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  #2  
22nd July 2014, 08:24 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Previous paper for PGECET

Here I am giving you question paper for Post Graduate Engineering Common Entrance Test MBA examination in a PDF file attached with it so you can get it easily.

PGECET MBA paper

DIRECTION : For each of the question from 1 to 3, choose the Word or Phrase that is
similar in meaning to the numbered word.
1. HECTIC
(a) Organised (b) Clumsy (c) Frantic (d) Thrilling
2. DETER
(a) Distract (b) Suppress (c) Discourage (d) Contaminate
3. JETTISON
(a) Control (b) Emit (c) Stir (d) Discard
DIRECTION : For each of the question from 4 to 6, choose the Word or Phrase that
opposite in meaning to the numbered word.
4. ABOMINATE
(a) Loathe (b) Despise (c) Adore (d) Abhor
5. INVECTIVE
(a) Normality (b) Restoration (c) Fertility (d) Praise
6. UNTOWARD
(a) Experienced (b) Inevitable (c) Industrious (d) Proper
DIRECTION : Relate the Ologies & Ographies in the following numbered questions from
7 to 9.
7. ICHTHYOLOGY
(a) Study of hair (b) study of insects (c) Study of fishes (d) Study of dates
8. NEPHROLOGY
(a) Study of kidney (b) study of clouds
(c) Study of snakes (d) Study of liver
9. PHILOLOGY
(a) Study of historical language (b) study of people
(c) Study of supernatural beings (d) Study of rocks

DIRECTION : An idiom and four and four possible meanings are given in questions from
10 to 12. Identify the closest meaning of the idiom from among the answer choices.
10. Child's play
(a) To handle a situation calmly (b) To dispute over petty points
(c) Any easy task (d) To treat lightly
11. Cut no ice
(a) Unable to perform (b) Make no impression
(c) Come to nothing (d) To fail
12. Head to toe
(a) Thoroughly (b) Continuously (c) Nothing (d) Completely
DIRECTION : Each question from 13 to 15 gives a sentence with a part of sentence
underlined that may contain an error. Four alternatives substitutes are given for the
underlined portion. Identify the choice that replaces the underlined part to form a logical
and grammatically correct statement.
13. He would not have failed if he had enough money
(a) if he had enough money (b) if he would have enough money
(c) if he would have had enough money (d) if he had had
enough money
14. The professor asked her when will you submit her thesis.
(a) when will you submit her thesis
(b) when she would have submit her thesis
(c) When you will have submitted your thesis
(d) when she would submit her thesis
15. He tried his best to be punctual, but he was occasionally behind time.
(a) he was always lagging behind (b) he was seldom on time
(c) he was late on some occasions (d) he would be punctual
DIRECTION : In each of the following question 16 & 17, a capitalised pair of words is
given, followed by four numbered pairs of words. Three of the numbered pairs exhibit
the same relationship between the words as the capitalised pair of words. Identify the
numbered pair which does not exhibit the same relationship as the capitalised pair.
16. MISTAKE : PRACTICE
(a) draught : rain (b) anger : resentment(c) extinct : protect

(d) error : diligence
17. SKETCH : DIAGRAM
(a) design : plan (b) draw : picture (c) print : book (d) paint : portrait
DIRECTIONS : A sentence is written in four different formats in questions 18 & 19. Only
one of them is grammatically correct. Mark the correct choices as your answer.
18. (a) I will meet you if you will come tommorrow.
(b) I will meet you if you have come tommorrow.
(c) I shall meet you if you come tommorrow.
(d) I shall meet you if you may come tommorrow.
19. (a) Harsher punishment will not reduce the number of crime.
(b) Harsher punishment will not reduce the number of crimes.
(c) Harsher punishment will not increase the number of crime.
(d) Harsher punishment will increase the crime number.
DIRECTIONS : Fill in the blanks in the given sentence so as to make it logically and
grammatically correct by chosing the correct word from the choices given, in questions
20 & 21.
20. ___________ about nine months ago, john was in excellent health.
(a) Until (b) In (c) At (d) As
21. Mental talents if buries and not used, ___________ to deteriorate.
(a) lead (b) get (c) tend (d) matter
DIRECTION : Each question 22 & 23 below gives a sentence followed by four answer
choices. From the choices provided, identify the one that best restates the given
sentence and mark its choice as your answer.
22. It might be truly said of him that he never sought nonour.
(a) It is true that he never sought nonour.
(b) The truth of him is that he never sought honour.
(c) Honour was not truly sought by him.
(d) He never truly sought honour.
23. I am afraid I did not make myself understood.
(a) I am afraid of not making myself undertood.
(b) I am afaraid I have not made myself understood.

(c) I am afraid I did not make myself undertsood.
(d) I am afaraid of not having made myself understood.
DIRECTION : A word and four jumbled choices are given in questions 24 & 25. One of
the choices, when properly arranged gives the word. Identify the correct choice.
24. DEFEAT
(a) UQAVNHSI (b) CETAH (c) COTUH (d) TACSRCH
25. FANTASTIC
(a) TIAIRLSIC (b) BDCINREILE (c) ALCER (d) YNIMIAGAR
Part I
SECTION 'B'
Test of General Knowledge
26. The tusks of male elephant are
(a) premolar (b) molar (c) incisor (d) canine
27. In which year was the RBI nationalized ?
(a) 1948 (b) 1950 (c) 1947 (d) 1949
28. The Mauryan dynasty from 321 BC to 185 BC. The last Mauryan emperor was
defeated by Pushyamitra Sunga. Who among the following was the last Mauryan
emperor ?
(a) Brihadratha (b) Asoka (c) Bindusara (d) Samprati
29. Which of the following books is not written by Shashi Tharoor ?
(a) Bookless in Baghdad (b) The Great Indian Novel
(c) Riot : A Novel (d) India : The Siege Within
30. When bullet is fired upwards vertically it gains in
(a) Potential energy (b) Kinetic energy (c) Speed (d)
inertia
31. How many players make up a team in a basketball game ?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
32. Who among the following is the director of the film Corporate ?
(a) Shekar Kapoor (b) Mahesh Bhatt
(c) Nagesh Kukanoor (d) Madhur Bhandarkar

33. The traditional new year celebrations of Bihu are associated with
(a) West Bengal (b) Orissa (c) Assam (d) Kerala
34. Who is the author of the book, Elizabeth Costello ?
(a) J.M. Coetzee (b) Peter Carey (c) Glunter Grass
(d) Hari Junzru
35. Which is the solar system's fastest planet, which orbits the sun at nearly twice the
speed of the earth ?
(a) Venus (b) Mercury (c) Jupiter (d) Pluto
36. US President Barack Obama serced as United States Senator from January 4,
2005 to November 16, 2008 from which of the following states ?
(a) Iowa (b) California (c) Illinois (d) New York
37. Who among the following owns The Taj Hotel, Mumbai which was recently
attacked by militants ?
(a) Ratan Tata (b) Arun Sarin (c) KM Birla (d) Vijay Mallya
38. Which among the following is the most common element on earth ?
(a) Hydrogen (b) Carbon (c) Oxygen (d) Nitrogen
39. Which of the following nations gave women, the right to vote, first ?
(a) West Indies (b) United States of America
(c) India (d) New Zeland
40. What is the meaning of Veni, Vidi, Vici ?
(a) I come, I fought, I won (b) I came, I saw, I conquered
(c) I saw, I planned, I achieved (d) I saw, I fought, I won
41. The disease Swine Flu, is caused by which subtype of Influenza A virus ?
(a) H5N1 (b) H5N5 (c) H1M1 (d) H1N1
42. What are the Primary Colours ?
(a) Red, Blue amd Yellow (b) Red, Blue, Green
(c) Blue, Yellow, Brown (d) Blue, Brown, Black
43. The Narmada Valley Project is spread across three states. Which of the following
is not a part of the project ?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Jharkhand (c) Gujarat (d) Madhya Pradesh
44. The PGA championship is associated with

(a) Bridge (b) Polo (c) Horse racing (d) Golf
45. Jeep, an automobile brand, is registered and owned by
(a) General Motors (b) Ford Motors
(c) Damiler Chrysler (d) Mahindra & Mahindra
46. What should be the minimum level of public share holding in listed companies
under the new SEBI guidelines issued in April 2006 ?
(a) 20% of total equity capital (b) 15% of total equity capital
(c) 25% of total equity capital (d) 30% of total equity capital
47. Which company is associated with the campaign, Tase Bhi, Health Bhi ?
(a) Glaxo Smith Kline (b) Dabur (c) Nestle (d)
Amul
48. The book, To Kill a Mocking Bird, is written by
(a) Harper Lee (b) Joseph Heller (c) Ken Casey (d) Ayn Rand
49. Spoil yourself, is the punch line of
(a) Tata Indigo (b) Tata Indica (c) Toyota Corolla (d) Toyota Camry
50. Lawrence J Ellison, one of the world's highest paid CEOs is heading __________
Company ?
(a) IBM (b) Toshiba (c) Oracle (d) Wipro
Part II
Section 'C'
Test of Reasoning and General Intelligence
Direction (Question No. 51 to 53) : Answer these question based on the information given
below :
A visits Vizag where his brother P resides. P stays with his father Q and mother S. P's
grandfather, R also stays with him. P has two children B and C. B's husband is X. C is married to
Y, who is a wrestler. C's son T welcomed A on his visit.

