#1
5th August 2014, 11:17 AM
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Solved paper IBPS Clerk Exam
I am looking for IBPS Clerk exam solved question paper, will you please provide here???
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#2
5th August 2014, 01:29 PM
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Re: Solved paper IBPS Clerk Exam
In India, a series of Common Written Examinations (CWEs) are conducted every year for the posts of Probationary Officer / Clerk/ Management Trainee/ Specialist Officer, in Public Sector banks Regional Rural Banks. This written examination is conduct by the IBPS (Institute of Banking Personnel Selection). The questions are objective in nature consisting of four papers. Reasoning Ability Numerical Aptitude Clerical Aptitude English Language General Awareness Question paper: Test I Reasoning 1-4. Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digits numbers) Input : tall 38 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn Step I : 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn alt Step II : 28 13 talk 48 ruse 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt barn Step III : 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt barn high Step IV : 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt barn high jar Step V : 56 48 32 28 13 tall 99 76 wise alt barn high jar rise Step VI : 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt barn high jar rise tall Step VII : 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt barn high jar rise tall wise And Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input : 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92 (All the numbers are two digits numbers) 1. Which step number is the following output? 32 27 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feet best ink (a) Step V (b) Step VI (c) Step IV (d) Step III (e) There is not such step 2. Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in Step V? (a) 14 (b) 92 (c) feet (d) best (e) why 3. How many elements (words or 2 numbers) are there between ‘feet’ and ‘32’ as they appear in the last step of the output? (a) One (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five (e) Seven 4. Which of the following represents the position of ‘why’ in the fourth step? (a) Eight from the left (b) Fifth from the right (c) Sixth form the left (d) Fifth from the left (e) Seventh from the left 5-11.Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: • A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. • B sits second to left of H’s husband. No female is an immediate neighbor of B. • D’s daughter sits second to right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbor of H’s husband. • Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. H’s brother D sits to the immediate left of H’s mother. Only one person sits between H’s mother and E. • Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbor of E. 5. What is position of A with respect to his mother-in-law? (a) Immediate left (b) Third to the right (c) Third to the left (d) Second to the right (e) Fourth to the left 6. Who amongst the following is D’s daughter? (a) B (b) C (c) E (d) G (e) H 7. What is the position of A with respect to his grandchild? (a) Immediate right (b) Third to the right (c) Third to the left (d) Second to the left (e) Fourth to the left 8. How many people sit between G and her uncle? (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four (e) More than four 9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain was based on the given information and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (a) F (b) C (c) E (d) H (e) G 10. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement? (a) C is the cousin of E (b) H and H’s husband are immediate neighbours of each other (c) No female is an immediate neighbour of C (d) H sits third to left of her daughter (e) B is the mother of H 11. Who sits to the immediate left of C? (a) F’s grandmother 3 (b) G’s son (c) D’s mother-in-law (d) A (e) G 12-18. In each group of questions below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two/ three statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows; Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows; Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows; Give answer (4) if either conclusion I nor conclusion II follows; Give answer (5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow. 12. Statements : Some exams are tests. No exam is a question. Conclusions : I.No equation is a test. II.Some tests are definitely not exams. 13-14. Statements :All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat. 13. Conclusions : I. Some forces are definitely not powers. II.No heat is forces. 14. Conclusions : I.No energy id heat. II.Some forces being that is a possibility. 15-16. Statements : No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes. 15. Conclusions : I. No coin is plastic. II. All plastics being metals is a possibility. 16. Conclusions : I.Not metal is plastic. II. All notes are plastics. 17. Statements : Some symbols are figures. All symbols are graphics. No graphic is a picture. Conclusions : I.Some graphics are figures. II. No symbol is a picture. 18. Statements : All vacancies are jobs. Some jobs are occupations. Conclusions : I.All vacancies are occupations. II. All occupations being vacancies is a possibility. 