(C) Max Weber
(D) Peter Blau
16. Match List – I with List – II. Select
the correct answer from the codes
given below :
List-I List-II
(Thinkers) (Ideas)
(a) Herbert
Simon
(i) Incrementalism
(b) Charles
Lindbolm
(ii) Black Box
Model
(c) David
Easton
(iii) Art of
Judgement
(d) Geoffrey
Vickers
(iv) Bounded
Rationality
(v) Modified
Rationalism
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (i) (iii) (v) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)
(D) (v) (ii) (i) (iii)
17. Who among the following has
coined the term ‘Representative
Bureaucracy’ ?
(A) Robert Merton
(B) Donald J. Kingsley
(C) F.M. Marx
(D) Herman Finer
18. Which one of the following is not
M.P. Follett’s Criticism of Classical
Theory ?
(A) It treats organisation a closed
system.
(B) It suffers from one-sidedness.
(C) It is mechanical in approach
(D) It ignores psychological
aspects.
19. Match List – I with List – II. Select
the correct answer from the codes
given below :
List-I List-II
(Concepts) (Thinkers)
(a) Linking
Pin Model
(i) Rensis Likert
(b) Decision
Tree
(ii) Duncan
(c) Garbage
Cane
Model
(iii) Alderfer
(d) ERG
Theory
(iv) Cohen, March
and Olson
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
20. Who called the Scientific
Management as ‘Physiological
Organisation Theory’ ?
(A) Robert Hoxic
(B) Oliver Sheldon
(C) Peter Drucker
(D) Simon and March

21. According to Elton Mayo, a
worker’s performance is primarily
related to
(A) The worker’s personality
variable
(B) Technological tools
(C) Interaction setting in an
organization
(D) Socially acquired attitude of
the worker in and outside of
the factory.
22. Which of the following statements
is/are linked to F.W. Taylor ?
(i) Trade Unionism is
unacceptable.
(ii) Scientific Management is
mechanical.
(iii) Worker is a technical man.
(iv) Piece-rate wage plan is an
unhealthy practice.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
Codes :
(A) (i) (B) (ii)
(C) (i), (iii) (D) (iii), (iv)
23. Assertion (A) : Comparative Public
Administration is productive
and active in nature.
Reason (R) : The idea of decline
of Comparative Public
Administration is premature,
although Comparative Public
Administration does not
appear to have reached a
critical point of development.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
24. According to Ferrel Heady, which of
the following is not a feature of the
administrative systems of the
developing countries ?
(A) Colonial legacy
(B) Lack of technical competence
(C) Formalism
(D) Operational autonomy
25. Which one of the following is not a
characteristic of ‘Sala Model’ ?
(A) Institutional corruption
(B) Nepotism
(C) Formalism
(D) Actual behaviour is similar to
formal expectations.
26. Which one is the last Independent
Regulatory Commission in USA ?
(A) Federal Communication
Commission
(B) Civil Aeronautic Board
(C) US Maritime Commission
(D) Federal Power Commission
27. The Masterman Committee of
Britain dealt with
(A) Political activities of civil
servants
(B) Functioning of Whitley
Council
(C) Re-organisation of
administration
(D) None of the above
28. Which of the following countries has
promulgated a new administrative
regime in the form of the Enterprise
Act, 2002 ?
(A) USA
(B) UK
(C) France
(D) India