51. How is related to B ?
(a) Niece (b) Nephew (c) Cousin (d) son
52. How is S related to C ?
(a) Mother (b) Grandmother (c) Aunt (d) Cannot be determined
53. How is P related to X ?
(a) Mother-in-law (b) Mother (c) Father-in-law (d) Cannot be determined
Direction (Question No. 54 to 56) : Answer these questions based on data given below :
“In a class of 70 students, 30 failed in mathematics and 35 failed in Statistics. Ten students
passed in both the subjects.”
54. How many failed in both the subjects ?
(a) 65 (b) 60 (c) 05 (d) 15
55. How many students passed only in Mathematics ?
(a) 40 (b) 30 (c) 15 (d) 20
56. How many students passed in exactly one of the two subjects ?
(a) 60 (b) 55 (c) 40 (d) 35

Direction (Question No. 57 to 59) : Answer the questions based on the following data.
Puja, Kajol, Raj, Sanju, Teena and Uday sit round a hexagonal table in such a way that neither
Puja nor Raj sits opposite to Kajol and neither Teena nor Uday sits opposite to Sanju, wehereas
Raj sits to the immediate left of Sanju.
57. If Teena sits opposite to Raj, then which of the following must be true ?
(a) Puja is opposite to Sanju (b) Kajal and Uday sit opposite to each other
(c) Puja nd Uday sit opposite to each other (d) None of these
58. If Teena sits opposite to Kajol, then which of the following is definetely false ?
(a) Uday and Puja sit next to each other (b) Uday sits opposite to Raj
(c) Puja sits opposite to Sanju (d) Puja and Uday have only one person between them
59. If Puja sits to the immediate left of Raj, then
(a) Kajol sits opposite to Raj (b) Puja sits opposite to Sanju
(c) Kajol sits opposite to Sanju (d) Teena is opposite to Raj
Direction (Question No. 60 to 62) : Select the alternative that logically follows the two given
statements :
60. All Books are pages. All pages are boxes.
(a) All boxes are books (b) All books are boxes
(c) No books are boxes (d) Both (a) and (b)

61. No monkeys are apes. Some apes are chimpanzees
(a) Some chimpanzees are not monkeys (b) Some monkeys are not chimpanzees
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
62. No men are good. Some good people are saints.
(a) Some saints are not men (b) Some men are not saints
(c) All men are saints (d) None of the above
Direction (Question No. 63 to 65) : Find the odd one out.
63. (a) Income tax (b) Sales tax (c) Commercial tax (d) Professional tax
64. (a) Vishakapatnam (b) Bhilai (c) Rourkela (d) Vijayawada
65. (a) 180 (b) 120 (c) 48 (d) 28
66. A clock is so placed that at 2:00 p.m. the minute hand points towards north-west. In which direction
does the hour hand point at 6:00 p.m. ?
(a) North-West (b) West (c) North-East (d) South-East
67. One evening, two friends Vikas and Viju were talking to each other with their books towards each
other. If Vikas' shadow was exactly to the right of him, which direction was Viju facing ?
(a) South (b) North (c) East (d) West

68. If 1 cm on map corresponds to an actual distance of 40 kms. And the distance on the map between
Bombay and Calcutta is 37.5 cms., the actual distance between them is :
(a) 375 Kms (b) 3750 Kms (c) 1500 Kms (d) 1375 Kms
69. Which if the following is the greatest ?
(a) 40% of 30 (b) 3/5 of 25 (c) 6.5% of 200 (d) (1/2)-4
70. After walking 10 Km, Rajesh turned right and walked 5 Km, then turned left and walked 1 Km. Now
he is moving towards south, From which direction did Rajesh start his journey ?
(a) North (b) South-west (c) East (d) West
71. Two indentical taps fill 2/5 of a tank in 20 minutes. When one of the taps goes dry in how many
minutes will the remaining one tap fill the rest of the tank ?
(a) 15 Minutes (b) 5 Minutes (c) 10 Minutes (d) 20 Minutes
72. If “SQUARE” = 87 and “RECTANGLE” = 94, then what is the value of “RHOMBUS” ?
(a) 96 (b) 94 (c) 89 (d) None of these
73. On what day of the week did India celebrate its first Republic Day i.e. 26th January, 1950 ?
(a) Sunday (b) Monday (c) Tuesday (d) None of these
74. Padma walks 10 Kms from north to south and turns left again walks 5 Kms. Then she turns left and
walks 8 Kms. In which direction is she positined now with reference to the starting point ?

(a) East (b) South-East (c) North (d) North-East
75. Find the next number in the series :
3, 12, 48, 192, 768, ?
(a) 2868 (b) 2968 (c) 3072 (d) 3176
Part II
Section 'D'
Test of Quantitative Analysis (Mathematical Skills)
76. If Rs. 2000 amounts to Rs. 2200 in two years under simple interest, what is the rate of interest per
annum?
(a) 5% (b) 6% (c) 10% (d) 8%
77. Rahul borrowed Rs. 1,00,000 @ 8% p.a. compound interest, interest being compounded annually.
ow much should he repay at the end of the first year, so that by repaying Rs. 54,000 at the end of
the second year he can clear the loan ?
(a) Rs. 46,000 (b) Rs. 54,000 (c) Rs. 58,000 (d) Rs. 50,000
78. 6 litres of pure milk are added 10 litres of a mixture water and milk, with 40% milk. What is the
percentage of milk in the new solution ?
(a) 50% (b) 62.5% (c) 75% (d) 87.5%
79. The price of the product is decreased by 10% and then increased by 10%. What is the change in
price ?

(a) Increased by 1% (b) Decreased by 1%
(c) No change in the price (d) None of these
80. The worth of a car depreciates by 4% every year. If the present worth of a car is Rs. 6.00.000, what
is its worth after four years (to the nearest thousands) ?
(a) Rs. 5,04,000 (b) Rs. 5,12,000 (c) Rs. 5,10,000 (d) Rs. 5,16,000
81. What is the area of the smallest square that can be formed with rectangles of dimensions 3 x 2 ?
(a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 72 (d) 36
82. Number “85” is divided into two parts, such that thrice the first part and twice the second part are in
the ratio of 18:5. Find the first part ?
(a) 60 (b) 55 (c) 45 (d) 24
83. A party is attended by a total of 60 persons. If the ratio of men and women is 3:2, how many more
must join the party such that the ratio becomes 7 : 3?
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 25
84. A group of five people can do a certain work in a certain number of days. If more people join the
group, they take 12 days less to do the same work. In how many days a group of three people
can do the work ?
(a) 30 days (b) 45 days (c) 15 days (d) 50 days
85. A man leaves P and reaches Q in three hours at an average speed of 60 Kmph. What is the
distance from P to Q ?

(a) 180 Km (b) 150 Km (c) 300 Km (d) 250 Km
86. The sum of the first and the 9th of an arithmetic progression is 24. What is the sum of the first nine
terms of the progression ?
(a) 216 (b) 108 (c) 54 (d) None of these
87. The sum of 20 terms of the series 12 + 22, 32 + 42, 52 + 62 is
(a) 210 (b) 519 (c) 190 (d) None of these
88. If 3/p = 6 and 3/q = 15 then p-q = ?
(a) 1/3 (b) 2/5 (c) 3/10 (d) 5/6
89. In how many ways can 5 letters be posted in 3 post boxes, if any number of letters can be posted in
all of the three post boxes ?
(a) 5C3 (b) 5P3 (c) 53 (d) 35
90. John starts work at 8:45 am and finishes at 5:15 pm. He has 90 minutes of breaks. How many hours
does he work in 29 days ?
(a) 180 (b) 200 (c) 220 (d) 240
91. The ratio of the present ages of Suman and Renu is 5 : 7 respectively. Four years hence the ratio
will become 3 : 4 respectively. What is the present age of Renu in years ?
(a) 28 (b) 24 (c) 21 (d) 20

92. A man brought some fruits at the rate of 16 for Rs. 24 and sold them at the rate of 8 for Rs. 18 What
is the profit per cent ?
(a) 50% (b) 40% (c) 60% (d) 25%
93. A, B and C contract a work for Rs. 550. Together A and B are supposed to do 7/11th of the work.
How much does C get ?
(a) Rs. 270 (b) Rs. 200 (c) Rs. 310 (d) Rs. 175
94. If the diagonals of a rhombus are 8 cm and 10 cm respectively what will be the area of the
rhombus ?
(a) 35 sq.cm (b) 40 sq.cm (c) 30 sq.cm (d) 20 sq.cm
95. Brijesh was born on 17th August 1983 and the day was Friday. If Aryan was born on 27th March
1986, what was the day ?
(a) Thursday (b) Monday (c) Friday (d) Saturday
96. A person standing in a queue is 17th from the first and 13th from the last. How many peoples are
standing in the queue ?
(a) 29 (b) 33 (c) 45 (d) 26
97. Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 hours abd 20 hours respectively. Both together can fill it in :
(a) 12.5 hours (b) 17.5 hours (c) 8.57 hours (d) 15.57 hours
98. In a group of 15, 7 have studied Latin, 8 have studied Greek and 3 have not studied either. How
many of these studied both Latin and Greek ?
(a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 9 (d) 0
99. Three is a safe with a 5 digit number as the key. The 4th digit is 4 greater than second digit, while
3rd digit is 3 less than 2nd digit. The 1st digit is thrice the last digit. There are 3 pairs whose sum
is 11. Find the 3rd digit.
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
100. If 4563 = 5437 and 6647 = 3353, then 546 is
(a) 453 (b) 454 (c) 8445 (d) 9454
  #3  
2nd March 2015, 10:33 AM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Re: Previous paper for PGECET

I am looking for the Post Graduate Engineering Common Entrance Test MBA Entrance exam question paper . Will you please provide it ?
  #4  
2nd March 2015, 11:08 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Previous paper for PGECET

Here I am providing the list of few questions of Post Graduate Engineering Common Entrance Test MBA Entrance exam question paper which you are looking for .

