ISTQB Exam Question Paper

Will you please provide the ISTQB Exam Question Paper ?

[Quick Sam]

Here I am providing the list of few questions of ISTQB Exam Question Paper which you are looking for .

Q. 1: Which is a potential product risk factor?

A. Failure of third party vendor
B. Training issues
C. Problems requirements definition
D. Poor software functionality

Q. 2: From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration Management?:

i) Identifying the version of software under test.
ii) Controlling the version of testware items.
iii) Developing new testware items.
iv) Tracking changes to testw are items.
v) Analysing the need for new testware items.


A. ii, iv and v.
B. ii, iii and iv,
C. i, ii and iv.
D. i, iii and v.

Q. 3: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning?

A. Scheduling test analysis and design tasks.
B. Initiating corrective actions.
C. Monitoring progress and test coverage.
D. Measuring and analyzing results.

Q. 4: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829 - 1998), which of the following sections are part of the test summary report?

a) Summary
b) Test incident report identifier
c) Test deliverables
d) Risks and contingencies
e) Variances
f) Approvals
g) Output specifications

A. a, e and f
B. a, c and d
C. a, b and f
D. a, d and e

Q. 5: Which is a potential product risk factor?

A. Failure of third party vendor
B. Training issues
C. Problems requirements definition
D. Poor software functionality

Q. 6: Who typically use static analysis tools?

Q. 1: How many test cases are required to cover 100% 0 - switch coverage respectively from X2?

A. 4
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2

Q. 2: From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration Management?:

i) Identifying the version of software under test.
ii) Controlling the version of testware items.
iii) Developing new testware items.
iv) Tracking changes to testw are items.
v) Analysing the need for new testware items.


A. ii, iv and v.
B. ii, iii and iv,
C. i, ii and iv.
D. i, iii and v.

Q. 3: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning?

A. Scheduling test analysis and design tasks.
B. Initiating corrective actions.
C. Monitoring progress and test coverage.
D. Measuring and analyzing results.

Q. 4: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829 - 1998), which of the following sections are part of the test summary report?

a) Summary
b) Test incident report identifier
c) Test deliverables
d) Risks and contingencies
e) Variances
f) Approvals
g) Output specifications

A. a, e and f
B. a, c and d
C. a, b and f
D. a, d and e

Q. 5: Which is a potential product risk factor?

A. Failure of third party vendor
B. Training issues
C. Problems requirements definition
D. Poor software functionality

Q. 6: Who typically use static analysis tools?

A. Customers and users
B. Developers and designers
C. Business and systems analysts
D. System and acceptance testers

Q. 7: Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities?

A. Developers.
B. Analysts.
C. Testers.
D. Incident Managers.

Q. 8: Which of the following would you NOT usually find on a software incident report?

A. The name and / or organisational position of the person raising the problem.
B. Version of the Software Under Test.
C. Suggestions as to how to fix the problem.
D. Actual and expected results.

Q. 9: Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?

A. Test case specification.
B. Test design specification.
C. Test procedure specification.
D. Test results.

Q. 10: Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5 tools listed, which statement BEST details those for developers

i) Performance testing tools.
ii) Coverage measurement tools.
iii) Test comparators.
iv) Dynamic analysis tools.
v) Incident management tools.

A. i, iii. and iv. are more for developers.
B. ii. and iv. are more for developers.
C. ii, iii and iv. are more for developers.
D. ii. and iii. are more for developers.

For more information , here is the attachment
ISTQB Exam Question Paper

Q. 11: Which of the following is correct?

A. Impact analysis assesses the effect on the system of a defect found in regression testing.

B. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a new person joining the regression test team.

C. Impact analysis assesses whether or not a defect found in regression testing has been fixed correctly.

D. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a change to the system to determine how much regression testing to do.



color=#800000 size=2 face=Arial>

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Q. 12: In software testing what is the main purpose of exit criteria?

