Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Graduate Trainee previous year question papers

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1 . Two coils in differential connection hav e self-inductance of 2 mH and 4 mH and a mutual inductance of
0.1 5 mH. The equiv alent inductance of the combination is
A. 5.7 mH
B. 5.85 mH
C. 6 mH
D. 6.1 5 mH.
2. Two point charges Q and -Q are located on two opposite corners of a square as shown in figure. If the
potential at the corner A is taken as 1 V, then the potential at B, the centre of the square will be
1. zero
2.
3. 1 V
4.
3. Optocouplers combine
A. SITs and BJTs
B. IGBTs and MOSFETS
C. Power transformers and silicon transistor
D. Infrared light-emitting diode and a silicon phototransistor
4. The difference between the indicated v alue and the true v alue of a quantity is known as
A. Gross error
B. Absolute error
C. Dy namic error
D. Relativ e error
5. The principles of homogeneity and super-position are applied to :
A. linear time v ariant sy stems
B. non-linear time v ariant sy stems
C. linear time inv ariant sy stems
D. non-linear time inv ariant sy stems.
6. In a 8085 microprocessor sy stem with memory mapped I / 0,
A. I / 0 dev ices hav e 8-bit addresses
B. I / 0 dev ices are accessed using IN and OUT instructions
C. there can be a max imum of 256 input dev ices and 256 output dev ices.
D. arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with the I / 0 data.
7 . The transistor shown in figure below, is biased
1. at cut-off
2. at saturation
3. well into saturation
4. well into cut-off
8. In any transmitting antenna sy stem, efficiency primarily depends upon
A. ohmic losses of v arious conductors
B. radiation resistance
C. ground conductiv ity
D. atmospheric conditions.
9. An instruction used to set the carry Flag in a computer can be classified as
A. data transfer
B. arithmetic
C. logical
D. program control
1 0. The binary representation of 5.37 5 is
A. 1 1 1 .1 01 1
B. 1 01 .1 1 01
C. 1 01 .01 1
D. 1 1 1 .001
1 1 . Dislocations in materials are
A. point defect
B. line defect
C. planer defect
D. surface defects.
1 2. In TV sy stem, v ertical pulses are separated out from horizontal pulses by the use of
A. integrator
B. differentiator
C. sweep credit
D. sy nc separator.
1 3. Frequency in the UHF range propagate by means of
A. Ground wav es
B. Sky wav es
C. Surface wav es
D. Space wav es.
1 4. 200 MHz may be classified as
A. VHF
B. SHF
C. UHF
D. EHF
1 5. A communication satellite is a repeater between
A. a transmitting station and a receiv ing station
B. a transmitting station and many receiv ing stations
C. many transmitting stations and many receiv ing stations
D. none of the abov e
1 6. The power in a series R-L-C circuit will be half of that at resonance when the magnitude of the current is
equal to
A. V / 2R
B. V /
C. V /
D.
1 7 . A point charge Q is located on the surface of a sphere of radius R as shown in the figure. The av erage
electric field on the surface of the sphere will be
1. infinite
2.
3.
4. Zero
1 8. The efficiency of a chopper can be ex pected in the range
A. 50 to 55 percent
B. 65 to 7 2 percent
C. 82 to 87 percent
D. 92 to 99 percent
1 9. Which one out of the following instruments should be used to measure 600 kV a.c. v oltages?
A. Hot wire instrument
B. Electrostatic v oltmeter
C. Mov ing coil v oltmeter
D. Mov ing iron v oltmeter.
20.
Which one of the following transfer functions represents the Bode plot shown in the abov e figure :
1.
2.
3.
4.
21 . The following programme is run on an 8085 microprocessor,
Memory address in Hex Instruction
2000 LXI SP, 1 000
2003 PUSH H
2004 PUSH D
2005 CALL 2050
2008 POP 2050
2009 HIT
As the completion of ex ecution of the program, the program the program counter of the 8085 contains ………,
and the stack pointer contains ……..
1. 2050, OFFC
2. 2251 , OFFC
3. 1 025, OCCF
4. 1 025, OCCF
22. With reference to figure, v alue of VCE is
1. 0 V
2. 5 V
3. -5V
4. none of the abov e
23. The smallest change in sound intensity that can be detected
A. 1 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 1 0 dB
D. 20 dB.
24. In a generic microprocessor, instruction cy cle time is
A. shorter than machine cy cle time
B. larger than machine cy cle time
C. ex actly double the machine cy cle time
D. ex actly the same as the machine cy cle time
25. The v alue of M in the end will be
Do 1 00 I = 1 , 2
DO 200 J = 1 , 2
M = M + I + J
200 CONTINUE
1 00 CONTINUE
STOP
END
1. 1 0
2. 1 1
3. 1 2
4. 1 4
26. Resistiv ity of electrical conductors is most affected by
A. temperature
B. pressure
C. composition
D. all of the abov e.
27 . In CCIR B-sy stem of TV, blanking pulse is placed during
A. equalizing pulse
B. retrace interv al between each line
C. retrace period of v ertical line
D. none of the abov e.
28. The polarization required in ground wav e propagation is
A. Horizontal (linear)
B. v ertical (linear)
C. Circular
D. Elliptical
29. Multicav ity Kly stron
A. is not a microwav e dev ice
B. is not a good low lev el amplifier because of noise
C. is not suitable to pulse operation
D. has a high repeller v oltage to insure small transit time
30. Transponder comprises of
A. Transmitter
B. Receiv er
C. Antenna
D. a, b, c combined
31 . Consider the following statements regarding the circuit shown in the giv en figure :
1 . If the switch K is closed at a proper instant there will be no transient
2. The instant at which K is closed such that the transient is zero depends on the frequency of the supply
3. The instant at which K is closed such that the transient is zero depends on the circuit elements
4. There will alway s be a non-zero transient after the switch K is colosed.
Of these statements :
1. 1 alone is correct.