SECTION 1: VERBAL COMMUNICATION (Questions 1-40)
Directions: In Questions 1 and 2, fill in the blanks with the option containing the MOST
APPROPRIATE set of words.
Q.l This will require a culture of_________and should allow diversity to _________
(A) sympathy, display (B) stamina, flaunt
(C) resilience, brandish (D) tolerance, flourish
Q.2 We are more likely to believe a story told by someone we consider ________ than someone
we have learnt not to trust, so the reputation of the narrator ________ the story.
(A) spurious, negates (B) honest, validates
(C) objective, officiates (D) adorable, dominates

Solutions to Q. 1-2:
1. The answer is (D). A culture would require tolerance for diversity, and diversity can only lead
to it flourishing (expanding) and not brandishing, flaunting (showing off) or displaying. Hence
only (D) can be the answer.
2. The answer is (B). A contrast to someone we have not learnt to trust would only be someone
we consider honest, and that can only lead to the narrator validating the story. Hence (B) is the
answer.
Directions: Questions 3 - 6 relate to the passage given below:
Visualisation is the three-dimensional, multicoloured, singing-and-dancing version of
affirmations that enables the subconscious to prefigure future achievement or success. It is a
basic and fundamental human attribute, and one that can literally be the difference between
surviving and not surviving. When Victor Frankl, the Freudian psychologist, was examining the
discriminating factors that enabled him, and many like him, to survive in the hell of the Nazi
concentration camps, the key factor was the ability to visualize. All survivors had a vision of
something beyond their current suffering, something more worthwhile, and something worth
hanging on for. This underlines the importance of each individual having a vision of something,
outside and larger than herself, that gives her life some meaning. The very existence of a mission
lifts the eyes to something more meaningful and enduring — and in so doing provides something
to live for — at times when quiet surrender could be an attractive option. Such a vision gives a
further raison d ‘etre for integrity, by providing a purpose that binds together the core values that
make up self- orth.
One of the most powerful — and difficult to achieve — applications of visualization is to focus
your mind daily on the person you intend to become. Create a clear mental picture of that person
— and see it in full color, and add sounds and smells, if they are appropriate. The emotional
values you add to the visualization are vital in making the full connection to your subconscious,
which acts only on thoughts that are mixed with emotions. These techniques are, of course,
widely validated in fields like sport and business, where the peak performers are nearly all
visualisers. They all see, feel, and fully experience their success before they achieve it.
Q.3 Which of the following statements, in the light of the above passage, is NOT correct?
(A) Visualisation is the affirmation of the subconscious
(B) Visualisation is three dimensional, multicoloured and auditory

(C) Visualisation is a basic and fundamental quality of human mind
(D) Visualisation can make a significant difference in terms of our very existence
Q.4 The above passage DOES NOT deal with
(A) uses of visualization (B) quality of visualization
(C) techniques of visualization (D) illustrations of visualization
Q.5 Which of the following observations CANNOT be directly inferred from the above passage?
(A) Concentration camp survivors visualized beyond their current suffering
(B) Emotional values help one’s subconscious to connect to visualization
(C) Visualization involves the ability to focus on the person you want to become
(D) The existence of a goal beyond one’s current situation gives one a sense of purpose
Q.6 “Raison d’etre” as it is used in the above passage means
(A) the most important need (B) the most important inference
(C) the most important consequence (D) the most important reason

Solutions for Q. 3-6:
3. The answer is (A). All the other options can be found in the passage. However the passage
does not discuss the affirmation of the subconscious.
4. The answer is (B). The passage discusses the other three options. However quality is not
discussed.
5. The answer is (C). The passage does not talk about visualization and the ability to focus on
who you want to become.
6. The answer is (D). In the context of the passage the given word could only mean the most
important reason.
Directions: In Questions 7- 9, select the pair of words that best expresses a relationship
SIMILAR to the pair in CAPITAL letters.
Q.7 PIRATE: PIROUETTE
(A) Marauder: Dive (B) Criminal : Tumble
(C) Convict : Spin (D) Buccaneer: Gyrate
Q.8 COMMUNE: COMMUTE
(A) Converse: Interact (B) Announce: Lighten
(C) Communicate: Travel (D) Declare: Exchange
Q.9 PROVINCIALISM : PAROCHIALISM
(A) Dilettante: Inexpert (B) Miscegenation: Mitigation
(C) Meretricious: Sober (D) Decadent: Resplendent

Solutions for Q. 7-9:
7. The answer is (D). Pirate and buccaneer are synonyms, and pirouette and gyrate both refer to
certain actions that are a part of dancing. Marauder is a raider, dive is to jump in, criminal is a
rogue, tumble is to roll over, a convict is someone who has done a wrong, spin is to rotate.
8. The answer is (C). Commune means to connect, and communicate has a similar meaning and
commute means to travel. Converse is to talk, interact is to be involved with others, announce is
to proclaim, lighten is to illuminate, declare is to announce, exchange is to switch.
9. The answer is (A). Provincialism means narrowness of mind or ignorance, and parochialism
is a synonym. Similarly, a dilettante is an amateur, similar in meaning to an inexpert.

Miscegenation is interbreeding of races, mitigation is reduction, meretricious is falsely attractive,
sober is calm/composed, decadent is ruined, resplendent is grand.

Directions: In Questions 10 and 11, carefully read the sentences given below and identify the
grammatically INCORRECT option to fill in the blank.
Q.10 This strategy has proved very successful for Nike, but to keep ahead of competition they
must keep ___________ new factory sites and sourcing cheap workers.
(A) searching (B) exploring (C) surveying (D) scrutinizing
Q.11 There are more flowers here ___________ earlier.
(A) than there used to be (B) than there was (C) than there had been (D) than there were

Directions: In Questions 12 and 13, choose the option that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
CAPITALIZED word.
Q.12 GRIT
(A) Grid (B) Grind (C) Grin (D) Grill
Q.13 INEXPLICABLE
(A) Incomprehensible (B) Indelible (C) Inextricable (D) Infallible

Directions: In Questions 14 and 15, choose the option which is OPPOSITE in meaning to the
CAPITALIZED word.
Q.14 STIGMA
(A) Horror (B) Humour (C) Honour (D) Holler
Q.15 TYRO
(A) Expert (B) Tyrannical (C) Beginner (D) Tycoon

Solutions for Q. 10-15:
10. The answer is (C). To survey something means to take a general overview of something.
Hence the word fits the context best. The other options involve an in depth analysis.
11. The answer is (B), as the plural noun ‘flowers’ have to be substantiated by a plural verb, but
this option uses a singular verb ‘was’. All the other options may grammatically be used.
12. The answer is (B). There is no direct relation between the given word and the options.
However, when we grind something we get grit. Grid is a maze, grin is a curt smile, and grill is a
method of cooking.
13. The answer is (A). Incomprehensible and inexplicable are synonyms, which means
something which is hard to understand. Indelible is something that cannot be removed,
Inextricable is something confusing, Infallible is incapable of error.
14. The answer is (C). Stigma is a mark of disgrace. Hence the answer has to be honor. Horror is
terror, humor is fun, and holler is to shout.
15. The answer is (A). A tyro is a beginner in a field. Hence an expert is the opposite. Tyrannical
is dominating, beginner is a synonym for the given word, tycoon is a businessman.

Directions: Questions 16 -18 relate to the passage given below:
When I started working during the late 1960s and early ‘70s I was the proud owner of a slide
rule. It was a low-mileage model, as I only knew how to work out percentages on it, but even
that was better than struggling with long multiplication or logarithms to do the same work as
some of my colleagues were wont to do. The point is that this was only three decades ago, and
the pocket calculator had still not been invented. I remember, in the early 1970s, sitting in a
meeting in the viewing room of the advertising agency I worked for, taking part in a discussion
with our client, Procter and Gamble, on whether the commercial which had just been approved
should be shot in black- and-white, or color. The discussion, as with most discussions with that
client, was long and carefully articulated on both sides. The agency, of course, looked to the
future, and argued strongly for color. We were finally overruled, on the grounds that there were
still too few color TV sets in existence for it to be worth the extra investment in color film.
At the same period, I recall the excitement of the company’s first computer being delivered. The
accounts’ office window was temporarily removed, while the computer was swung into place by
a crane especially hired for the purpose. The computer power was probably less than a Personal
Organizer. Not only was color television a rarity, and the personal computer still some way off,
other everyday objects had still to be invented, like the digital watch or the camcorder. How we
existed without such basic everyday tools, I now find hard to imagine.
The truth is that we and our parents and grandparents before us — and their forebears before
them stretching back over the past two centuries — have seen and accommodated huge technical
advances and social changes. Many of these changes have not only been big — they’ve been
fast.
Q.16 The MOST APPROPRIATE title for the above passage could be
(A) “Changes since the 1960s” (B) “Accepting change”
(C) “Change and obsolescence” (D) “The changing world”
Q.17 Which of the following statements is MOST ACCURATE in terms of the passage above?
(A) Colour commercial was ruled out because color photography was in its infancy
(B) An office window had to be dismantled so as to put the computer inside
(C) The digital camcorder had not yet been invented in the 1970s
(D) Slide rules could calculate percentages, multiplication and logarithms
Q.18 Which of the following inferences is the MOST APPROPRIATE as per the passage above?
(A) Change is a process of struggling against existing ideas
(B) The world has changed rapidly since the 1960s and ‘70s
(C) Change is exciting, especially in the field of technology
(D) The world has been changing significantly for a long time
Solutions to Q. 16-18:
16. The answer is (D). The passage does not restrict discussion to changes only since the 60s, as
in the end the author talks about “parents and grand parents before us”, thereby eliminating (A).
Neither does he discuss acceptance of changes nor talks about other things 17. The answer is (B).
The second line of the fourth paragraph reflects this.
18. The answer is (D). The passage does not talk about a struggle against change, nor is it only
referring to changes since the 60s and 70s. It does not talk about excitement for the changes.