19-21. Study the following information carefully to answer the given question: Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F second different marks in an examination. C scored more than only. A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks. 4 19. Which of the following could possibly be C’s score? (a) 70 (b) 91 (c) 86 (d) 61 (e) 81 20. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information? (a) D’s score was definitely less than 60 (b) F scored the maximum marks (c) Only two people scored more than C (d) There is a possibility that B scored 79 marks (e) None is true 21. The person who scored the maximum, scored 13 marks more than F’s marks. Which of the following can be D’s score? (a) 94 (b) 60 (c) 89 (d) 78 (e) 81 22-29. Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions: Eight person from different viz. UCO bank, Syndicate bank, Canara bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing with south. In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. (All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement) • C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra. • Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbour of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank. • The person from UCO bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra. • Q faces the person from Dena bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A. • B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate bank. 22. Which of the following is true regarding A? (a) The person from UCO bank faces A (b) The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbour of A (c) A faces the person who sits second to right of R (d) A is from Oriental Bank of Commerce (e) A sits at one of the extreme ends of the line 23. Who is seated between R and the person from PNB? 5 (a) The person from Oriental Bank of Commerce (b) P (c) Q (d) The person from Syndicate bank (e) S 24. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows? (a) D and the person from PNB (b) The person from Indian bank of UCO bank (c) The person from Dena bank and P (d) The person from Syndicate bank and D (e) C, Q 25. Who amongst the following faces the person Bank of Maharashtra? (a) The person from Indian bank (b) P (c) R (d) The person from Syndicate bank (e) The person from Canara bank 26. P is related to Dena bank in the same way as B is related to PNB based on the given arrangement. To who amongst the following id D related to, following the same pattern? (a) Syndicate bank (b) Canara Bank (c) Bank of Maharashtra (d) Indian bank (e) Oriental Bank of Commerce 27. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus from a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that grop? (a) Canara bank (b) R (c) Syndicate bank (d) Q (e) Oriental Bank Of Maharashtra 28. Who amongst the following is form Syndicate bank? (a) C (b) R (c) P (d) D (e) A 29. C is from which of the following banks? (a) Dena bank (b) Oriental Bank of Commerce (c) UCO bank (d) Syndicate bank (e) Canara bank 30-34. Each of the question below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and— Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question Give answer (2) if the data in Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question 6 Give answer (3) if the data in Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question Give answer (4) if the data in either Statement I alone or Statement II alone or Statement III alone are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (5) if the data in all Statement I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question. 30.Among six people P, Q, R, S, T and V each lives on a different floor of a six storey building having six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on and the topmost floor is numbered 6). Who lives o the topmost floor? (1) There is only one floor between the floors on which R and Q live. P lives on an even numbered floor. (2) T does not live on an even numbered floor. Q lives on an even numbered floor. Q does not live on the topmost floor. (3) S lives on an odd numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which S and P live. T lives on a floor immediately above R’s floor. 31. There are six letters W, A, R, S, N and E. Is ‘ANSWER’ the word formed after performing the following operations using these sex letters only? (a) E is placed fourth to the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to either A or E. (b) R is placed immediately net (either left or right) to E. W is placed immediately next (either left or right) to S. (c) Both N and W are placed immediately next to S. The word does not begin with R. A is not placed immediately next to W. 32. Point D is in which direction with respect to Point B? (a) Point A is to the west of Point B. Point C is to the north of Point B. Point D is 9m from Point B. (b) Point G is to the south of Point D. Point G is 4m from Point B. Point D is 9m from Point B. (c) Point A is to the west of Point B. Point B is exactly midway between Points A and E. (d) Point F is to the south of Point E. Point D is to the west of Point F. 33. How is ‘one’ coded in the code language? (a) ‘one of its kind’ is coded as ‘zo pi ko fe’ in kind and cash’ is coded as ‘ga to ru ko’ 7 (b) ‘its point for origin’ is coded as ‘ba le fe mi’ and ‘make a point clear’ is coded as ‘yu si mi de’ (c) ‘make money and cash’ is coded as ‘tu mi ru hy’ and ‘money of various kind’ is coded as ‘qu ko zo hy’. 