Solved Question paper for ISTQB

I need ISTQB question paper with their answer, will you please provide here???

[Kiran Chandar]

Here i am giving ISTQB question paper:

1. What is failure?
A. Deviation from expected result to actual result
B. Defect in the software.
C. Error in the program code.
D. Fault in the system.

2. People who don’t participate in technical reviews
A. Analysts
B. Management
C. Developers
D. Testers

3. What type of testing is done to supplement the rigorous testing?
A. Regression testing.
B. Integration testing.
C. Error Guessing
D. System testing.

4. Capture and replay facilities are least likely to be used to ….
A. Performance testing
B. Recovery testing
C. GUI testing
D. User requirements.

5. What is the smallest number of test cases required to Provide 100% branch coverage?
If(x>y) x=x+1;
else y=y+1;
while(x>y)
{
y=x*y; x=x+1;
}
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

6. Cyclomatic complexity is used to calculate
A. number of independent paths in the basis set of a program
B. number of binary decisions + 1
C. upper bound for the number of tests that must be conducted to ensure that all statements have been executed at least once
D. number of branches and decisions

7. If a candidate is given an exam of 40 questions, should get 25 marks to pass (61%) and should get 80% for distinction, what is equivalence class.
A. 23, 24, 25
B. 0, 12, 25
C. 30, 36, 39
D. 32,37,40

8. Match the following:
1. Test estimation
2. Test control
3. Test monitoring
a. measures of tracking process
b. effort required to perform activities
c. reallocation of resources
A. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
B. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
D. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c

9. One of the following is not a part of white box testing as per BS7925-II standards.
A. Random testing
B. Data Flow testing.
C. Statement testing.
D. Syntax testing.

10. Exclusive use of white box testing in a test-phase will:
A. Ensure the test item is adequately tested.
B. Make the need for black-box testing redundant.
C. Run the risk that the requirements are not satisfied.
D. Suffices for the unit testing phase.

11. Match the following.
1. Configuration identification
2. Configuration control
3. Status reporting
4. Configuration auditing
a. Maintains of CI’s in a library
b. Checks on the contents of the library
c. Function recording and tracking problems.
d. Requires the all CI’s and their versions in the system are known
A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a.
B. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b.
C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c.
D. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d.

12. Cost of the reviews will not include.
A. Review process itself
B. Metrics analysis
C. Tool support.
D. Process improvement.

13. What type of testing will you perform on internet banking solution?
A. System integration
B. Functional testing
C. Non-functional testing.
D. Requirements testing

14. Which tool will be used to test the flag memory leaks and unassigned pointers
A. Dynamic analysis tool
B. Static Analysis tool.
C. Maintenance tool.
D. Configuration tool.

15. Which of the following is not included in Test Plan.
A. Features to be tested.
B. Environmental needs.
C. Suspension criteria.
D. Expected results.

16. A piece of software has been given….what tests in the Following will you perform?
1) Test the areas most critical to business processes
2) Test the areas where faults will be maximum
3) Test the easiest functionalities
A. 1&2 are true and 3 is false.
B. 1,2&3 are true.
C. 1 is true, 2&3 are false.
D. 1&2 are false, 3 is true.

17. Amount of testing performed will not depend on
A. Risks involved
B. Contractual requirements
C. Legal requirements
D. Test data.

18. Which of the following provides the biggest potential cost saving from use of CAST?
A. Test management
B. Test design
C. Test planning
D. Test execution

19. Testing is not done to ….
A. Find faults
B. Improve quality
C. Check user friendliness.
D. Improve software accuracy

20. Software quality is not relevant to …
A. Correctness
B. Usability
C. Viability
D. Reusability.

21. Which of the following are false?
A. Incidents should always be investigated and resolved.
B. Incidents occur when expected and actual results differ.
C. Incidents can be analyzed to assist in test process improvement.
D. An incident can be raised against documentation.

22. Which of the following is a type of non-functional testing?
A. Usability testing.
B. Statement Coverage.
C. Dataflow testing.
D. Cause-effect graphing.

23. To make a test effective it is most important that:
A. It is easy to execute.
B. It is designed to detect faults if present.
C. The expected outcome is specified before execution.
D. It is unlikely to delay progress.

24. Error guessing is:
A. An appropriate way of deriving system tests.
B. Only used if good requirements are not available.
C. Only used when good requirements are available.
D. The most appropriate way of deriving system tests.


25. A standard for software testing terminology is:
A. IEEE 802.11
B. ISO 9001
C. BS 7925-1
D. BS 7925-2

26. Which of the following is true of V-model?
A. It includes the verification of designs.
B. It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
C. It specifies the test techniques to be used.
D. It only models the testing phase.