Hence (A), (B) and (C) can be eliminated.
Directions: In Question 19, ONE of the options is grammatically INCORRECT Identify the
INCORRECT option.
Q.19 (A) They speak French in parts of Italy as well as France
(B) It looks as though John is going to change his job
(C) Smoking is dangerous, as well as it makes you smell bad
(D) As well as birds, some mammals can fly
Directions: The direct speech in Question 20 has been rewritten as reported speech (indirect
form) in the four options given below. Identify the grammatically CORRECT option.
Q.20 He said, “I need to be there in person or my budget will be reduced. However, I will attend
the meeting before I leave.”
(A) He said that he needed to be there in person or his budget will be reduced. But he will attend
the meeting before he left.
(B) He said, he needed to be there in person or his budget will be reduced. However, he’ll attend
the meeting before he leaves.
(C) He said that he needed to be there in person or his budget would be reduced. However, he
said that he would attend the meeting before he left.
(D) He said he needs to be there in person, or his budget would be reduced. But he will attend the
meeting before he left.
Solution for Q 19:The answer is (C). The usage of “as well as” in this sentence is incorrect.
Solution for Q 20: The answer is (C). Options (B) and (D) can be eliminated, because in
reported speech we need to use the connector ‘that’. In option (A) the use of present tense is
incorrect. Only option (C) gives us a correctly framed sentence.
Directions: Questions 21 - 23 refer to the passage below:
To make effective decisions, all we have to do is to out-think our opponent. Our decision
needs to be better than his, that’s all. There is no need to be perfect. The mistake we make is to
think through our intellect. If we ask any successful business leader or CEO these days about
what has made them so successful, again and again they claim that their success came from
something beyond their intellect; something beyond logic and facts; something that gave them
the intelligence and guts to take effective decisions. It is simply the intuitive power within them
that has helped them make these effective decisions.
We can tune into intuition as part of our regular life. The question therefore is not whether
intuition is an inborn quality, but whether we can make ourselves intuitive. When we step into
the present, we step out of time-bound awareness. We step beyond tension. Our body stops
producing adrenaline. Time-bound awareness is mass, which is solid. Non time-bound awareness
is pure energy, liquid, dynamic, bubbling and creative. We step out of our boundaries. We
become free. We become intuitive.
When our thoughts stop, our present vision extends into the past and the future. We become free
of time and space constraints. When we meditate deeply, we become intuitive, and can reach
cosmic intelligence or enlightenment.
Q.21 Which of the following statements CANNOT be directly inferred from the above passage?
(A) Effective decisions are not necessarily perfect decisions

(B) Successful CEOs have intuitive powers
(C) To be intuitive, we have to step out of our time-boundaries
(D) Meditation helps us take effective decisions
Q.22 The MOST APPROPRIATE title for the passage might be
(A) “Beyond intuitive boundaries” (B) “Intuition, the key to effective decisions”
(C) “Intuitive leadership” (D) “Intuitive reasoning”
Q.23 According to the passage, a successful business leader
(A) relies mostly on logic and facts (B) is more intelligent than his / her opponents
(C) takes effective decisions (D) is free of time and space constraints
Solutions for Q. 21-23:
21. The answer is (D). All the other options can be inferred from the passage. However no direct
correlation between meditation and decision making is shown in the passages.
22. The answer is (B). The passage does not talk about transcending intuitive boundaries nor
does it discuss intuition with relation to leadership or reasoning. However (B) reflects the intent
of the passage.
23. The answer is (C) and is reflected in the beginning of the passage.
Directions: Read the paragraph below and answer Questions 24 - 26 which follow:
Confusion is internal and/or external chaos. Faulty implications, cognitive distortions,
interpersonal disruptions, and complex signs of confusion and conflict promote a spirit
or atmosphere of misinformation, misinterpretation and miscommunication. Where there
is considerable friction in the mix of expressive freedom and interpretative response, an
atmosphere of uncertainty and commotion will prevail.
Q.24 The MOST APPROPRIATE meaning of “commotion,” as used in the passage, would be
(A) a state of agitation and disturbance
(B) a mental condition that leads to emotional breakdown
(C) a state of uncertainty leading to depression
(D) a condition of confusion and faulty implication
Q.25 The passage implies that
(A) misinterpretation and miscommunication are promoted to some extent because of confusion
(B) cognitive distortion and interpersonal disruption cause confusion
(C) confusion is a result of misinformation, miscommunication and non-expressive freedom
(D) considerable friction and cognitive distortion necessarily lead to commotion
Q.26 Which of the following, according to you, is the MOST APPROPRIATE title for the
passage?
(A) “Causes of uncertainty”
(B) “Misinterpretation and commotion”
(C) “Defining confusion”
(D) “Uncertainty — the cause of commotion”
Solutions to Q. 24-26:
24. The answer is (A).The passage does not indicate any of the other options as being the
meanings of commotion.

25. The answer is (A). It can be seen in the third line of the passage.
26. The answer is (C). The passage does not give us the causes of uncertainty, nor does it discuss
misinterpretation and commotion. Also the passage does talk about uncertainty as the cause of
commotion. Hence only “defining confusion” reflects the main idea of the passage.
Directions: In Questions 27 - 29, select the set of words that best expresses a relationship
SIMILAR to the set in CAPITALS.
Q.27 PRINTER: INK: PAPER
(A) Electric Power: Desktop: Monitor
(B) Vending Machine: Water: Ground Coffee
(C) Car: Brake Oil: Petrol
(D) Tree: Clear Polish: Timber Wood
Q.28 TV : VISION : MOVIES
(A) Mirror: Reflection: Eye
(B) Air Conditioner: Feel: Air
(C) Oven: Food: Smell
(D) Perfume: Fragrance: Flower
Q.29 SKY: BIRD: THUNDER
(A) Movie: Theatre: Actor
(B) Night: Stars: Music
(C) Office: Conversation: Employees
(D) Paper : Text: Watermark
Solutions to Q. 27-29:
27. The answer is (B).If a printer has ink and one puts in paper, one get get the paper back in a
printed form. Similarly, if a vending machine has water, and one puts in ground coffee, one can
get the coffee in a drinkable form.
28. The answer is (B). One needs vision to be able to enjoy movies on TV. Similarly, one needs
to be able to feel, to enjoy the air from an air conditioner.
29. The answer is (D). A bird flies in the sky and thunder bolts in the sky and both can happen
simultaneously. Similarly, on can have text and watermark on paper together.
Directions: In Questions 30 -32, identify the grammatically CORRECT option.
Q.30 (A) Music — Classical music, was one of her strong points
(B) Beside art, she also loved Chamber music
(C) The romantic number, in spite of the rain, was still audible
(D) The room was empty except the music album
Q.31 (A) The train may be late, as it happened yesterday
(B) Some people are interested, but the majority doesn’t care
(C) My father, whom we hope will be out of hospital soon, will come
(D) She works hardest when she’s working for her family
Q.32 (A) If you didn’t study English at school, you won’t understand this paper
(B) If you don’t study English at school, you wouldn’t understand this paper Y
(C) If you didn’t study English at school, you wouldn’t understand this paper