29. Kofi Annan emphasized on some
aspects of sustainable development
in 2002 Earth Summit acronymed as
WEHAB. This acronym includes –
(Select the correct answer by using
the codes given below :
(i) Water
(ii) Water and Sanitation
(iii) Energy
(iv) Employment
(v) Health
(vi) Housing
(vii) Agriculture
(viii) Biodiversity and Ecosystem
Management
(ix) Biotechnology
(x) Agro-industry
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii), (v), (x) and (viii)
(B) (i), (iv), (vi), (vii) and (ix)
(C) (i), (ii), (v), (x) and (ix)
(D) (ii), (iii), (v), (vii) and (viii)
30. The phenomenon of development
administration in India, traced to the
inception of the Community
Development in October 1952, was
started on the recommendations of
(A) Krishnamachari Committee
(B) Project Appraisal Committee
(C) Administrative Reforms
Commission
(D) Mahalanobis Model
31. Decision making process under
Development Administration is
supposed to be –
(i) Flexible
(ii) Centralized
(iii) Innovative
(iv) Rigid
Select the correct code :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) (B) (i), (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) (D) (ii), (iv)
32. The United Nations Development
Programme (UNDP) has prioritized
the most significant area under
e-governance, which is
(A) Office Automation
(B) Service Delivery
(C) Development Needs
(D) Management Information
System
33. Match List – I with List – II. Select
the correct answer from the codes
given below :
List-I List-II
(Traditional
Administration)
(Features)
(a) Regulatory
Administration
(i) Strict and
authoritative
climate of
mistrust
(b) Orientated
towards
efficiency
and economy
(ii) Routine
operations
(c) Task
orientation
(iii) Concern for
security and
playing safe
(d) Sharp and
elaborate
hierarchical
structure
(iv) Emphasis on
individual
performance
(v) Resistance to
organization
change
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (v)
(B) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (v) (iv) (iii)

34. The Cabinet is the integral core of
the Council of Ministers and it is –
(i) an extra-constitutional body
(ii) an extra legal creation
(iii) institutionalised by usage
(iv) comprising most important
ministers
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
35. Which one of the following is the
basis for Prime Minister’s Office ?
(A) A Resolution of Cabinet
(B) Constitution of India
(C) An Act of Parliament
(D) Government of India
Allocation of Business Rules,
1961.
36. Consider the following statements
regarding the Cabinet Secretariate in
India and select the correct answer
from the codes given below :
(i) It is a successor of the
Secretariate of the Governor
General’s Executive Council.
(ii) It performs co-ordinating role
in the process of policy
making at the highest level.
(iii) The office of the Cabinet
Secretariate came into
existence in 1947.
(iv) The First ARC had
recommended that the Cabinet
Secretary should ordinarily
have a tenure of three years.
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
37. While assisting the Minister in
formulation of policies, the
Secretariate performs which of the
following functions ?
(i) Making and modifying
policies from time to time.
(ii) Drafting bills, rules and
regulations.
(iii) Coordinating and interpreting
policies.
(iv) To direct the States
Government
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
38. The Second Administrative Reforms
Commission has identified strengths
and weaknesses in the existing
structure of Government of India in a
report. Identify a weakness cited in
the report.
(A) Stability
(B) Commitment to Constitution
(C) Proliferation of Ministries /
Department
(D) Proliferation of Administrative
Agencies
39. Which one of the following is not
created by an Act of Parliament ?
(A) National Commission for
Backward Classes
(B) University Grants Commission
(C) Atomic Energy Commission
(D) Railway Board

40. Which of the following is not the
recommendation of Hota Committee
pertaining to the issue of disciplinary
procedure for Government Servants
in India ?
(A) Union Public Service
Commission need not be
consulted in case of a civil
servant facing charges of
corrupt practice.
(B) Article 311 of the Constitution
may be deleted.
(C) Where minor disciplinary
proceedings are sufficient to
meet the end of justice, then
major penalty proceedings
should not be initiated.
(D) An inquiry officer should be
relieved from his normal
duties.
41. The members of the Union Public
Service Commission can be removed
on the ground of misbehaviour by
(A) Impeachment by Parliament
(B) The President after an inquiry
and verdict of the Supreme
Court.
(C) The Chairman of the Union
Public Service Commission.
(D) By the President on the
recommendation of the
Cabinet.
42. Who was of the view that Indian
Civil Service was the “steel frame”
on which the whole structure of
Government and Administration in
India rest ?
(A) Winston Churchill
(B) Godwin Austin
(C) David Lloyd George
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
43. Which one of the following is not
correct about the ‘Civil Service Day’
in India ?
(A) It is celebrated on 21st April
(B) Prime Minister hands over
‘Prime Minister Excellence
Award in Public
Administration’ to the civil
servants on this day.
(C) India has started celebrating
this day since 2006.
(D) Prime Minister’s Office makes
arrangements to organise this
event every year.
44. The National Training Policy in
India
(i) Intends to cultivate democratic
values
(ii) Stipulates greater emphasis on
the training of higher and
supervisory level officials.
(iii) Strives to bring responsiveness
to the expectation of citizens
(iv) Earmarks two percent of total
salary budget for training
which is to be solely used for
this purpose
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) (B) (i), (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) (D) (i), (iv)
45. The training for IAS is conducted in
four stages. Which one of the
following is the correct sequence of
training stages ?
(A) Foundational, Professional,
Field and Institutional
(B) Foundational, Institutional,
Field and Professional
(C) Foundational, Field,
Professional and Institutional
(D) Institutional, Foundational,
Field and Professional