34. Are all the four friends viz. A, B, C and D who are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre? (a) B sits second to right of D. D faces the centre. C sits to immediate right of both B and D. (b) A sits to immediate left of B. C is not an immediate neighbour of A. C sits to immediate right of D. (c) D is an immediate neighbour of both A and C. B sits to the immediate left of A. C is sits to the immediate right of B. 35. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows: Farmers found using chemical fertilizers in the organic-farming area of their farms would be heavily fined. Which of the following statement is an assumption implicit in the given statement? (a) Chemical fertilizers harm the crop. (b) A farm’s area for organic and chemical farming is different (c) Farmers who do not use chemical fertilizers in the chemical farming area would be penalized as well. (d) All farmers undertake both these kinds of farming (chemical as well as organic) in their farms. (e) Organic fertilizers are banned in the area for chemical farming. 36-40. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow: Small brands are now looking beyond local grocary stores adn are tying up with Supermarkets such as Big Bazar to pull their business out of troubled waters. 36. Which of the following can be inferred from the given information? (An inference is something that is not directly states but can be inferred from the given information) (a) Merchandise of smaller brands would not be available at local grocery stores in the near future. (b) Smaller brands cannot compete with bigger one in a supermarket set-up. (c) There is a perception among small brands that sale in a supermarket is higher than that of small grocery stores. (d) Supermarkets generate more revenue by selling products of bigger brands as compared to the smaller ones. (e) Smaller brands have always had more tie-ups with supermarkets as compared to small grocery stores. 8 37-40. These questions are based on the information given above and the sentences labeled (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F), as given below. (a) A smaller brand manufacturing a certain product of quality comparable with that of a bigger brand, makes much more profit from the local grocery stores than from the supermarkets. (b) As the supermarkets have been set up only in bigger cities at present, this step would fail to deliver result in the smaller cities. (c) Supermarkets help the smaller brands to break into newer markets without investing substantially in distribution. (d) Supermarkets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands. (e) Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller at local grocery stores is much lower as compared to the supermarkets. (f) Smaller brands are currently making substantial losses in their businesses. 37. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) can be assumed from the facts/information given in the statement? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted) (a) Only (A) (b) Only (B) (c) Both (B) and (C) (d) Both (D) and (D) (e) Only (F) 38. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) represents a disadvantage of the small grocery stores over the Supermarkets from the perspective of a smaller brand? (a) Only (A) (b) Only (C) (c) Only (E) (d) Only (F) (e) Both (B) and (C) 39. Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above represents a reason for the shift from local grocery stores to supermarkets by the smaller brands? (a) Only (A) (b) Only (B) (c) Only (D) (d) Both (A) and (D) (e) Both (C) and (E) 40. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C) (E) and (F) mentioned above should prove that the step taken by the smaller brands (of moving to supermarkets) may not necessarily be correct? (a) Only (A) (b) Only (C) (c) Only (E) (d) Only (F) (e) Both (B) and (E) Here is the attachment for Bank exam question paper: |
#3
21st March 2015, 04:43 PM
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Re: Solved paper IBPS Clerk Exam
I want to get IBPS Clerk Exam Solved paper for doing preparation of this exam so will you please provide me that ?
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#4
21st March 2015, 04:54 PM
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Re: Solved paper IBPS Clerk Exam
As you want to get IBPS Clerk Exam Solved paper for doing preparation of this exam so here I am giving you some questions of that paper: 1. In a certain code ‘BUILT’ is written as ‘5#32@’ and ‘TRIBE’ is written as ‘@9345©’. How is ‘RULE’ written in that code? (1) 9#2© (2) 92#© (3) @#2© (4) @2#© (5) None of these 2. How many meaningful English can be formed, starting was S, with the second, the fourth, the fifth and the eight letters of the word PERISHED, using each letter only once in each word? (To be counted from left) (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 3. The positions of how many digits in the numbers 837912 will remain unchanged after the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order? (from left to right) (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 4. How many such pairs of letters are three in the word STREAMING each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? (in both forward and backward directions) (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 5. In a certain code ‘CLEAR’ is written as ‘SBFMD’ and ‘BONDS’ is written as ‘TEOPC’. How is ‘STALE’ written in that code? (1) DKZSR (2) BUTFM (3) TUBMF (4) FMBUT (5) None of these For full question paper here is the attachment: IBPS Clerk Exam Question Paper ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() |