(D) If you haven’t studied English at school, you wouldn’t understand this paper
Solutions for Q. 30-32:
30. The answer is (A). In (B) the word ‘beside’ should be replaced with ‘besides’. In option (C),
two contrasting words, ‘in spite”, and “still “are used. Option (D) is merely a fragment.
31. The answer is (B). In option (A), the correct usage would be “as it was yesterday”. In (C) the
incorrect objective pronoun ‘whom’ is used. In (D) the superlative degree “hardest” should be
used with the article “the”.
32. The answer is (C). All the other options express the sentence with a wrong tense.
Directions: Questions 33 - 35 relate to the following article:
Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) played a crucial role in the development of India during
the past 50 years. This sector constitutes about 95% of industrial units, and about 40% of total
industrial output. Its direct and indirect exports potential stand at about 38%. With about 3.6
million SSI (Small Scale Industries) registered units employing close to two crore people, its
employment potential is next only to the agriculture sector. Thus the performance of SMEs is
important for the economic and social development of the country. One of the ways by which
this sector can be made to grow fast is by tapping both domestic as well as international markets
through business linkages between Multinational Corporations (MNC5) and SMEs. Many OECD
(Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development) countries and some Asian ones have
specific policies for developing business linkages between SMEs and MNCs. So, the SME sector
in these countries have witnessed favorable growth and helped boost their countries’ exports
in a very competitive way. For example, Thailand ensured that the state provided industry with
physical infrastructure and technological resources. Other Asian governments (Republic of
Korea, Malaysia, Province of Taiwan, China) have included various incentives in the form of tax
breaks, preference in public contracts and soft credit lines for both Transnational Corporations
(TNCs) and SMEs to intensify relations and technology transfer. India, however, has no specific
policy guidelines to develop linkages between SMEs and MNCs. Consequently, the vast majority
of SMEs that cannot meet the requirements set by MNCs remain totally delinked.
In business linkages between SMEs and MNCs, outsourcing and value chain management started
to play a key role, since MNCs could not become competitive without a competitive supplier
base. Thus, to create a capable supplier base, a three-pronged approach to developing supplier
linkages is needed. There is a need to develop a technology programme to support research,
development and innovation in SMEs by accelerating their rate of technology acquisition
through realization of R & D projects. The government must promote and strengthen the
knowledge base and competencies in SMEs in terms of quality, productivity and cost. Hence,
there is an urgent need to strengthen the National Entrepreneurship Development Board (NEDB)
and formulate a suitable plan for promoting rural entrepreneurship. Substantial investments and
physical infrastructure development are needed all over the country. In this regard, a publicprivate
partnership needs to be developed for implementing and reviewing the supportive
measures at frequent intervals. Q.33 As per the passage, only ONE of the following statements is
correct. Identify the correct statement.
(A) The government should take the lead in facilitating SME-MNC linkages
(B) The only way to facilitate growth of SME sector is through business linkages with MNCs
(C) The government should help SMEs in improving their knowledgebase and competencies

(D) SMEs currently export 38% of total industrial output
Q.34 The article DOES NOT talk about
(A) role of business associations in fostering SME-MNC linkages
(B) role of developing countries in fostering SME-MNC linkages
(C) role of the government in fostering SME-MNC linkages
(D) role of MNCs in developing the SME sector
Q.35 According to the article, the Indian government can help facilitate the SME-MNC linkage
by
(A) selecting potential local firms as suppliers to MNCs
(B) providing technological resources through investments in R & D
(C) providing soft credit lines for MNCs
(D) training SMEs in outsourcing and value chain management
Solutions for Q. 33-35:
33. The answer is (C). The 6th line of the last paragraph reflects this idea.
34. The answer is (A). All other options are discussed in the passage. However the passage does
not talk of business associations fostering SME-MNC linkages.
35. The answer is (B). The idea is reflected in the end of the last paragraph.
Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the Questions 36 - 39 which follow.
Although broad generalizations always oversimplify complex realities, we find numerous
truths in the contrast between hierarchical, industrial manufacturing firms that dominated most
of the twentieth century and today’s service-based and knowledge-sensitive organizations.
When industry meant repeatedly carrying out standard, well-defined tasks and workers were
seen metaphorically (and sometimes literally) as parts of a machine, progress could still be
made when the social networks and relationships of individual employees were ignored or
discouraged. In fact, those firms strongly depended on social capital and sometimes suffered
from lack of it. Without some level of trust, respect, and generalized reciprocity, coordinated
work of any kind is hard to accomplish. Still, as Henry Ford has commented, a certain rough
logic lies behind treating people like cogs in a machine when you only expect and want them
to do machine-like work. But very little of the work of today’s knowledge firm is repetitive or
mechanical.
It requires responsiveness, inventiveness, collaboration and attention. Judgment, persuasiveness,
shared decisions, the pooling of knowledge, and the creative sparks people strike off one
another depend on engagement with the work and one another, on the commitment that makes
one genuinely a member of an organization rather than simply an “employee”. Although we
ourselves sometimes fall into the trap of talking about “employers” and “employees” - the user
and the used - those terms really belong to the industrial-age model and are inappropriate to the
kind of work and working relationships we consider here. Today’s most economically productive
work is largely voluntary, in the sense that doing it well calls for a willing engagement of
the whole self in the task. “Going through the motions” is insufficient when the motions are
not prescribed but change as you go along. In our view, the firm is neither a machine with
each cog firmly in place performing its clearly defined task nor an unorganized (or se flock
of opportunistic entrepreneurs pursuing their individual destinies. It is - it should be - a social
organization of people willingly engaged in a joint enterprise.

Q.36 The above passage implies that
(A) service-based, knowledge-intensive organizations dominate in today’s business scenario
(B) employees carry out standard, well-defined tasks -
(C) a voluntary worker is likely to be an engaged worker
(D) industrial firms cannot be economically productive
Q.37 Based on your reading of the above passage, identify the INCORRECT option.
(A) A knowledge firm requires participation and collaboration
(B) A knowledge firm encourages trust and reciprocity
(C) A knowledge firm does not have employees
(D) A knowledge firm has flexible work descriptions
Q.38 In the light of your reading of the passage above identify the option that contains the set
of words CLOSEST in meaning to the set of words in CAPITAL letters METAPHORICALLY:
STANDARD : COG : ENGAGEMENT
(A) Allegorically: Bench-mark : Small Part : Obligation
(B) Figuratively: Average : Small wheel : Appointment
(C) Illustratively: Criterion : Small teeth : Undertaking
(D) Symbolically: Routine: Small Component: Commitment
Q.39 The central idea of the passage relates to
(A) the key difference between industrial and knowledge-intensive firms
(B) the key difference between an “employee” and a “member” in an organization
(C) “Mechanical” vs. “Voluntary” organizations
(D) importance of social capital in creating engaged organizations.
Solutions to Q. 36-39:
36. The answer is (C). It can be seen in the 9th and 10th line of the last paragraph.
37. The answer is (C). All the other options are seen in the passage. However nothing in the
passage suggests that a knowledge firm does not have employees.
38. The answer is (B). Metaphorically means figuratively. One of the meanings of standard is
average. A cog is a tiny wheel that’s a component of machinery. And an engagement could also
refer to an appointment.
39. The answer is (A) and is clarified in the beginning of the passage in the 1st and 2nd lines.
Directions: Question 40 consists of four groups of jumbled phrases, only ONE of which is
grammatically correct. Identify the CORRECT option.
Q.40 (A) matured, venture capital has undergone still another redefinition, returning / at least
in part to its early roots in funding mature / now as the technology business has I businesses, in
technology and in other segments as well
(B) energy and financial services / areas and has been leading in information technology,
media / the firm has invested across many industry / and communications, telecommunications,
healthcare,
(C) in the area of new ventures that, I might one day return to help put /1 left the Gaeltacht
convinced that the way to / in place the very infrastructures needed to create a sustainable and
thriving economy / save this island of Irish tradition is to work

(D) the consequence of that - in part — is / companies with good people that are just farther
along / that have gone public in the past that are still good, / that there are a lot of orphans out
there among companies
Solution for Q. 40:
The answer is (B). “The firm has invested across many industry areas and has been leading in
information technology, media and communications, telecommunications, healthcare, energy and
financial services.” None of the other options arrange the sentences correctly.
SECTION 2: LOGICAL REASONING (Questions 41-80) Directions for Questions 41 -
43: Answer Questions 41 - 43 based upon the following passage. Any additional information
provided with a particular question pertains to that individual question only
Eight entrepreneurs (J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q) are selected for excellence awards for their
outstanding contributions to business. Besides nurturing their own industries, two of these
entrepreneurs, viz., J and L, also patronize the telecom industry while two others, viz., M and P,
also patronize the computer industry. In arranging the seats, it was decided that the entrepreneurs
who patronize other industries in addition to their own should not be seated together.
Q.41. Which one of the following combinations is possible in the seating arrangements?
(A) KMLNJ (B) JPQOL (C) JKLNM (D) JOLPQ
Q.42. In order to ensure a proper seating arrangement, M should sit between
(A) N and O (B) K and J (C) L and N (D) O and P
Q.43. Which one of the following can be seated next to O?
(A) J only (B) Q only
(C) K only (D) Any of the above
Solution for the question 41-43:
41. According to the data given J, L, M and P should not seat together. In all the answer options
except (C) this condition contradicts. Hence the answer option is (C).
42. M can seat between the members who do not patronize any other company. So, M should
seat between N and O. Hence the answer option is (A).
43. There are no conditions given for O so he/she can seat next to any of the other member.
Hence the answer option is (D).
Directions for Question 44: The following question has a set of five statements. Each statement
has three sentences. Choose the alternative where the third sentence can be logically deduced,
using both the preceding two, but not just from one of them.
Q.44 i. Mild inflation is good for the economy. It encourages economic growth. Higher
economic growth rate leads to higher level of inflation.
ii. X and Y are friends. X is the enemy of Z. Y is the enemy of Z.
iii. Outsourcing of certain jobs improves the focus of the firm in the core area. It also raises
productivity and cost efficiency. Firms which outsource experience an increase in their
productivity.
iv. Global trade is expanding very fast. It is for the benefit of developed countries to expand their