2. 1 and 2 are correct.
3. 1 and 3 are correct
4. 4 alone is correct.
32. A circular ring carry ing a uniformly distributed charge Q and a point charges -Q on the ax is of the ring
are shown in the fig. The magnitude of the dipole moment of the charge sy stem is
1. Qd
2. Q R2 / d
3. Q
4. QR.
33. Which of the following regulator prov ides output v oltage polarity rev ersal without a transformer
A. Buck regulator
B. Boost regulator
C. Buck-boost regulator
D. Cuk regulator
34. The deflection of hot wire instrument depends on
A. RMS v alue of alternating current
B. v oltage
C. av erage v alue of a.c. current
D. instantaneous v alue of a.c. current.
35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes giv en below the Lists :
List-I List-II
(Response to a unit step input) (Location of poles in the s-plane)
1. 1 .One at the origin
B. 2.Two identical roots on the negativ e real ax is.
C. 3.Two on the imaginary ax is
D. 4.One on the position real ax is.
Codes:
A B C D
A. 4 3 2 1
B. 3 4 1 2
C. 3 4 2 1
D. 4 3 2 1
36. Dual slope integration ty pe Analog-to-Digital conv erters prov ide
A. higher speeds compared to all other ty pes of A / D conv erters
B. v ery good accuracy without putting ex treme requirements on component stability
C. poor rejection of power supply hums
D. better resolution compared to all other ty pes of A / D conv erters for the same number
of bits.
37 . In the figure giv en below, the collector current is
2 mA
200 mA
Almost zero
0.02 mA
38. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly
A. 250 - 300 MHz
B. 1 50 - 200 MHz
C. 90 - 1 05 MHz
D. 30 - 7 0 MHz
39. A 32 bit microprocessor has the word length equal to
A. 2 by tes
B. 1 by te
C. 4 by tes
D. 8 by tes
40. In electronic microcircuits, a resistor may be fabricated from constant-thickness lay er of
semiconductor material with conductor connections at the edges as shown below. If the resistor shown has
resistance R, then a similar resistor 0.2 millimeter has a resistance of
4 R
2 R
R
R / 2
41 . Line imperfection in a cry stal is called
A. Schottky defect
B. Frenkel defect
C. edge dislocation
D. Miller defect.
42. The function of diplex er bridge in a TV transmitter is
A. to prev ent the loading of sev eral transmitters by v ideo transmitter
B. to increase the bandwidth
C. to increase the power output
D. to increase the efficiency of transmission.
43. Sometimes microwav e signals follow the earth’s curv ature. This due to
A. Ionospheric reflection
B. Faraday rotation
C. Ducting
D. Ionospheric scatter.
44. The modes in a reflex Kly stron
A. giv e the same frequency but different transit time
B. result from ex cessiv e transit time across the resonator gap
C. are caused by spurious frequency modulation
D. are just for theoretical considerations.
45. The capacity of a channel is
A. number of digits used in coding
B. v olume of information it can take
C. max imum rate of information transmission
D. bandwidth required for information
Solution
1 .A. When two inductors are connected in series, the effectiv e inductance is
Leff = L1 + L2± 2 m.
In this case, Leff = L1 + L2 - 2 M
= 2 + 4 - 2 × 0.1 5
= 5.7 mH.
2.C. The plane midway between a and -a, i.e., the one passing through ABC and perpendicular to the plane of
the paper is an equipotential plane. Hence the potential at B is the same as that of A or C, i.e., 1 V.
3.D. In optocouplers the input signal is applied to the ILED and the output is takes from the phototransistor.
These are used to isolate the gate signals from the power circuit.
4.C. The difference between the indicated v alue and the true v alue of a quantity is known as dy namic error.
5.C. The Principles of homogeneity and superposition are applied to linear time inv ariant sy stems.
6.D. In an 8085 microprocessor sy stem with memory mapped I / 0 arithmetic and logic operations can be
directly performed with I / 0 data.
7 .B. Neglecting VBE, IB = 1 0 / 1 00 = 0.1 A.
IC = 1 00 × 0.1 = 1 0 A. Drop ov er RL = 1 0 v .
Hence, VCE = 0 which is the condition for saturation.
8.B.
whereRr is radiation resistance and Rd is the total loss resistance of the antenna.
9.B. Arithmetic
1 0.C. 1 01 .001 = (4 + 0 + 1 )
(0 + 0.25 + 0.1 25)
= 5.37 5
1 1 .B. Dislocations in materials are line defects.
1 2.A. Integrator.
1 3.D. Frequency in the UHF Range propagate by means of space wav es.
1 4.A. VHF.
1 5.C. a communication satellite is a repeater between many transmitting stations and many receiv ing
stations.
1 6.C. V / Ö2 R
1 7 .C. The point charge Q emanates a total electric displacement flux of Q. If a plane is passed through the
point of location of charge and tangential to the sphere, half the flux is on one side and half on the other. The
first half of flux is passing through the spherical surface. Thus the av erage displacement density has a
direction opposite to that of n and the magnitude is
\ Av erage electric
field is :
Eav =
1 8.D. The efficiency of a practical chopper v aries from 92 to 99 percent.
1 9.B. Electrostatic v oltmeter should be used to measure 600 kV a.c. v oltage.
20.A. it can easily be checked that the corresponding function is
G (s) = (1 - s) / (1 + s)
It is seen immediately that | G (jw) |
= 1 and hence gain is db = 0.
21 .A. Memory address in hex Instruction Remarks
2000 LXI SP 1 000
2003 PUSH H
2004 PUSH D We do not
2005 CALL 2025 know the
contents of
subroutine
at 2050.
2006 50
2007 20
2008 POP H
2009 HALT
At the completion of the ex ecution of the program, the program counter of the 8085 contains 2050 and the
stack pointer contains OFFC.