A. To enhance the security of the system
B. To prevent the endless loops in code.
C. To swerve as an alternative or "Plan-B"
D. To define when to stop testing

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Q. 13: Given the following state transition diagram Which of the following series of state transitions contains an INVALID transition which may indicate a fault in the system design?

Exhibit:




A. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
B. Login Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
C. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Logout.
D. Login Browse Basket Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 14: Which of the following is a KEY test closure task?

A. Ensuring proper environment setup
B. Writing a test summary report
C. Assessing the need for additional tests
D. Finalizing and archiving testware.

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Q. 15: What is beta testing?

A. Testing performed by potential customers at the developers location.
B. Testing performed by potential customers at their own locations.
C. Testing performed by product developers at the customer's location.
D. Testing performed by product developers at their own locations.

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Q. 16: Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage?

if width > length
then
biggest_dimension = width
if height > width
then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
else
biggest_dimension = length
if height > length
then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
end_if

A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1

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Q. 17: You have designed test cases to provide 100% statement and 100% decision coverage for the following fragment of code.

if width > length
then
biggest_dimension = width
else
biggest_dimension = length
end_if

The following has been added to the bottom of the code fragment above.

print "Biggest dimension is " & biggest_dimension
print "Width: " & width
print "Length: " & length

How many more test cases are required?

A. One more test case will be required for 100 % decision coverage.

B. Two more test cases will be required for 100 % statement coverage, one of which will be used to provide 100% decision coverage.

C. None, existing test cases can be used.

D. One more test case will be required for 100" statement coverage.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 18: Which defects are OFTEN much cheaper to remove?

A. Usability defects found by customers
B. Defects in infrequently used functionality
C. Defects that were detected early
D. Minor defects that were found by users

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Q. 19: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites for efficient test execution?

A. Implementation and execution.
B. Planning and control.
C. Analysis and design.
D. Test closure.

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Q. 20: Which of the following is TRUE?

A. Confirmation testing is testing fixes to a set of defects and Regression testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes.

B. Confirmation testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes and Regression testing is testing fixes to a set of defects.

C. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes.

D. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing fixes to a set of defects.

I am searching for the ISTQB Exam Question Paper? Can you please tell me from where I can download the ISTQB Exam Question Paper?

[Arun Vats]

The ISTQB stands for International Software Testing qualification Board. You are asking for the ISTQB Exam Question Paper. Here I am uploading a file that contains the ISTQB Exam Question Paper. you can download this from here. This is as follows:

ISTQB Sample Paper
Q1. When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
e) a mistake

Q2. Regression testing should be performed:
v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says

a) v & w are true, x – z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x y and z are false
e) all of the above are true

Q3. IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test environment
e) test specification

Q4. Testing should be stopped when:
a) all the planned tests have been run
b) time has run out
c) all faults have been fixed correctly
d) both a) and c)
e) it depends on the risks for the system being tested

Q5. Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:
a) 1000, 5000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999
e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000

Q6. Consider the following statements about early test design:
i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design takes more effort

a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
b) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
c) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
d) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
e) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

Q7. Non-functional system testing includes:
a) testing to see where the system does not function properly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system feature using only the software required for that action
d) testing a system feature using only the software required for that function
e) testing for functions that should not exist

Q8. Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
a) status accounting of configuration items
b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of test versions
d) record of changes to documentation over time
e) controlled library access

Q9. Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?
a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
d) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
e) to specify how the software should be divided into modules

Q10. What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to know when test planning is complete
e) to plan when to stop testing

Q11. Consider the following statements
i. an incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments
v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test

a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false

Q12. Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage:Read PRead QIF P+Q > 100 THENPrint “Large”ENDIFIf P > 50 THENPrint “P Large”ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

Q13. Given the following:Switch PC onStart “outlook”IF outlook appears THENSend an emailClose outlook
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

Q14. Given the following code, which is true:IF A > B THENC = A – BELSEC = A + BENDIFRead DIF C = D ThenPrint “Error”ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