trade faster with the developing countries rather than among themselves. Most of such trade is
largely concentrated among developed countries.
v. Forgiveness is a great virtue. Great virtues are rare. Forgiveness is rare.
(A) Only i (B) i and ii (C) iii and v (D) iv and v
Solution for the question 44:
In the (iv) combination, the first sentence tells us that global trade is expanding fast. The
second sentence suggests that expansion of such trade with developing countries would be
more beneficial. Hence one can infer that most of such trade is concentrated among developing
countries. In the (v) combination, forgiveness is a subset of great virtues and great virtues is a
sub set of rare things. Hence it can be inferred that forgiveness is rare. Hence the answer option
is (D).
Q.45 Harry is younger than Latif. Mahesh is of the same age as Latif. Randeep is exactly five
years older than Mahesh, and Sonam is younger than Randeep but older than Harry by at the
most four years. What is the minimum difference between the ages of Randeep and Harry?
Assume that ages of all persons in this question are integer values.
(A) four years (B) five years (C) six years (D) eight years
Q.46 All practicing lawyers have LLB degree. All MBBS degree holders are doctors. No doctors
have LLB degree. From the above statement, which one of the options can be logically deduced?
(A) Every individual is either a practicing lawyer or does not have a MBBS degree
(B) Every individual is either not a practicing lawyer or does no have a MBBS degree
(C) Every individual is either not a practicing lawyer or has a MBBS degree
(D) Every individual is either a practicing lawyer or has a MBBS degree
Q.47. A family comprises seven members namely M, N, 0, P, Q, R, and S. Among them four are
adults and three are children. Of the three children, only R and S are girls. M and P are brothers
and M is a pilot. Q is an airhostess married to one of the brothers and has two children. N is
married to P and S is their child. Who is O?
(A) M’s son (B) R’s father (C) Q’s daughter (D) P’s son
Q.48. If C $ D means C is the brother of D, C * D means C is the mother of D, and C # D means
C is thesister of D, which of the following would mean ‘M is the uncle of N’?
(A) M $ C # N (B) N # M $ C (C) M $ C * N (D) M # C * N
Q.49. If the code for the word ‘QUESTION’ is SWGUVKQP, identify the option which gives
the correct code for the word ‘RECEPTIONIST’?
(A) TGEGRKVQPKUV (B) TGEGRVQKPKUV
(C) TGEGRVKQPKUV (D) TGEGRVKQKPUV
Q.50. The Chinese are shorter than the Italians; the Americans are taller than the French;
the French are taller than the Chinese. From the information given above, which one of the
following statement can be logically inferred?
(A) The Italians are shorter than the Chinese
(B) The French are taller than the Americans
(C) The Chinese are taller than the French
(D) The Americans are taller than the Chinese

Solutions for questions 45 to 50
45. As Harry is younger than Latif and Mahesh, who is younger than Randeep by 5 years. So the
minimum difference between Harry and Randeep is 6years. Hence the answer option is (C).
46. All the other options are inconclusive. Herelawyers are a subset of LLB, and MBBS is a
subset of doctors. However doctors and LLB are disjoint sets. Hence if an individual is a part of
one he cannot be a part of the other. Hence the answer option is (D).
47. The family diagram according to the data given is as given below:
48. Go with the answer options. Hence the answer option is (C).
49. Each letter in the word is represented by the 2nd letter on the right as per the English
alphabets. Hence the answer option is (C).
50. According to the data given the Americans are taller than the French and the French are
taller than the Chinese So, the Americans are taller than the Chinese. Hence the answer option
is (D). Note: “+” between two members represents they are married. From the figure we can say
that, O is M’s son. Hence the correct option is (A) N +P Brothers M + Q S(Girl) O (Boy) RGirl)
Adults Childs
Directions for Questions 51 and 52: Read the given passage and answer the questions:
Nine shops in a multiplex are connected by corridors. Anyone visiting these shops must begin
at the reception which is part of shop number 1. From there, the other shops may be visited via
different corridors connecting them. The details of the corridors connecting various shops are as
under:
(i) Corridors connect the reception to shops, 2, 3 and 6.
(ii) A corridor connects the reception to shop 2 and then to shop 4.
(iii) Corridors connect shops 2 and 3 to shop 7.
(iv) Shop 6 is connected to shops 3, 5, and 9.
(v) Shop 7 is connected to shop 9.
(vi) Shops 7 and 9 are connected to shop 8.
Q.51. Without visiting any shop more than once, what is the MAXIMUM number of shops a
person can visit?
(A)5 (B)6 (C) 7 (D)8
Q.52. If a visitor wants to travel to shops 4 and 5, which one of the following must be FALSE?
(A) The visitor will go to every shop except shop 3
(B) The visitor will go to shop 2 only once
(C) The visitor will not visit any shop more than once
(D) The visitor will visit at least six different shops.
Solution for the question 51 and 52:
The data given can be represented as follows
51. Observing the diagram we can say that the maximum number of shops a person can visit
without visiting any shop more than once is 8. Hence the answer option is (D).
Directions for Questions 53 - 55: Read the given passage and answer the questions: Six
products, namely U, V, W, X, Y, and Z are to be placed in the display windows of a shop. There
are six display windows numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 from left to right in such a way that one
product is showcased in one window only. However, U cannot be placed adjacent to V. W must

be immediately to the left of X and Z cannot be in window number 6. Note: The direction (left or
right) should be determined with respect to the observer/shopper
Q.53. Which of the following products CANNOT be placed in window number 1?
(A)U (B) V (C) W (D) X
Q.54. If X is placed in window number 3, in which window can W be placed?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C)4 (D)5
Q.55. If U is placed in window number 5, which of the following products must be placed in
window number 6?
(A)V (B)W (C) Y (D)X
Solution for the question 53-55:
53. As in any of the arrangement W must seat left to X so, X can not be placed in window
number 1. Hence the answer option is (D).
54. If X is placed in window number 3 and W has to be immediately left to X. So W must be
placed in shop number 2. Hence the answer option is (B).
55. If U is placed in window number 5, none of the W or X can be placed in window 6 because
they must be placed next to each other and also V can not be placed adjacent to U. Hence the
answer option is (C).
Directions for Questions 56 - 59: Answer Questions 56 - 59 based upon the following passage.
Any additional information provided with a particular question pertains to that individual
question only.
The placement office of a management school has to schedule seven companies denoted by P to
V for the placement week (the week starts on a Sunday) but not necessarily in that order. This
group of seven companies is divided into three categories, namely, finance, manufacturing and
sales. The number of companies in these three categories are three, two and two respectively.
The placement schedule is such that the same category companies have to be scheduled
consecutively. It has also been decided that:
(i) Company S, a manufacturing company, cannot be scheduled on the sixth day of the week.
(ii) Companies Q and U are scheduled consecutively but not necessarily in that order.
(iii) Company T can be scheduled on any day of the week except on Saturday.
(iv) Company R, which is a similar category company as Q and U, has to be scheduled on the
third day of the week.
Q.56. The total number of schedules, the placement office can have, is
(A) 36 (B) 48 (C) 56 (D) 64
Q.57. If P is scheduled on Wednesday, which of the following has to be TRUE?
(A) U has to be scheduled on Thursday
(B) V has to be scheduled either on Friday or Saturday
(C) T has to be scheduled on either Thursday or Friday
(D) S is always scheduled on some day of the week before Q is scheduled
Q.58. If S is scheduled on Monday, which one of the following options is definitely FALSE?
(A) P and T are sales companies
(B) The maximum number of days in between the schedules of T and U is three

(C) R is always scheduled before Q
(D) The number of schedules when P is slotted on Sunday is three
Q.59 If T is a sales company and S is scheduled on Saturday, which of the following schedules
are possible?
(i) U-Q-R-T-P-V-S
(ii) P-T-R-U-Q-V-S
(iii) T-V-R-Q-U-P-S
(iv) Q-U-R-P-V-T-S
(A) (i)-(iii)-(iv) (B) (ii)-(iii)-(iv) (C) (i)-(ii)-(iv) (D) (i)-(ii)-(iii)
Solution for the question 56-59:
Information we are having from the question:- Q, U and R are from finance companies Now 1st
day is Sunday and 7th would be Saturday
S is a manufacturing company
R scheduled on 3rd day of the week
S can't scheduled on 6th day of the week
T can be scheduled on any day of the week except Saturday
56. 1(sun) 2 3 4 5 6(´S) 7(sat)(´T) Q/U U/Q R R Q/U U/Q
a) If S is on 7th position then possible arrangements are 1(sun) 2 3 4 5 6(´S) 7(sat)(´T) Q/U U/Q
R S P, S and T arrange among three places from 4 to 6 in 3! Ways i.e. 6 ways From here 12 ways
are possible----(1) 1(sun) 2 3 4 5 6(´S) 7(sat)(´T) R Q/U U/Q S P, S and T arrange among three
places 1, 2 and 6 in 3! Ways i.e. 6 ways From here 12 ways are possible----(2) In all 24 ways
when S is at 7th position
b) If S is not on 7th position then
i) 1(sun) 2 3 4 5 6(´S) 7(sat)(´T) Q/U U/Q R Now look for 7th position, we have assumed that
S cannot be at 7th position Therefore 7th position can be filled in 2 ways either by P or V Now
6th position can be filled in 2 ways either V or P which is left and T 5th position can be filled in
2 ways and for 4th we are left with 1 only so no. of ways possible is 1´2´2´2 = 8 ways In all 16
ways possible from this arrangement considering the arrangement of 1st and 2nd position
ii) 1(sun) 2 3 4 5 6(´S) 7(sat)(´T) R Q/U U/Q Now look for 7th position, we have assumed that
S cannot be at 7th position Therefore 7th position can be filled in 2 ways either by P or V Now
6th position can be filled in 2 ways either V or P which is left and T Now 2nd position filled in
2 ways and 1st in one way Therefore no. of arrangements possible are 1´2´2´2 = 8 ways In all
16 ways are possible from this arrangement considering arrangements of U and Q in 4th and 5th
position. In all therefore 24 + 16 + 16 = 56 ways are possible .
Hence the answer option is (C).
57. if P is scheduled on Wednesday and R is on third day of the week then possible arrangements
are 1(sun) 2(mon) 3 4 5 6 7(sat)
a) Q/U U/Q R P S T V
b) Q/U U/Q R P T/V V/T S
Now look at the answer options. The condition which has to be true is T has to be scheduled on
either Thursday or Friday. Hence the answer option is (C). 58. If S is scheduled on Monday then
arrangements possible are 1(sun) 2 3 4 5 6(´S) 7(sat)( ´T) P/V S R Q/U U/Q T V/P T S R Q/U U/
Q P/V V/P Now look at the answer options to be definitely false