22.B. Neglecting, VBE
=
23.B. Increase = 1 0 log1 0 P2 / P1 = 1 0 log1 02
= 1 0 × 0.3 = 3dB.
24.D. Instruction cy cle time is ex actly the same as the machine cy cle time.
25.C. Taking index of I = 1 and M = 0 computing the v alue of M with
J = 1 , 2
J = 1
M = 0 + 1 + 1 = 2
J = 2
M = 2 + 1 + 2 = 4
Taking index of I = 2 and computing the v alue of M with J = 1 , 2
J = 1
M = 5 + 2 + 1 = 8
J = 2
M = 1 + 2 + 2 = 1 2
26.A. Resistiv ity of electrical conductors is most affected by temperature.
27 .B. In CCIR B-sy stem of TV, blanking pulse is placed during retrace interv al between each line
28.B. The polarization required in ground wav e propagation is v ertical (linear).
29.A. Multicav ity Kly stron is not a good low lev el amplifier because of noise.
30.D. Transponder comprises of transmitter, receiv er and antenna.
31 .C. If the switch is closed at instant t = to, the complete ex pression for current will be
The transient is zero if wt0 + q - f = 0
or t0 = (f - q) / w
Thus it is possible to find to such that there is no transient. Further to depends upon the circuit parameters
and the frequency .
So, the statements 1 and 3 are true.
32.A. For points far away , the charge on the ring may be considered to be located be at the centre of the ring.
Hence, the dipole moment becomes Qd.
33.C. a puck-boost regulator prov ides on output v oltage which may be less than or greater than the input
v oltage. The output v oltage polarity is opposite to that of the input v oltage. It has high efficiency .
34.A. The deflection of hot wire instrument depends on RMS v alue of alternating current.
35.A. Considering that there are poles of H (s), then
H1 (s) =
H3 (s) =
The impulse responses [a-1 H (s)] can be found and the step response are integrations of the
corresponding impulse responses.
36.B. Dual slope integration ty pe A to D conv erters are of slow speed and require more number of bits, than
successiv e approx imation ADC.
37 .C. Since emitter and base hav e same polarity and same potential, EBJ is not biased property . Hence, IB is
zero and so is IC.
38.C. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly 90 - 1 05 MHz.
39.C. 4 by tes.
40.C. Resistance will be directly proportional to length and inv ersely proportional to the cross-sectional
area. Let t mm be the thickness of semi-conductor material so that the cross-sectional area for R ohm resistor
is 0.1 × t sq. mm and length of semi - conductor material 0.1 mm.
For a 0.2 mm × 0.2 mm section, cross - sectional area = 0.2 × t sq. mm. Length = 0.2 mm
Hence, resistance,
= R =
41 .C. Line imperfection in a cry stal is called edge dislocation.
42.A. The function of diplex er bridge in a TV transmitter is to prev ent the loading of sev eral transmitters by
v ideo transmitter.
43.C. Sometimes microwav e signals follow the earth’s curv ature. This is due to ducting.
44.A. The modes in a reflex Kly stron giv e the same frequency but different transit time.
45.C. The capacity of a channel is max imum rate of information transmission
Mechanical-Engineering MT 2009
A definite area or space where some thermody namic process takes place is known as
A thermody namic sy stem B thermody namic cy cle
C thermody namic process D thermody namic law
2. Which of the following is an intensiv e property of a thermody namic sy stem?
A v olume B Temperature
C mass D energy
3. Temperature at which the v olume of the gas becomes 0 is called
A absolute scale of temperature B absolute 0 temperature
C absolute temperature D none of these
4. The unit of energy in SI units is
A joule B joule metre
C watt D joule/metre
5. 1 joule is equal to
A 1 Nm B kNm
C 1 0 Nm/s D 1 0 kNm/s
6. In an irrev ersible process there is a
A loss of heat B no loss of heat
C gain of heat D no gain of heat
7 . The following is an SI engine
A diesel engine B petrol engine
C gas engine D none of the abov e
8. In a 4 stroke cy cle petrol engine during suction stroke
A only air is sucked in B only petrol is sucked in
C mix ture of petrol and air is sucked in
D none of the abov e
9. The thermal efficiency of petrol engine as compared to diesel engine is
A lower B higher
C same for same power output D same for same speed
1 0. Compression ratio of diesel engines may hav e a range
A 8 to 1 0 B 1 0 to 1 5
C 1 6 to 20 D none of the abov e
1 1 The thermal efficiency of good I.C engine at the rated load is in the range of
A 80 to 90% B 60 to 7 0%
C 30 to 35% D 1 0 to 20%
1 2 Carburettor is used for
A SI engines B gas engines
C CI engines D none of the abov e
1 3 In SI engine to dev elop high v oltage for spark plug
A battery is installed B distributor is installed
C carburetor is installed D ignition coil is installed
1 4 In a four cy linder petrol engine the standard firing order is
A 1 -2-3-4 B 1 -4-3-2
C 1 -3-2-4 D 1 -3-4-2
1 5 The knocking is SI engines increases with
A increase in inlet air temperature B increase in compression ratio
C increase in cooling water temperature D all of the abov e
1 6 Petrol commercially av ailable in India for Indian passenger cars has octane
number in the range
A 40 to 50 B 60 to 7 0
C 80 to 85 D 95 to 1 00
1 7 The knocking tendency in C.I engines increases with
A decrease of compression ratio B increase of compression ratio
C increasing the temperature of inlet air D increasing cooling water
temperature
1 8 The air standard otto cy cle comprises
A two constant pressure processes and two constant v olume processes
B two constant pressure and two constant entropy processes
C two constant v olume processes and two constant entropy processes
D none of the abov e
1 9 The thermal efficiency of theoretical otto cy cle
A increases with increase in compression ratio
B increases with increase in isentropic index gamma
1. C does not depend upon the pressure ratio
D follows of the abov e
20 Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine plant has compared to diesel engine plant is
A higher B lower
C same D may be higher or lower
21 Mechanical efficiency of a gas turbine as compared to internal combustion
Reciprocating engine is
A higher B lower
C same D unpredictable
22 For a gas turbine the pressure ratio may be in the range
A 2 to 3 B 3 to 5
C 1 6 to 1 8 D 1 8 to 22
23 Thermal efficiency of a closed cy cle gas turbine plant increases by
A reheating B intercooling
C regenerator D all of the abov e
24With the increase in pressure ratio thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine
Plant with fix ed turbine inlet temperature
A decreases B increases
C first increases and then decreases D first decreases and then increases
25In two stage turbine plant, reheating after first stage
A increases work ratio B decreases work ratio
C does not affect work ratio D none of the abov e
26For a jet propulsion unit , ideally the compressor work and turbine work are
A equal B unequal
C not related to each other D unpredictable
27 Various kinematic pairs are giv en below.choose the lower pair
A ball bearings B tooth gears in mesh
C camm and follower D crank shaft and bearing
28The relation between the number of pairs forming a kinematic chain and the
Number of links is
A l=2p-2 B l=2p-3
C l=2P-4 D l=2p-5
29In a reciprocating engine
A crankshaft and fly wheel form 2 kinematic links
B crankshaft and fly wheel form 1 kinematics links
C crankshaft and fly wheel do not form kinematic links
D fly wheel and crankshaft separately form kinematic links
30A kinematic chain is known as a mechanism when
A none of the link is fix ed
B one of the links is fix ed
C two of the links are fix ed
D all of the links are fix ed
31 Which of the following is an inv ersion of single slider crank chain?
A beam engine
B watt’s indicator mechanism
C elliptical trammels
D whitworth quick return motion mechanism
32 control v olumes refer to
A a fix ed region in space
B a specified mass
C an isolated sy stem
D a closed sy stem
33An isentropic process is alway s
A irrev ersible and adiabatic
B rev ersible and isothermal
C friction less and irrev ersible
D rev ersible and adiabatic
34Work done in a free ex pansion process is
A 0
B minimum
C max imum
D positiv e
35.The figure shows a pin-jointed plane truss loaded at the point M by hanging a mass of 1 00 kg. The
member LN of the truss is subjected to a load of?
(a) 0 Newton
(b)490 Newtons in compression
(c)981 Newtons in compression
(d) 981 Newtons in tension
36.In terms of.Poisson’s ratio (v ) the ratio of Y oung’s Modulus (E) to Shear Modulus (G) of elastic materials is
?
(a)2(1 + v )
(b) 2(1 — v )
(c)(1 + v )/2
(d)(1 — v )/2
37 . Two mating spur gears hav e 40 and 1 20 teeth respectiv ely . The pinion rotates at
1 200 rpm and transmits a torque of 2O N. m. The torque transmitted by the gear is
(a) 6.6 Nm
(b) 20 Nm
(c) 40 Nm
(d) 60 Nm
38. The figure shows the state of stress at a certain point in a stressed body . The magnitudes of normal stresses
in the x and y direction are 1 00 MPa and 20 MPa respectiv ely . The radius of Mohr’s stress circle representing
this state of stress is
(a)1 20
(b)80
(c)60
(d)40
39.For a mechanism shown below, the mechanical adv antage for the giv en configuration is?
(a)0
(b) 0.5
(c)1 .0
(d)Infinity
40.A v ibrating machine is isolated from the floor using springs. If the ratio of ex citation frequency of
v ibration of machine to the natural frequency of the isolation sy stem is equal to 0.5, the transmissibility of
ratio of isolation is
(a)1 /2
(b)3/4
(c)4/3
(d)2
41 . A torque of 1 0 Nm is transmitted through a stepped shaft as shown in figure.
The torsional stiffnesses of indiv idual sections of lengths MN, NO and OP are 20 Nm/rad 30 Nm/rad and 60
Nm respectiv ely . The angular deflection between the ends M and P of the shaft is?
(a) 0.5 rad
(b) 1 .0 rad
(c) 5.0 rad
(d) 1 0.0 rad
42.
43. The S-N curv e for steel becomes asy mptotic nearly at
(a)1 0 3 cy cles
(b) 1 0 4 cy cles
(c)1 0 6 cy cles
(d) 1 0 9 cy cles
44. In the window air conditioner, the ex pansion dev ice used is
(a)capillary tube
(b) thermostatic ex pansion v alv e
(c)automatic ex pansion v alv e
(d) float v alv e
45. During chemical de-humidification process of air
(a) dry bulb temperature and specific humidity decrease
(b) dry bulb temperature increases and specific humidity decreases
(c) dry bulb temperature decreases and specific humidity increases
(d) dry bulb temperature and specific humidity increase
46.An incompressible fluid (kinematic v iscosity , 7 .4 x 1 0-7 m2 /s, specific grav ity , 0.88) is held between two
parallel plates. If the top.plate is mov ed with a v elocity of 0.5 rn/s while the bottom one is held stationary , the
fluid attains a linear v elocity profile in the gap of 0.5 mm between these plates; the shear stress in Pascals on
the surface of top plate is ?
(a)0.651 x 1 0 -3
(b) 0.651
(c)6.51
(d) 0.651 x 1 03
47 .Env ironment friendly refrigerant R1 34a is used in the new generation domestic refrigerators. Its chemical
formula is ?
(a)CH ClF2
(b) C2 Cl 3F3
(c)C2 Cl 2F4
(d) C2 H2F4
48.
(a)x —2y =0
(b) 2x +y =0
(c)2x —y =0
(d) x +2y =0
49. A gas contained in a cy linder is compressed, the work required for compression being 5000 kJ. During the
process, heat interaction of 2000 kJ causes the surroundings to the heated. The change in internal energy of
the gas during the process is
(a)—7 000kJ
(b) —3000kJ
(c)+ 3000 kJ
(d) + 7 000 kJ
50.The compression ratio of a gas power plant cy cle corresponding to max imum work output for the giv en
temperature limits of Tmin and Tmax will be
51 .