Q15. Consider the following: Pick up and read the newspaper Look at what is on television If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch the program Otherwise Continue reading the newspaper If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword
a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
e) SC = 2 and DC = 3

Q1. Software testing activities should start
a. as soon as the code is written
b. during the design stage
c. when the requirements have been formally documented
d. as soon as possible in the development life cycle

Q2.Faults found by users are due to:
a. Poor quality software
b. Poor software and poor testing
c. bad luck
d. insufficient time for testing

Q3. What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?
a. to show that system will work after release
b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
c. to find as many bugs as possible before release
d. to give information for a risk based decision about release

Q4. which of the following statements is not true
a. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system
b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
c. Verification activities should not involve testers
d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible

Q5. When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:
a. as polite, constructive and helpful as possible
b. firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixed
c. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
d. All of the above

Q6.In which order should tests be run?
a. the most important tests first
b. the most difficult tests first
c. the easiest tests first
d. the order they are thought of

Q7. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why?
a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.
b. wages are rising
c. the fault has been built into more documentation, code, tests, etc
d. none of the above

Q8. Which is not true-The black box tester
a. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document
b. should be able to understand the source code.
c. is highly motivated to find faults
d. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses

Q9. A test design technique is
a. a process for selecting test cases
b. a process for determining expected outputs
c. a way to measure the quality of software
d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done

Q10. Testware (test cases, test dataset)
a. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
c. is needed only until the software is released into production or use
d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the releasedsoftware system

Q11. An incident logging system
a. only records defects
b. is of limited value
c. is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
d. should be used only by the test team.

Q12. Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by:
a. reducing test time
b. no change
c. increasing test time
d. can’t say

Q13. Coverage measurement
a. is nothing to do with testing
b. is a partial measure of test thoroughness
c. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
d. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing

Q14. When should you stop testing?
a. when time for testing has run out.
b. when all planned tests have been run
c. when the test completion criteria have been met
d. when no faults have been found by the tests run

Q15. Which of the following is true?
a. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.
b. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
c. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
d. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.

Q16. What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?
a. how well you know a particular technique
b. the objective of the test
c. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application
d. whether there is a tool to support the technique

Q17. If the pseudocode below were a programming language, how many tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage?

1. If x=3 then
2. Display_messageX;
3. If y=2 then
4. Display_messageY;
5. Else
6. Display_messageZ;
7. Else
8. Display_messageZ;

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Q18. Using the same code example as question 17,how many tests are required to achieve 100% branch / decision coverage?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Q19. Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?
a. State-Transition
b. Usability
c. Performance
d. Security

Q20. Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?
a. State analysis
b. Coverage analysis
c. Dynamic analysis
d. Memory analysis

Q21. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?
a. IEEE829
b. IEEE610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2

Q22.which of the following is the component test standard?
a. IEEE 829
b. IEEE 610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2

Q23. which of the following statements are true?
a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.

Q24. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?
a. Design based
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down

Q25. Which of the following is a black box design technique?
a. statement testing
b. equivalence partitioning
c. error- guessing
d. usability testing

Q26. A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be:
a. Large
b. Small
c. Difficult to write
d. Difficult to test

Q27. Which of the following is a static test?
a. code inspection
b. coverage analysis
c. usability assessment
d. installation test

Q28. Which of the following is the odd one out?
a. white box
b. glass box
c. structural
d. functional

Q29. A program validates a numeric field as follows:
- values less than 10 are rejected
- values between 10 and 21 are accepted
- values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected

which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?

a. 10,11,21
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22

Q30. Using the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?
a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21

Q1. An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004. The boundary values for testing this field are:
a.) 0,1900,2004,2005
b.) 1900, 2004
c.) 1899,1900,2004,2005
d.) 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005

Q2. Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?
a. System testing
b. Usability testing
c. Performance testing
d. Both b & c

Q3. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test?
a. Data tester
b. Boundary tester
c. Capture/Playback
d. Output comparator.