a) P and T can be sales company when V and S are manufacturing company and Q, U and are
finance companies so it is not false
b) Maximum number of days in between schedules of T and U is 3 also possible when U is at 5th
day and T is at 1st day so this case also not definitely false
c) R is always scheduled before is definitely true arrangements can be either RUQ or RQU
d) The statement ‘Number of schedules when P is slotted on Sunday is 3’ is false as only 2 cases
are possible. Possible arrangements are 1(sun) 2 3 4 5 6(´S) 7(sat)( ´T) P S R Q/U U/Q T V i.e. 2
only.
Hence the answer option is (D).
59. Look at the option number (iv) T is a sales company and S is a manufacturing company it
cannot be together as same category company ha to be scheduled consecutively so except (iv) all
the combinations are possible . Hence the answer option is (D).
Q.60 Not only do major diseases afflict the elderly in particular-of which there are more -they
are generally very expensive diseases to treat. Which one of the following options, if true, MOST
STRENGTHENS this statement?
(A) Studies reveal that 60% of elderly people suffer from cataract
(B) A dentist’s major income comes from fixing artificial teeth for elderly patients
(C) Insurance companies do not cover Parkinson’s disease because of the expenses involved
(D) Private nursing homes have reported that cancer accounts for 50% of prolonged
hospitalization of the elderly
  #5  
2nd March 2015, 11:09 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Previous paper for PGECET

Q.61. Ram, Qadir, Sorabji, Charles and Gurdeep all roll the same unbiased dice one after the
other and note down their respective numbers. Ram gets an even number; Qadir gets a number
greater than that of Gurdeep; Sorabji gets the same number as Charles and the addition of
Charles’ and Ram’s numbers is odd. If Qadir’s number is 4, what is the maximum of the addition
of the numbers obtained by all five?
(A) 22 (B) 23 (C) 25 (D) 27
Solution for the question 60:
It discusses Parkinson’s disease which is something that afflicts the elderly. It also mentions that
there are major expenses involved. Hence it strengthens the argument in the statement. Hence the
correct answer option is (C).
Solution for the question 61:
To have the total sum to be maximum in such a way that no one statement should contradict,
Ram Should get 6, both of the Sorabji and Charles get 5, Quadir gets 4 and Gurudeep gets 3.
Hence the total sum must be 23.
Hence the answer option is (B).
Directions for Questions 62- 65: Answer Questions 62 -65 based upon the following passage.
U, V, X, Y and Z collected CDs of yesteryears’ melodious songs. They collected a total of 100
CDs. None of them have collected less than 10 CDs. No two among them collected the same
number of CDs. Also,
(i) U collected the same number of CDs as V and X put together.
(ii) X collected 3 more CDs than the cube of an integer.
(iii) The number of CDs collected by U was the square of an integer.
(iv) The number of CDs collected by V was either the square or the cube of an integer.
(v) The number of CDs collected by Y and Z are in the ratio 4:3.

Q.62. What was the number of CDs collected by U?
(A) 19 (B) 36 (C) 52 (D) 64
Q.63. What was the number of CDs collected by V?
(A) 16 (B) 25 (C) 46 (D) 64
Q.64. What was the difference in the number of CDs collected by X and Y?
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 9 (D) 11
Q.65. How many of the individual collection(s) of CDs was / were prime numbers?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
Solution for the question 62-65:
We have U + V + X + Y + Z = 100 and U, V, W, X, Z 10 U = V + X and 3Y = 4Z Now, X = 8
+ 3 = 11 or X = 27 + 3 = 30 and U = 16, 25, 36, 49 and V = 16, 25, 27, 36 Now observing the
values of U, V and X We can easily say that X(11) + V(25) = U(36) So, X = 11, V = 25 and U
= 36 Now, Y + Z = 100 – (U + V + X) = 100 – (11 + 36 +25) = 28. Now put Y = 4/3 Z in the
above equation we will get Z = 12 and then Y = 16.
62. The answer option is (B). 63. The answer option is (B).
64. The answer option is (A). 65. The answer option is (B).
Directions for Questions 66 - 68: Read the following information and answer the questions.
Any additional information provided with a particular question pertains to that individual
question only.
The production, marketing, human resource, finance, and management information system
managers of a particular company meet for a round table meeting to discuss the strategy of the
company. Out of the five, three are men and the other two are women. The following restrictions
apply to their seating arrangement (i) The two women will not be seated next to each other. (ii)
The production manager, a man, will always be seated as far as possible from the marketing
manager. (iii) The finance manager will always be seated next to a woman.
Q.66. If the human resource manager is a man, which of the following is definitely NOT true?
(A) The marketing manager is sitting in between the two women
(B) The marketing manager is sitting in between two men
(C) The finance manager is a man
(D) The marketing manager is a woman
Q.67. If the finance manager always has a woman to his right, in how many different
arrangements can the marketing manager be a woman?
(A) 2 (B)3 (C) 4 (D) 5
Q.68. If the management information system manager is sitting just to the right of the production
manager, which of the following statement(s) is/are definitely TRUE?
(i) The marketing manager and the finance manager sit next to each other five times.
(ii) The human resource manager has to be a woman.
(iii) The management information system manager has to be a man.
(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (i) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iii)
Solution for the questions 66 to 68:
Five categories managers are :
1) Production (P) 2) Marketing (MK) 3) Human (H)

4) Finance (Fin) 5) Management information system(MIS)
Number of men – 3 Number of women - 2
Fin manager will always sit next to woman hence it is a man. Production manager is a man.
66. If H is a man:
Male- H, Fin, P
Female- MK, MIS
As marketing manager itself a woman so it cannot sit between the two women. Statement in
option (a) is definitely not true Hence the answer option is (A).
67.
Case 1
Look at the above figure finance cannot be at the second position as he always has a woman to
his right whereas P i.e. production manager is a man
Case 2
Consider Finance manager is at 4th position now marketing should be at the 3rd position because
production manager should be seated as far as possible from the marketing manager. Now
marketing is female as it is at the right of finance manager. So 2nd position occupied by male as
females cannot sit together. So 5th position occupied by female. So this is one way.
Case 3
When finance manager is at the 5th position and 4th is occupied by marketing manager which
is female because it is at the right of finance manager. Therefore, 2nd is occupied by female and
3rd is occupied by male. So this is 2nd way.
Case 4
N ot possible
Case 5
When Finance manager is at the third position 2nd is occupied by female Now 4th position is
occupied by marketing manager but it can be male/female. But we can take 1 case from here in
which marketing manager is female in that case 5th position is occupied by male. So this is the
3rd arrangement. In all 3 arrangements are possible which is satisfying the given condition.
1 P 5 2 (X fin) 4(MK) 3(MK)
Case I 1 P(male) 5(female) 2 (male) 4(Fin, male) 3(MK, female)
Case II 1 P(male) 5(Fin,male) 2 (female) 4(MK,female) 3(male)
Case III 1 P(male) 5(Fin,male) 2 (female) 4(female) 3(MK)
Case IV 1 P(male) 5(female/male) 2 (female) ) 4(MK, male/female) 3(Fin, male)
Case V Hence the answer option is (B).
68. Here we can solve by negating the answer option If MIS is female and MK is at the 4th
position then 3rd position can be occupied by Finance manager who is male and 2nd is occupied
by human resource manager who can be female. So the condition 3 negated that MIS has to be
man. Now let us see another case when human resource manager is male so 2nd option also
negated that human resource manager has to be woman. There fore the answer is (i) only. Hence
the answer option is (A).
1 P(male)
2 (H,female)