(a)1 0 microns
(b) 20 microns
(c)30 microns
(d) 60 microns
51 .
(a) circular Interpolation — clockwise
(b) circular Interpolation — counterclockwise
(c) linear Interpolation
(d) rapid feed
52. The mechanism of material remov al in EDM process is
(a) Melting and Ev aporation
(b) Melting and Corrosion
(c) Erosion and Cav itation
(d) Cav itation and Ev aporation
53. Two 1 mm thick steel sheets are to be spot welded at a current of 5000 A. Assuming, effectiv e resistance to
be 200 micro-ohms and current flow time of 0.2 second, heat generated during the process will be
(a)0.2 Joule
(b) 1 Joule
(c)5 Joule
(d) 1 000 Joules
54. In PERT analy sis a critical activ ity has
(a)max imum Float
(b) zero Float
(c)max imum Cost
(d) minimum Cost
55. For a product, the forecast and the actual sales for December 2002 were 25 and 20 respectiv ely . If the
ex ponential smoothing constant (a) is taken as 0.2, the forecast sales for January 2003 would be ?
(a)21
(b)23
(c)24
(d) 27
56. Misrun is a casting defect which occurs due to
(a) v ery high pouring temperature of the metal
(b) insufficient fluidity of the molten metal
(c) absorption of gases by the liquid metal
(d) improper alignment of the mould flasks
57 . The percentage of carbon in gray cast iron is in the range of
(a)0.25 to 0.7 5 percent
(b) 1 .25 to 1 .7 5 percent
(c)3 to 4 percent
(d) 8 to 1 0 percent
58.In the figure shown,
the relativ e v elocity of link1 with respect to link 2 is 1 2 m/sec. Link 2 rotates at a constant speed of 1 20 rpm.
The magnitude of Coriolis component of aceeleration of link 1 is
(a)302 m/s2
(b)604 m/s2
(c)906 m/s2
(d) 1 208 m/s2
59. The figure below shows a planar mechanism with single degree of freedom.
The instant center 24 for the giv en configuration is located at a position ?
(a) L
(b) M
(c) N
(d)Infinity
60.A uniform stiff rod of length 200 mm and hav ing a weight of 300 N is piv oted at one end and connected to
a spring at the other end.
For keeping the rod v ertical in a stable position the minimum v alue of spring constant K needed is ?
(a) 300 N/m
(b) 400 N/m
(c) 500 N/m
(d) 1 000 N/m
61 . In a bolted joint two members are connected with an ax ial tightening force of 2200 N.
If the bolt used has metric threads of 4 mm pitch, the torque required for achiev ing the tightening force is?
(a)0.7 Nm
(b)1 .0 Nm
(c)1 .4 Nm
(d) 2.8 Nm


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Hi I am preparing for the Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Graduate Trainee exam so provide me the previous year question paper of this exam?

[Arun Vats]

Ok, as you want the question paper of Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Graduate Trainee exam so here I am providing you.

ONGC Graduate Trainee exam question paper

ONGC GT Civil Engineering
1. Which one of the following tests is performed in the laboratory to determine the extent of
weathering of aggregates for road works?
(a) Soundness test
(b) Crushing test
(c) Impact test
(d) Abrasion test
Ans. (a)
2. Which one of the following geometric features requires the magnitudes of weaving angle and
weaving distance for its design?
(a) Rotary design
(b) Right-angle intersection
(c) Roundabout
(d) Grade-separated junction
Ans. (a)
3. Which one of the following methods is used in the design of rigid pavements?
(a) CBR method
(b) Group index method
(c) Westergaard’s method
(d) McLeod’s method
Ans. (c)
4. In which one of the following yards, are reception, sorting and dispatch of railway wagons
done?
(a) Loco yard
(b) Marashalling yard
(c) Goods yard
(d) Passenger yard
Ans. (b)
5. Which one of the following is not a desirable property of the subgrade soil as a highway
meterial?
(a) Stability
(b) Ease of compaction
(c) Good drainage
(d) Bitumen adhesion
Ans. (d)
6. Consider the following statements:
In surverying operations, the word ‘reciprocal’ can be associated with
1. ranging
2. levelling
3. contouring
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
7. How many- sidereal days are there in a solar year?
(a) 365.2840
(b) 366.2422
(c) 360.2500
(d) 365.0000
Ans. (b)
8. Consider the following statements
A sidereal year can be defined as the time interval:
1. between two successive transits .of the sun through the meridian of any of the fixed stars
2. between two successive passages of the sun through perigee
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 only
Ans. (b)
9. Which one of the following methods of computing area assumes that the short, lengths of the
boundary between the ordinates
are parabolic ares?
(a) Average ordinate rule
(b) Middle ordinate rule
(c) Simpson’s rule
(d) Trapezoidal rule
Ans. (c)
10. Which one the following errors is more severe in plane-table surveying?
(a) Defective sighting
(b) Defective orientation
(c) Movement of board between sights
(d) Non-horizontality of board when points sighted are at large differences of their elevation .
Ans. (b)
11. Which one of the following sets of factors is related to design of thickness rigid pavement by
Westergaard method?
(a) CBR value and stiffness index of soil
(b) Deflection factor and traffic index
(c) Swelling index and bulk modulus
(d) Radius of relative stiffness and modulus of subgrade reaction
Ans. (d)
12. Consider the following in relation to group index of soil:
1. Liquid limit
2. Sandy loam
3. Plasticity index
4. Per cent passing 75 microns sieve
Which of the above is/are used for estimating the group index?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
13. Which set of traffic functional design as well as for ‘highway capacity’ design?
(a) Origin and destination studies
(b) Parking and accident studies
(c) Speed and volume studies
(d) Axle load studies
Ans. (a)
14. Which one of the following traffic survey schemes is most relevant when deciding on
locating major ‘routes’ in a city?