46. Match List – I with List – II and
select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
List-I List-II
(Kind of Budget) (Basic
Orientation of
Budget)
(a) Line Item
Budget
(i) Control
(b) Performance
Budget
(ii) Decision
Making
(c) Planning
Programme
Budget
(iii) Management
(d) Zero-based
Budget
(iv) Planning
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
47. Consider the statements regarding
Department related Standing
Committees in India and select the
correct answer from the codes given
below :
(i) The maximum number of
members in these committees
are 31.
(ii) The committees consider the
demands for Grants, Annual
Reports of Ministries /
Departments.
(iii) The reports of these
Committees are treated as
‘considered advice’.
(iv) The Committees also suggest
the Cut Motion.
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
48. When was the All India Services Act
passed by the Parliament of India ?
(A) 1950 (B) 1951
(C) 1960 (D) 1961
49. The charged expenditure in the
Budget is characterized as
(i) charged on the Consolidated
Fund of India
(ii) not discussed in the Parliament
(iii) non-votable by the Parliament
(iv) salary and allowances of
Comptroller and Auditor
General of India is an example
of charged expenditure.
Select the correct answer by using
the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
50. Assertion (A) : The National
Development Council (NDC)
is not a product of the Planning
Commission’s recommendations.
Reason (R) : The National
Development Council reviews
the working of the National
Plans and also considers
questions of social and
economic policy.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
51. Primarily, a researcher should
possess which of the following
qualities ?
(A) Scientific Attitude
(B) Scientific Thinking
(C) Scientific Behaviour
(D) Scientific Feelings
52. ‘Interview is a process of social
interaction.’ Who said it ?
(A) P.V. Young
(B) M.N. Basu
(C) Goode and Hatt
(D) V.M. Palmer


53. Select the correct research design
indicated by the following
characteristics :
(i) Describes the accurate features
of a phenomenon.
(ii) Intends to find out the
incidence of relationships
between certain variables.
(iii) Makes certain specific
predictions.
(A) Exploratory Research Design
(B) Descriptive Research Design
(C) Diagnostic Research Design
(D) Informal Experimental Design
54. According to Dale, a qualitative
approach is not necessary in which
of the following situations ?
(A) When it is possible to study
statistically representative
samples of beneficiaries.
(B) When changes are the result of
complex process.
(C) For the purpose of analysing
relevance due to the value of
judgements involved.
(D) When studying the
organizational issues pertaining
to policy implementation
55. Probability and Non-probability
sampling techniques are used to
draw a sample of the population
under study. Which include
(i) Systematic random sampling
(ii) Stratified random sampling
(iii) Cluster sampling
(iv) Purposive sampling
(v) Quota sampling
Select the correct group of
probability sampling techniques by
using codes given below :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (v)
56. ‘District Administration’ means
(i) Collector’s Office
(ii) Conglomeration of all the
district level administrative
departments
(iii) A territory marked off for
special administrative purpose
(iv) The total management of public
affairs within the territorial
unit.
Choose the answer from the codes
given below :
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii)
(D) (ii), (iv)
57. Which report of Second
Administrative Reforms Commission
is related to local governance ?
(A) 5th (B) 6th
(C) 7th (D) 8th
58. Which Article of the Constitution of
India provides for the District
Planning Committee ?
(A) Article 242 ZD
(B) Article 243 ZA
(C) Article 243 ZD
(D) Article 244 ZA
59. What was one of the most significant
recommendations of L.M. Shinghvi
Committee on the Panchayati Raj
Institutions ?
(A) Involvement of political
parties in elections.
(B) Non-involvement of political
parties in elections.
(C) Right to Recall
(D) Fixed term for PRIs.