4(MK, male) 3(Fin, male)
5(MIS,female)
1 P(male)
2 (H, male)
4(Fin, male) 3(MK, female )
5(MIS,female)
Q.69. Starting from his office, Fernandez drives his car towards the North for 40 km. He then
takes a right turn and travels for 30 km to reach ‘VXL Petrol Pump’ from there, he again drives
North-West for a distance of 50 km, before traveling North for another 40 km. Finally he turns
and travels towards South-West for 50 km and stops. What is his direction now with respect to
the starting point?
(A) South-West (B) North-East (C) North-West (D) South-East
Solution for the question 69:
His direction with respect to the starting point is North-West. Hence the answer option is (C).
Q.70. A group comprising five persons namely M, N, O, P, and Q includes one professor of civil
engineering and one of mechanical engineering. In the group, M and P are unmarried women. No
woman is either a chemical or a mechanical or a civil engineer. There is just one married couple
in the group with Q as the husband. N is the brother of O and is neither a chemical engineer nor a
mechanical engineer. What is the profession of Q?
(A) Civil Engineer (B) Chemical Engineer
(C) Mechanical Engineer (D) Cannot be determined
Solution for the question 70:
M, N, O, P, Q
1 professor civil, 1 professor mechanical engineering No women is either mechanical, chemical
or civil engineering 1 married couple in which Q is husband and thus male M and P are
unmarried women N is the brother of O thus male and is neither a chemical or mechanical
engineer Conclusion:- M (female, unmarried) N (male) O P (female, unmarried) Q (male,
married) So only O is left should be wife of Q because 1 married couple is amongst them Also N
is civil engineer. Therefore Q is mechanical engineer. Starting point Finishing point .
Hence the answer option is (C).
Directions for Questions 71-72: Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions.
(i) In a newly constructed municipality market in Nagpur, six shops on a floor in two rows facing
North and South are allotted to U, V, W, X, Y and Z, not necessarily in that order. The number
of shops on both the rows are equal in number.
(ii) V gets a North-facing shop and is not next to X.
(iii) X and Z get diagonally opposite shops.
(iv) W which is next to Z gets a South-facing shop and Y gets a North-facing shop.
Q.71. Whose shop is between V and X?
(A) Z (B) Y (C) W (D) U

Q.72. The shops of which of the other pairs, apart from X and Z are diagonally opposite to each
other?
(A) U and Y (B) V and U (C) V and W (D) Y and X
Directions for Questions 73 - 74: Each question contains six statements followed by four sets of
combinations of three. Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.
Q.73. (i) Reena and Meena are sisters
(ii) Sisters are ofien known to quarrel -
(iii) Reena and Meena do not quarrel
(iv) All those who quarrel are sisters
(v) Reena and Meena quarrel often
(vi) Reena and Meena cannot be sisters
(A) (ii)-(iv)-(v) (B) (i)-(iv)-(vi) (C) (iii)-(iv)-(v) (D) (i)-(ii)-(v)
Q.74. (i) All crows are birds
(ii) All birds are not crows
(iii) All birds are warm blooded
(iv) All crows lay eggs
(v) All birds lay eggs
(vi) Crows are warm blooded
(A) (i)-(iv)-(v) (B) (ii)-(v)-(iv) (C) (i)-(ii)-(v) (D) (i)-(ii)-(vi)
Solutions for Q. 73-74:
73. Statement I is a UA, and statement ii is a PA, which should conclude in a UA or a PA.
Statement vi is a PA. Hence that is the answer. Also, Reena and Meena are a sub set of sisters,
and sisters and people who quarrel are intersecting sets. Hence it is possible that the set of Reena
and Meena intersect with people who quarrel. Hence the answer option is (D).
74. The answer is (D). Crows are a subset of birds, and birds are a subset of warm blooded.
Hence crows are a subset of warm blooded.
Directions for Questions 75 - 76: The statements in questions 75 - 76, when properly
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Select the most
logical order of the sentences in each case.
Q.75. (i) This is in large part due to the dominance of a view within the leadership literature,
popular management theory and the media that there is something special about leadership; (ii)
Leadership as a phenomenon, we are often told, transcends the everyday, the mundane and the
ordinary; (iii) Yet few studies have ventured into the everyday doing of leadership-particularly
within an educational setting; (iv) The need to conduct more detailed studies of leadership-inpractice
has long been recognized in both leadership studies and educational research;
(A) (iv)-(i)-(ii)-(iii) (B) (iv)-(iii)-(i)-(ii)
(C) (ii)-(iii)-(iv)-(i) (D) (ii)-(iv)-(iii)-(i)
Q.76. (i) Studies of successful marriages indicate that periods of fighting and turmoil require
a lot of love and passion as compensation for subversive episodes; (ii) Closely related is solid
evidence that marital satisfaction is positively related to reliance on constructive problem solving
strategies, mainly negotiation and compromise; (iii) A solid and substantial sense of connection
with other people requires a healthy balance between positive and negative feelings; (iv) In

effect, more positive than negative energy is required to sustain intimate relations over time;
(A) (iii)-(i)-(ii)-(iv) (B) (iii)-(ii)-(iv)-(i)
(C) (ii)-(i)-(iv)-(iii) (D) (ii)-(iii)-(iv)-(i)
Solution for the question 75-76:
75. Statement iv says that there is a need to conduct detailed studies of leader-in practice, and
statement iii says “yet few studies have ventured into everyday doing of leadership…”. Hence
it’s obvious that statement iii has to be preceded by iv. Only options (B) and (D) give us this
combination. However one cannot begin the passage with statement iv, and ii is a more logical
beginning, which is offered by option (D). Hence the answer option is (D). 76. Statement iii is
the most logical way to begin the passage, which is possible in option (A) and (B). However iii
cannot be followed by ii, but i is a logical continuation. Hence the answer is (A).
Directions for Questions 77-78: Each of the problems in this section contains a question and two
statements which are labeled as (1) and (2). Use the information provided in statement (1) and
(2) and the corresponding question to decide whether the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. For each problem, determine which of the following is the CORRECT alternative:
Q.77. Can we find out the value of the eleventh number in a set of eleven numbers, if
(1) the average of the first ten numbers in the set is given
(2) the average of all the eleven numbers is given
(A) (1) and (2) together are not sufficient
(B) (1) and (2) taken together are sufficient, but neither (1) alone, nor (2) alone is sufficient
(C) (1) alone is sufficient, but (2) alone is not sufficient
(D) (2) alone is sufficient, but (1) alone is not sufficient
Q.78. Can we find the relative speed of two trains with respect to each other, if
(1) the speed of the first train is 120% more than the speed of the second train
(2) the speed of the second train is 80 km/hr
(A) (1) and (2) together are not sufficient
(B) (1) and (2) taken together are sufficient, but neither (1) alone, nor (2) alone is sufficient
(C) (1) alone is sufficient, but (2) alone is not sufficient
(D) (2) alone is sufficient, but (1) alone is not sufficient
Q.79 In a meeting of board of directors of a company ridden with financial crisis, one of the
directors said, “I firmly believe that the only way to tide over the current financial crisis, due
to heavy erosion in profit, is to bring out a new series of product versions. Such actions on the
part of the company will meet the requirements of various market segments, thus raising the
sales volume and profit. I challenge anyone who disagrees with my opinion to prove why this
suggestion should not help the company to overcome the crisis.” The MOST EVIDENT logical
flaw in the director’s statement is that
(A) It fails to provide any statistical evidence in support of his contention
(B) It shifts the onus of proof to those who could object to his opinion
(C) It does not talk about employee dissatisfaction that might have put the company in the
current financial mess
(D) It works on the assumption that the only reason for erosion in profits is lack of large number
of product versions

Solution for the question 79:
The director believes that the erosion in profits can be rectified by introducing a new series of
product versions. However, nothing in his arguments suggests that the lack of product version
was the cause for the sales to plummet. Only option (D) brings out this flaw. Hence the answer
option is (D).
Q.80. A study reveals that software firms that do not make investments in training their
employees report high attrition rates and low employee productivity. Which one of the following
options, if true, would MOST WEAKEN this statement? (A) Studies regarding employee
turnover rates in manufacturing organizations have reported similar findings (B) Employeefriendly
policies in organizations help to improve commitment levels of employees (C) A high
correlation has been found between high salary levels and high employee productivity (D)
Organizations regularly lose their highly trained and productive employees to their competitors
Solution for the question 80:
The options (A), (B), (C) are totally irrelevant to the give argument. Option (D) says that
companies even lose highly trained and productive employees, hence neglecting the premise that
companies lose employees if they do not train them well. Hence the answer option is (D).

SECTION 3: QUANTITATIVE ABILITY (Questions 81-120)
Q.81 A textile manufacturing firm employs 50 looms. It makes fabrics for a branded company.
The aggregate sales value of the output of the 50 looms is Rs. 5,00,000 and the monthly
manufacturing expenses is Rs. 1,50,000. Assume that each loom contributes equally to the
sales and the manufacturing expenses are evenly spread over the number of looms. Monthly
establishment charges are Rs. 75,000. If one loom breaks down and remains idle for one month,
the decrease in profit is (A) Rs. 13000 (B) Rs. 10000 (C) 7000 (D) Rs. 5500
Q.82 Two straight lines can divide a circular disk into a maximum of 4 parts. Likewise, into how
many maximum parts can four straight lines divide a circular disk?
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 1
Q.84 In a family of husband, wife and a daughter, the sum of the husband’s age, twice the wife’s
age, and thrice the daughter’s age is 85; while the sum of twice the husband’s age, four times
the wife’s age, and six times the daughter’s age is 170. It is also given that the sum of five times
the husband’s age, ten times the wife’s age and fifteen times the daughter’s age equals 450. The
number of possible solutions, in terms of the ages of the husband, wife and the daughter, to this
problem is (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) infinitely many
Q.86 Ms. Rao paid equated monthly installments (EMI of Rs. 25,000 each in January and
February towards her home loan, whose outstanding principal amount was Rs. 10,00,000 in
December. Each EMI consists of interest on outstanding loan amount for the month and part
payment of the loan amount. If the interest on the loan is 12% per annum (interest is paid
monthly on the diminishing outstanding loan), the total amount of interest that was paid by Ms.
Rao in January and February was (A) Rs. 30,150 (B) Rs. 20,000 (C) 19,850 (D) Rs. 19,700


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