27. Which of the following is NOT part of a high level test plan?
A. Functions not to be tested.
B. Environmental requirements.
C. Analysis of Specifications.
D. Entry and Exit criteria.

28. When do you stop testing?
A. When the specified number of faults are found.
B. When the test completion criteria are met.
C. When all high and medium priority tests are complete.
D. When all statements have been executed.

29. Which of the following is least important in test management?
A. Estimating test duration.
B. Incident Management.
C. Configuration Management.
D. De-bugging.

30. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
A. Metrics from previous similar projects.
B. Discussions with the development team.
C. Time allocated for regression testing.
D. Both A & B.

31. Which of the following statements is true of static analysis:
A. Compiling code is not a form of static analysis.
B. Static analysis need not be performed before imperative code is executed.
C. Static analysis can find faults that are hard to find with
dynamic testing.
D. Extensive statistic analysis will not be needed if white- Box testing is to be performed.

32. Regression testing always involves
A. Testing whether a known software fault been fixed.
B. Executing a large number of different tests.
C. Testing whether modifications have introduced adverse side effects.
D. Using a test automation tool.

33. A field failure occurs when multiple users access a system. Which of the following is true?
A. This is an acceptable risk of a multi-user system.
B. Insufficient functional testing has been performed.
C. This indicates an important non-functional requirement was not specified and tested.
D. It is not possible to test against such events prior to release.

34. Integration testing in the large involves:
A. Testing the system when combined with other systems.
B. Testing a sub-system using stubs and drivers.
C. Testing a system with a large number of users.
D. Combing software components and testing them in one go.

35. Data flow analysis studies:
A. How rapidly data is transferred through a program.
B. The rate of change of data values as a program executes.
C. The use of data on paths through the code.
D. The intrinsic complexity of the code.

36. The oracle assumption is that:
A. There is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
B. The tester knows everything about the software under test.
C. The tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
D. Tools are used to check the results of testing.

36 The following text will be used in Q.37 and Q.38. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has $4000 of salary tax free
The next $1500 is taxed at 10%
The next $28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%

37. To the nearest $ which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
A. $1500
B. $32001
C. $28000
D. $33501

38. Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
A. $5800; $28000; $32000
B. $0; $200; $4200
C. $5200; $5500; $28000
D. $28001; $32000; $35000

39. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of User Acceptance Testing?
A. Use of automated test execution tools.
B. Testing performed by users.
C. Testing against acceptance test criteria.
D. Integration of system with user documentation.

40. For software to be reliable it must:
A. Be easy to maintain.
B. Be unlikely to cause a failure.
C. Never fail under any circumstances.
D. Be written according to coding standards

Answers:
1. A2. B3. C4. D5. B6. B7. D8. A9. D10. C11. B12. C13. C14. A15. D16. A
17. D18. D19. D20. C21. C22. A23. C24. D25. C26. B27. C28. B29. D30. A
31. A32. C33. C34. A35. B36. C37. D38. A39. A40. B



1. Deciding How much testing is enough should take into account :-
i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk
ii. Project constraints such as time and budget
iii. Size of Testing Team
iv. Size of the Development Team

a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false


2. Test planning has which of the following major tasks?
i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.

a) i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false


3. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:-
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Implementation and execution
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting


4. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case. Indentify the invalid Equivalance class value.
a. CLASS
b. cLASS
c. CLass
d. CLa01ss


5. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000


6. Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases are :
a) Designed by persons who write the software under test
b) Designed by a person from a different section
c) Designed by a person from a different organization
d) Designed by another person


7. We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing :-
a) User Acceptance Test Cases
b) Integration Level Test Cases
c) Unit Level Test Cases
d) Program specifications


8. Validation involves which of the following
i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.

a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
b) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
d) iii is true and i,ii,iv are false.


9. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
a) Component testing
b) Non-functional system testing
c) User acceptance testing
d) Maintenance testing


10. What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
A. Citibank card member, holding a Silver room
B. Non Citibank-member, holding a Platinum room

a) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
b) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Gold.
c) A – Offer upgrade to Silver, B – Offer upgrade to Silver.
d) A – Offer upgrade to Gold, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.

11. Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or unrelated software component:
a) Re Testing .
b) Confirmation Testing
c) Regression Testing
d) Negative Testing


12. Impact Analysis helps to decide :-a) How much regression testing should be done.
b) Exit Criteria
c) How many more test cases need to written.
d) Different Tools to perform Regression Testing


13. Functional system testing is:
a) testing that the system functions with other systems
b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times


14. Consider the above state transition diagram of a switch.
Which of the following represents an invalid state transition?
a) OFF to ON
b) ON to OFF
c) FAULT to ON


15. Peer Reviews are also called as :-a) Inspection
b) Walkthrough
c) Technical Review
d) Formal Review


16. Consider the following statements:
i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.

a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

17. The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following :-
a) Explaining the objective
b) Fixing defects found typically done by author
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations


18. Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:i. Hi-level design a Unit tests
ii. Code b Acceptance tests
iii. Low-level design c System tests
iv. Business requirements d Integration tests

a) i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
b) i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
c) i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
d) i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b


19. Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?a) Test Planning and Control
b) Test implementation and Execution
c) Requirement Analysis
d) Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting


20. Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
a) State transition testing
b) LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)
c) syntax testing
d) boundary value analysis


21. Success Factors for a review include :
i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective
ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.

a) ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect
b) iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect
c) i , iii , iv , ii is in correct
d) ii is correct


22. Defects discovered by static analysis tools include :
i. Variables that are never used.
ii. Security vulnerabilities.
iii. Programming Standard Violations
iv. Uncalled functions and procedures

a) i , ii,iii,iv is correct
b) iii ,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect.
c) i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect
d) iv, ii is correct


23. Test Conditions are derived from :-
a) Specifications
b) Test Cases
c) Test Data
d) Test Design


24. Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique:-
a) Equivalance partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are White box Testing Techniques.
b) Equivalence partitioning , Boundary Value Analysis , Data Flow are Black Box Testing Techniques.
c) Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques.
d) Equivalence Partioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing and Decision Table are White Box Testing Techniques.


25. Regression testing should be performed:
i. every week
ii. after the software has changed
iii. as often as possible
iv. when the environment has changed
v. when the project manager says

a) i & ii are true, iii, iv & v are false
b) ii, iii & iv are true, i & v are false
c) ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false
d) ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false


26. Benefits of Independent Testing
a) Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers
b) Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased.
c) Independent Testers cannot identify defects.
d) Independent Testers can test better than developers


27. Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage :-Read P
Read Q
If p+q > 100 then
Print “Large”
End if
If p > 50 then
Print “pLarge”
End if
a) Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2
b) Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2
c) Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2
d) Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2


28. Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage :-Disc = 0
Order-qty = 0
Read Order-qty
If Order-qty >=20 then
Disc = 0.05
If Order-qty >=100 then
Disc =0.1
End if
End if

a) Statement coverage is 4
b) Statement coverage is 1
c) Statement coverage is 3
d) Statement Coverage is 2


29. The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as : -
a) Anomaly Report
b) Defect Report
c) Test Defect Report
d) Test Incident Report


30. Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader.
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing
iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how.
iv. Create the Test Specifications

a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect


31. Features of White Box Testing Technique :-i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the test data.
ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program.
iii. Checking for the performance of the application
iv. Also checks for functionality.
a) i, ii are true and iii and iv are false
b) iii is true and i,ii, iv are false
c) ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false
d) iii and iv are true and i,ii are false


32. Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities?i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered
ii. Defect report analysis.
iii. Finalizing and archiving testware.
iv. Analyzing lessons.
a) i , ii , iv are true and iii is false
b) i , ii , iii are true and iv is false
c) i , iii , iv are true and ii is false
d) All of above are true


33. Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing :-a) The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works.
b) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free.
c) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do.
d) Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.


34. Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?a) Top down
b) Big-bang
c) Bottom up
d) Functional incrementation.


35. Drivers are also known as:
i. Spade
ii. Test harness
iii. Scaffoldinga) i , ii are true and iii is false
b) i , iii are true and ii is false
c) ii , iii are true and i is false
d) All of the above are true


36. Exit Criteria may consist of :-i. Thoroughness measures , such as coverage of code, functionality or risk
ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures.
iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas
iv. Verifying the Test Environment.
a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect.
b) i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect
c) ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
d) iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect


37. Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:-i. Percentage of Test Case Execution
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed
iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers

a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
b) i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect
c) i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect
d) i,iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect


38. The selection of a test approach should consider the context :-i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans
ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods
iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team.
iv. The size of the testing Team

a) i,ii,iii,iv are true
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
c) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
d) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.


39. In case of Large Systems :-a) Only few tests should be run
b) Testing should be on the basis of Risk
c) Only Good Test Cases should be executed.
d) Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.


40. The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called asa) Configuration Control
b) Status Accounting
c) Configuration Identification
d) Configuration Identification


Answers :

1 c2 a3 a4 d5 d6 c7 a8 b9 d10 d11 c12 a13 c14 c15 c16 d17 a18 d19 c
20 b21 a22 a23 a24 c25 c26 b27 c28 b29 d30 a31 a32 c33 d34 b35 c36 b
37 b38 b39 b40 a