(a) Traffic volume survey
(b) Origin and destination survey
(c) Speed survey
(d) Traffic capacity survey
Ans. (b)
15. Which one of the following equipments is useful in determining spot speed in traffic
engineering?
(a) Endoscope
(b) Periscope
(c) Radar
(d) Tachometer
Ans. (c)
16. Hot bitumen is sprayed over freshly constructed bituminous surface followed by spreading of
6.3 mm coarse aggregates
and rolled. Which one of the following is indicated by this type of construction?
(a) Surface dressing
(b) Gravel-bitumen mix
(c) Liquid seal coat
(d) Seal coat
Ans. (a)
17. Radius of relative stiffness of cement concrete pavement does not depend upon which one of
the following?
(a) Modulus of subgrade reaction
(b) Wheel load
(c) Modulus of elasticity of cement concrete
(d) Poisson’s ratio of concrete
Ans. (b)
18. For conditions obtaining in India, at which location in a cement concrete payement will the
combined stresses due to traffic
wheel studies is needed for well as for ‘highway load and temperature have to be critically
checked during design?
(a) Corner
(b) Corner and interior
(c) Corner and edge
(d) Corner, edge and interior
Ans. (d)
19. Consider the following factors:
1. The change in the shape and size of the channel cross-section
2. The change in the slope of the channel
3. The presence of obstruction
4. The change in the frictional forces at the boundaries
Which of the above factors would cause a gradually varied flow?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (a)
20. Under which one of the following categories is the river Ganga classified in the reach
through UP and Bihar?
(a) Straight river
(b) Meandering river
(c) Braided river
(d) Deltaic river
Ans. (b)
21. Which of the following categories best describes the Hirakud reservoir?
(a) Reservoir for irrigation and power
(b) Reservoir for flood control, power and irrigation
(c) Reservoir for irrigation and water supply
(d) Reservoir for recreation and fishery
Ans. (b)
22.. During a particular stage of the growth of a crop, consumptive use of water is 2.8 mm/day. If
the amount of water available
in the soil is 25% of 80 mm depth of water what is the frequency of irrigation?
(a) 9 days
(b) 13 days
(c) 21 days
(d) 25 days
Ans. (c)
23.. Consider the following statements:
Irrigation water has to be supplied to the crops when the moisture level falls
1. below field capacity
2. to wilting point
3. below wilting point
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
24.. A groundwater basin consists of 10 km2 area of plains. The maximum groundwater table
fluctuation has been observed
to be 1.5 m. Consider specific yield of the basin as 10%. What is the available groundwater
storage in million cubic metres?
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.5
(d) 2.0
Ans. (b)
25. Consider the following chemical emulsions:
1. Methyl alcohol
2. Cetyl alcohol
3. Stearyl alcohol
4. Kerosene
Which of the above chemical emulsions is/are used to minimize the loss of water through the
process of evaporation?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
26. A catchment area of 60 ha has a runoff coefficient of 0.40. If a storm of intensity 3cm h and
duration longer than the time
of concentration occurs in the catchment, then what is the peak discharge?
(a) 2.0 m3/s
(b) 3.5 m3/s
(c) 4.5 m3/s
(d) 2.5 m3/s
Ans. (a)
27. Which combination of surface water quality parameters will indicate sweep coagulation as
the preferred mechanism of coagulation?.
(a) High turbidity — low alkalinity
(b) High turbidity — high alkalinity
(c) Low turbidity — high alkalinity
(d) Low turbidity — low alkalinity
Ans. (b)
28. In a canal irrigation project, 76% of the culturable command area (CCA) remained without
water during Kharif season; and
58% of CCA remained without water during Rabi season in a particular year. Rest of the areas
got irrigated in each crop
respectively. What is the intensity of irrigation for the project in that year?
(a) 134%
(b) 76%
(c) 66%
(d) 58%
Ans. (b)
29. What is the critical combination of vertical and horizontal earthquake accelerations to be
considered for checking the stability
of a gravity dam in reservoir full condition?
(a) Vertically upward and horizontally downstream
(b) Vertically upward and horizontally upstream
(c) Vertically downward and horizontally upstream
(d) Vertically downward and horizontally downstream
Ans. (d)
30. What is the height of wave which is likely to be generated by a wind of 80 km/hr in a
reservoir having a fetch of 50 km:
(a) 0.5m
(b) 1.0 m
(c) 2.0 m
(d) 3.0 m
Ans. (c)
31. Consider the following statements:
1. Giving equal weightings to horizontal and vertical creeps for design of weir foundations is one
of the drawbacks of Kennedy’s theory.
2. Khosla’s theory of design of foundations for weirs is based on potential theory.
3. Piping problem can be reduced by increasing the length of floor.
4. In Lane’s weighted creep theory, horizontal creep is given less weightage compared to vertical
creep.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (b)
32. The power transmitted through a pipeline is maximum when the head lost due to friction in
the pipe is equal to:
(a) the total supply head
(b) half of the total supply head
(c) one-third of the total supply head
(d) one-fourth of the total supply head
Ans. (c)
33. Consider the following with respect to the application of the Navier-Stokes equations:
1. Laminar flown in circular pipes
2. Laminar flow between concentric rotating cylinders
3. Laminar unidirectional flow between stationary parallel plates
4. Laminary unit directional flow between parallel plates having relative motion
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only.
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
34. In a siphon system employed for carrying water from a reservoir A at a higher elevation to
another reservoir B at lower elevation, both
being separated by a higher hill, what will be the pressure at the ‘Summit’ (S)?