Q4. Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
a. Statement Coverage
b. Pole Coverage
c. Condition Coverage
d. Path Coverage

Q5. Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?
a. Functionality
b. Usability
c. Supportability
d. Maintainability

Q6. To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data.
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy
d. None of the above

Q7. Boundary value testing
a. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
b. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes
c. Tests combinations of input circumstances
d. Is used in white box testing strategy

Q8. Pick the best definition of quality
a. Quality is job one
b. Zero defects
c. Conformance to requirements
d. Work as designed

Q9. Fault Masking is
a. Error condition hiding another error condition
b. Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault
c. Masking a fault by developer
d. Masking a fault by a tester

Q10. One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is:
a. Lack of technical documentation
b. Lack of test tools on the market for developers
c. Lack of training
d. Lack of Objectivity

Q11. During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?
a. When the code is complete
b. When the design is complete
c. When the software requirements have been approved
d. When the first code module is ready for unit testing

Q12. In a review meeting a moderator is a person who
a. Takes minutes of the meeting
b. Mediates between people
c. Takes telephone calls
d. Writes the documents to be reviewed

Q13. Given the Following programIF X <>= ZTHEN Statement 2;ENDMcCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

Q14. How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment? Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other : -…………if (Condition 1)then statement 1else statement 2fiif (Condition 2)then statement 3fi…………
a. 2 Test Cases
b. 3 Test Cases
c. 4 Test Cases
d. Not achievable


15. Acceptance test cases are based on what?

a. Requirements
b. Design
c. Code
d. Decision table

Q16. How much testing is enough?
a. This question is impossible to answer
b. This question is easy to answer
c. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
d. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers

Q17. A common test technique during component test is
a. Statement and branch testing
b. Usability testing
c. Security testing
d. Performance testing

Q18. Statement Coverage will not check for the following:
a. Missing Statements
b. Unused Branches
c. Dead Code
d. Unused Statement

Q19. Independent Verification & Validation is
a. Done by the Developer
b. Done by the Test Engineers
c. Done By Management
d. Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence

Q20. Code Coverage is used as a measure of
a. Defects
b. Trends analysis
c. Test
d. Time Spent Testing

ISTQB Sample Paper
Q1. We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.

Q2. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?
a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing

Q3. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.

Q4. Which of the following requirements is testable?
a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.

Q5. Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”IF the customer wants ‘return’Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’Say: “That will be $11:20”ELSESay: “That will be $19:50”ENDIFELSESay: “That will be $9:75”ENDIFNow decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that allthe questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and allreplies given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

Q6. Error guessing:
a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.

Q7. Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.

Q8. In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:
a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.

Q9. Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?v – test controlw – test monitoringx - test estimationy - incident managementz - configuration control
1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results

a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5

Q10 Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.

Q11. Which of the following is false?
a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.

Q12. Enough testing has been performed when:
a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users won’t find any serious faults.

Q13. Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

Q14. Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage

Q15. Which of the following is false?
a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.

Q16. Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behaviour.

Q17. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b

Q18. Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.

Q19. The oracle assumption:
a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.

Q20. Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?
a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.

Q21. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.

Q22. Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing

Q23. Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule

Q24. Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning

Q25. Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing

Q26. Data flow analysis studies:
a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.

Q27. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10%The next $28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a) $1500
b) $32001
c) $33501
d) $28000

Q28. An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.

Q29. Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification

Q30. What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.

Q31. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.

Q32. Integration testing in the small:
a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems.

Q33. Static analysis is best described as:
a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box testing.

Q34. Alpha testing is:
a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.

Q35. A failure is:
a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behaviour.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.

Q36. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10%The next $28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) $4800; $14000; $28000
b) $5200; $5500; $28000
c) $28001; $32000; $35000
d) $5800; $28000; $32000

Q37. The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults.

Q38. Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.

Q39. Test cases are designed during:
a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.

Q40. A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
a) linkage of customer requirements
to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.