60. What is the title of the United
Nations Habitat 2006 Report ?
(A) Urban Governance
(B) Urban Development
(C) Urban Millennium
(D) Urban Habitat
61. The Urban Poverty Alleviation
Programmes have been clearly
classified into some categories by
which of the following in India ?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) National Development Council
(C) Ministry of Urban
Development and Poverty
Alleviation
(D) National Commission on
Urbanization
62. Assertion (A) : Jawaharlal Nehru
National Urban Renewal
Mission (JNNURM) is a ten
years programme beginning
from 2005-06
Reason (R) : JNNURM’s main
components are urban
infrastructure, urban
governance and basic services
for the urban poor.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
63. Assertion (A) : Social Welfare
Administration generates
awareness about the challenges
of a society in transition where
negative use of technologies
and practices are impacting on
the well being of women and
children.
Reason (R) : Social Welfare
Administration is the
summation of social welfare
institutions, policies and
programmes.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
64. The most acceptable explanation of
Social Justice is
(A) Economic development
(B) Social development
(C) Uplift of specific sections
(D) Uplift of all the sections of
society
65. Central Social Welfare Board at
present is functioning under the
administrative control of –
(A) Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment
(B) Ministry of Human Resource
Development
(C) Ministry of Women and Child
Development
(D) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

66. Assertion (A) : Bio-ethics and
Social Justice are interrelated.
Reason (R) : Affordable access to
health care especially for low
income households and
families refers to bio-ethics.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
67. ‘Association of Voluntary Agencies
for Rural Development’ (AVARD)
was established in the year :
(A) 1952 (B) 1958
(C) 1962 (D) 1968
68. Which of the following is not the
policy implementation model as
suggested by R. Elmore ?
(A) Systems Management
(B) Conflict and Bargaining
(C) Organizational Development
(D) Policy Action Model
69. According to Poister, which of the
following is the basis of Policy
Evaluation ?
(i) Effectiveness
(ii) Adequacy
(iii) Appropriateness
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii)
(C) (i), (iii)
(D) (ii), (iii)
70. Which of the following is not the
approach to policy evaluation ?
(A) Evaluability Assessment
(B) Effectiveness Evaluation
(C) Evaluation Synthesis
Approach
(D) Experimental method
71. Which of the following States does
not have Panchayati Raj Institutions ?
(A) Assam
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Tripura
(D) Nagaland
72. In which Article of the Constitution
of India, the provision of ‘workers’
participation in management of
undertakings is given ?
(A) Article 42 (B) Article 42 A
(C) Article 43 (D) Article 43 A
73. Which among the following
companies was not a ‘Maharatna’
company as on March, 2012 ?
(A) Coal India Limited
(B) Indian Oil Corporation
Limited
(C) Bharat Petroleum Corporation
Limited
(D) Oil and Natural Gas
Corporation Limited
74. When did the Government of India
first time accord ‘Maharatna Status’
to the Public Sector Undertakings ?
(A) 1997 (B) 2001
(C) 2004 (D) 2009
75. Removal of poverty was stated as the
dominant objective in which of the
following Five Year Plan in India ?
(A) Third Five Year Plan
(B) Fourth Five Year Plan
(C) Fifth Five Year Plan
(D) Sixth Five Year Plan


For more questions , here is the attachment
Attached Files
File Type: pdf UGC Public Administration exam question paper.pdf (196.4 KB, 48 views)


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