(a) Equal to the pressure at the water surface of reservoir A
(b) Higher than the pressure at the water surface of reservoir A
(c) Equal to the pressure at the water surface of reservoir B
(d) Less than the pressure at both A and B above
Ans. (d)
35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
A. Rehbock formula 1. Sutro weir
B. Francis formula 2. Rectangular suppressed weir
C. A special trapezoidal weir 3. Rectangular side- contracted weir
D. Linear proportional weir 4. Cippolletti weir
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans. (d)
36. Consider the following statements related to undersluices provided in diversion weirs on
permeable foundations:
I. They are fully gate-controlled and have crest at the same level as the weir crest when no silt
excluders are provided.
2. They scour the silt deposited on the river bed in the pockets upstream of the canal head
regulator.
3. It is not necessary to provide end pile line on the downstream end of the undersluice floor.
4. The discharge capacity of the undersluice is 10-15% of the maximum flood or two times the
maximum discharge of the offtaking canal or
maximum winter discharge, whichever is the highest.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (b)
37. What is the theoretical oxygen demand of 300 mg/L glucose solution?
(a) 300 mg/L
(b) 320 mg/L
(c) 350 mg/L
(d) 400 mg/L
Ans. (b)
38. Consider the following:
1. Force on pipe bends and transitions
2. Jet propulsion
3. Flow velocities in open channel
4. Vortex flow
Which of the above admit employing the moment of momentum equation?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
39. Consider the following statements:
1. Shear stress is maximum at the centre line.
2. Maximum velocity is 3\2 times the average velocity
3. Discharge varies inversely with the coefficient of viscosity.
4. Slope of hydraulic gradient line increases linearly with the velocity of flow.
Which of the above statements are correct in connection with a steady laminar flow through a
circular pipe?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4
Ans. (b)
40. Consider the following statements:
Cavitation generally results from a combination of several influences
1. by reduction of pressure intensity below a limiting value
2. by increase in either elevation or the velocity of flow
3. by reduction of pressure load in the system
4. by decrease in the velocity of flow
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
41. What is Hydrological Cycle?
(a) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture from sea to land
(b) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture from sea back again
(c) Processes involved in the transfer of water from snowmelt in mountains
(d) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture from sea to land and back to sea again
Ans. (d)
42. Consider the following with respect to a double-mass curve:
I. Plot of accumulated rainfall with respect to two chronological orders
2. Plot for estimating multiple missing rainfall data
3. Plot for checking the consistency of the rainfall data
4. Plot of accumulated annual rainfall of a station vs. accumulated rainfall of a group of stations
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (c)
43. Generally to estimate PMP, Pm = 42. 16D0.475 is used (Pm is maximum depth of
precipitation, D = duration). What are the units of Pm and D in the equation?
(a) mm, sec
(b) cm, sec
(ë) mm, hr
(d) cm, hr
Ans. (d)
44. A triangular direct runoff hydrograph due to a storm has a time base of 60 hr and a peak flow
of 30m3/s occurring at 20 hr
from the start. If the catchment area is 300 km2, what is the rainfall excess in the storm?
(a) 50 mm
(b) 20 mm
(c) 10.8 mm
(d) 8.3 mm
Ans. (c)
45. A 3 hr unit hydrograph U1 of a catchment of area 235 km2 is in the form of a triangle with
peak discharge 30 m3/s. Another
3 hr unit hydrograph U2 is also triangular in shape and has the same base width as U1, but has a
peak flow of 90 m3/s. What
is the catchment area of U2?
(a) 117.5 km2
(b) 235 km2
(c) 470 km2
(d) 705 km2
Ans. (d)
46. While selecting a centrifugal pump for your requirement of head and discharge on the basis
of its performance characteristics,
which one of the following criteria is to be adopted?
(a) Head, discharge and efficiency
(b) Head and discharge only
(c) Discharge only
(d) Head only
Ans. (a)
47. Consider the following statements:
The function of the impeller in a centrifugal pump is to:
1. Convert the pressure energy into hydraulic energy
2. Convert the hydraulic energy into mechanical energy
3. Convert the mechanical energy into hydraulic energy
4. transform most of the kinetic energies to pressure energy
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
48. A centrifugal pump gives maximum efficiency when its impeller blades are
(a) bent forward
(b) bent backward
(c) straight
(d) wave-shaped
Ans. (b)
49. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the the code given below the
Lists-I List-II
A. Spiral casing 1. To allow flow of water through it to produce a
torque
for the rotation of the runner
B. Stay ring 2. To direct the water on the runner at an
appropriate angle
C. Guide vane 3. To distribute the flow over the periphery of the
runner
D. Runner 4. To act as column helping to support the electrical
generator above the turbine
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 1 4 2 3
Ans. (c)
50. By which one of the following, a small quantity of water may be lifted to a great height?
(a) Hydraulic ram
(b) Hydraulic crane
(c) Hydraulic lift
(d) Hydraulic coupling
Ans. (a)

1. A 1.6 m3 capacity tractor loaded works at a site with an effective per-round-trip time of 64 seconds.
Effective delivery of
excavated material is 90%. If utilization is 50 minutes per hour working, what will be the productivity in a
4-hour shift?
(a) 253 m3
(b) 262 m3
(c) 270 m3
(d) 282 m3
Ans. (c)
2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Equipment) (Category)
A. Derrick crane 1. Excavating equipment
B.Hoe 2. Hauling equipment
C. Clamshell 3. Hoisting ‘equipment
D. Dumper Truck 4. Vertical lifting equipment
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (b)
3. A 1.75 m3 capacity tractor loader has forward loaded speed of 240 m/min, returning unloaded speed
of 300 m/min and operates at
80% of the specified speed. It hauls earth over a distance of 60 m with fixed time per trip being 25
seconds. What is its effective
cycle time?
(a) 54.25 seconds
(b) 55.50 seconds
(c) 56.75 seconds
(d) 58.75 seconds
Ans. (d)
4. Which one of the following relates to determination of critical path in PERT?
(a) Event oriented slack
(b) Activity oriented float
(c) Event oriented float
(d) Activity oriented slack
Ans. (a)
5. In order to achieve a safe compressive strength of 20 kg/cm2 in a brick masonary, what should be the
suitable range of crushing
strength of bricks?
(a) 35kg/cm2 to 70 kg/cm2
(b) 70 kg/cm2 to 105 kg/cm2
(c) 105 kg/cm2 to 125 kg/cm2
(d) More than 125 kg/cm2
Ans. (b)
6. What is the requirement of water (expressed as % of cement w/w) for the completion of chemical
reactions in the process of
hydration of OPC?
(a) 10 to 15%
(b) 15 to 20%
(c) 20 to 25%
(d) 25 to 30%
Ans. (c)
7. Which factors comprise maturity of concrete?
(a) Compressive strength and. flexural strength of concrete /
(b) Cement content per cubic metre and compressive strength of concrete
(c) Curing age and curing temperature of concrete
(d) Age and aggregate content per cubic metre of concrete
Ans. (c)
8. What is the minimum value of individual tests results (in N/mm2) for compressive strength
compliance requirement for concrete
M20 as per codal provision?
(a) fck 1
(b) fck 3
(c) fck 4
(d) fck 5
Ans. (c)
9. For what reason is it taken that the nominal maximum size of aggregate may be as large as possible?
(a) Larger the maximum size of aggregate, more the cement required and so higher the strength.
(b) Larger the maximum size of aggregate, smaller is the cement requirement for particular water
cement ratio and so more
economical the mix.
(c) Larger the maximum size of aggregate, lesser are the voids in the mix and hence also lesser the
cement required.
(d) Larger the maximum size of aggregate, more the surface area and better the bond between
aggregates and cement, and so higher
the strength.
Ans. (d)
10. What is the modulus of elasticity of standard timber (Group B) in (MN/cm2)?
(a) 0.5 to 1.0
(b) 1.0 to 1.25
(c) 1.25 to 1.5
(d) 1.5 to 1.75
Ans. (b)
11. What is the treatment for making timber fire- resistant?
(a) ASCU treatment
(b) Abel’s process
(c) Creosoting
(d) Tarring
Ans. (b)
12. How is the process of treatment of wood using a preservative solution and forcing air in at pressure
designated?
(a) Ruping process
(b) Lawri process
(c) Full cell process
(d) Empty cell process
Ans. (d)
13. Modular bricks are of nominal size 20 × 10 × 10cm and 20% of the volume is lost in mortar between
joints. Then what is the
number of modular bricks required per cubic meter of brick work?
(a) 520
(b) 500
(c) 485
(d) 470
Ans. (d)
14. A solid metal of uniform sectional area throughout its length hangs vertically from its upper end.
Devails of the bar are:
length = 6m, material density = 8 × 10-5 N/mm3 and B =2 × 1o5 N/mm2. What will be the total
elongation of the bar in mm?
(a) 288/104
(b) 48/104
(c) 144/104
(d) 72/104
Ans. (d)
15. What is the representative geometric mean size of an aggregate sample if its fineness modulus is
3.0?
(a) 150 µm
(b) 300 µm
(c) 600 µm
(d) 12 µm
Ans. (c)
16. A square steel bar of 50 mm side and 5m long is subjected to a load where upon it absorbs a strain
energy of 100 J. What is
its modulus of resilience?
(a) 1/125 Nmm/ mm3
(b) 125 mm3/Nmm
(c) 1/125 Nmm/ mm3
(d) 100 mm3/Nmm
Ans. (a)
17. What is the ratio of flexural strength (fcr) to the characteristic compressive strength of concrete (fck)
for M25 grade concrete?
(a) 0.08
(b) 0.11
(c) 0.14
(d) 0.17
Ans. (c)
18. Which of the following tests compares the dynamic modulus of elasticity of samples of concrete?
(a) Compression test
(b) Ultrasonic pulse velocity test
(c) Split test
(d) Tension test
Ans. (b)
19. Which one of the following is correct regarding the most effective requirements of durability in
concrete?
(a) Providing reinforcement near the exposed concrete surface
(b) Applying a protective coating to the exposed concrete surface
(c) Restricting the minimum cement content and the maximum water cement ratio and the type of
cement
(d) Compacting the concrete to a greater degree.
Ans. (c)
20. What is the radius of Mohr’s circle in case of bi-axial state of stress?
(a) Half the sum of the two principal stresses
(b) Half the difference of the two principal stresses
(c) Difference of the two principal stresses
(d) Sum of the two principal stresses
Ans. (b)
21. A square beam laid flat is then rotated in such a way that one of its diagonal becomes horizontal.
How is its moment capacity
affected?
(a) Increases by 41.4%
(b) Increases by 29.27%
(c) Decreases by 29.27%
(d) Decreases by 41.4%
Ans. (d)
22. A timber beam is 100 mm wide and 150 mm deep. The beam is simply supported and carries a
central concentrated load W. If the
maximum stress in shear is 2 N/mm2, what would be the corresponding load W on the beam?
(a) 20 kN
(b) 30 kN
(c) 40 kN
(d) 25 kN
Ans. (c)
23. A 40 mm diameter shaft is subjected to a twisting moment M2. If shear stress developed in shaft is 5
N/mm2,.What is the value of
the twisting moment?
(a) 628.8 Nm
(b) 328.4 Nm
(c) 62.8 Nm
(d) 30.4 Nm
Ans. (c)
24. A fixed end beam of uniform cross-section is loaded uniformly throughout the span. What is the
proportion of the bending
moment at the centre to the end moment considering only elastic conditions?
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 2 : 3
Ans. (b)
25. Steel of yield strength 400 MPa has been used in a structure. What is the value of the maximum
allowable tensile strength?
(a) 240 MPa
(b) 200 MPa
(c) 120 MPa
(d) 96 MPa
Ans. (a)