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  #2  
4th August 2014, 11:04 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Model paper for DRDO Senior Technical Assistant

You are looking for Defence Research & Development Organization (DRDO) Senior Technical Assistant exam model question paper, i am giving here:

6. A graph with ”n” vertices and n-1 edges that is not a tree, is
a) Connected
b) Disconnected
c) Euler
d) A circuit
Ans.
7. If a graph requires k different colours for its proper colouring,
then the chromatic number of the graph is
a) 1
b) k
c) k-1
d) k/2
Ans.
8. A read bit can be read
a) and written by CPU
b) and written by peripheral
c) by pheripheral and written by CPU
d) by CPU and written by the peripheral
Ans.
10. The term “aging” refers to
a) booting up the priority of a process in multi-level of queue without feedback.
b) gradually increasing the priority of jobs that wait in the system for a long time to remedy
infinite blocking.
c) keeping track of the following a page has been in memory for the purpose of LRU
replacement
d) letting job reside in memory for a certain amount of time so that the number of pages
required can be estimated accurately.

Ans.
11. Consider a set of n tasks with known runtimes r1, r2 ....... r to be run on a
unlprocessor machine. Which of the following processor scheduling algorithms will
result in the maximum throughput?
a) Round Robin
b) Shortest job first
c) Highest response ratio next
d) first cum first served
Ans.
14. The principal of locality of reference justifies the use of
a) virtual memory
b) interrupts
c) main memory
d) cache memory
Ans.
15. What is the value of I at the end of the pseudocode?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
Ans.
16. The five items: A, B, C, D, and E are pushed in a stack, one after the other starting
from A. The stack is popped four times and each element Is inserted in a queue. Then
two elements are deleted from the queue and pushed back on the stack. Now one
item is popped from the stack. The popped item is
(a) A
(b) B

(c) C
(d) D
Ans.
17. Round Robin scheduling is essentially the pre-emptive version of
a) FIFO
b) Shortest Job First
c) shortest remaining time
d) Longest remaining time
Ans.
18. The number of digit I present in the binary representation of
3 x 512 +7 x 64 + 5 x 8 +3 is
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 1O
(d) 12
Ans.
19. Assume that each character code consists of 8 bits. The number of characters
that can be transmitted per second through an synchronous serial line at 2400 baud
rate, and with two stop bits is
(a)109
(b)216
(c) 218
(d)219
Ans.
20. If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 kHz and the lowest frequency is 52 kHz,

what is the highest frequency?
(a) 5 kHz
(b) 10 kHz
(C) 47 kHz
(d) 57 kHz
Ans.
21. An Ethernet hub
(a) functions as a repeater
(b) connects to a digital PBX
(c) connects to a token-ring network
(d) functions as a gateway
Ans.
22. Phase transition for each bit are used in
(a) Amplitude modulation
(b) Carrier modulation
(C) Manchester encoding
(d) NRZ encoding
Ans.
23. Which of the following is printed as a result of the call demo (1234)?
a) 1441
b) 3443
C) 12344321
d) 43211234
Ans.

24. Bit stuffing refers to
(a) inserting a ‘0’ in user stream to differentiate it with a flag
(b) inserting a ‘0’ in flag stream to avoid ambiguity
(C) appending a nibble to the flag sequence
(d ) appending a nibble to the use data stream
Ans.
25. What is the name of the technique in which the operating system of a computer
executes several programs concurrently by switching back and forth between them?
(a) Partitioning
(b) Multi tasking
(C) Windowing
(d) Paging
Ans.
26. If there are five routers and six networks in an intranet using link state
routing, how many routing tables are there?
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 11
Ans.
27. Virtual memory is
a) Part of Main Memory only used for swapping
b) A technique to allow a program, of size more than the size of the main memory, town
C) Part of secondary storage used in program execution
d) None of these

Ans.
28. The level of aggregation of information required for operational control is
(a) Detailed
(b) Aggregate
(C) Qualitative
(d) None of the above
Ans.
30. 0.75 in decimal system is equivalent to _______ in octal system
a) 0.60
b) 0.52
C) 0.54
d) 0.50
Ans.
31. In an SR latch made by cross coupling two NAND gates, if both S and R inputs are
set to 0, then it will result in
a) Q= 0, QO = 1
b) Q= 1,Q0 = 0
c) Q= 1,Q0 = 1
d) Indeterminate states
Ans.
33. Company X shipped 5 computer chips, I of which was defective, and Company Y
shipped 4 computer chips, 2 of which were defective. One computer chip is to be
chosen uniformly at random from the 9 chips shipped by the companies. If the
chosen chip is found to be defective, what is the probability that the chip came from
Company Y?

a) 2/9
b) 4/9
c) 2/3
d) 1/2
Ans.
34. Ring counter is analogous to
(a) Toggle Switch
(b) Latch
(C) Stepping Switch
(d) S-R flip flop
Ans.
35. The output 0 and I level for TTL Logic family is approximately
a) 0.1 and5 V
b) 0.6 and 3.5 V
C) 0.9 and 1.75 V
d) —i.75 and O.9 V
Ans.
37. In comparison with static RAM memory, the dynamic RAM memory has
a) lower bit density and higher power consumption
b) higher bit density and higher power consumption
C) lower bit density and lower power consumption
d) higher bit density and lower power consumption.
Ans.
38 The Hexadecimal equivalent of 01111100110111100011 is

(a) CD73E
(b) ABD3F
(c) 7CDE3
(d) FA4CD
Ans.
39. Disk requests are received by a disk drive for cylinder 5, 25, 18, 3, 39, 8 and 35 in
that order. A seek takes 5 msec per cylinder moved. How much seek time is needed
to serve these requests for a Shortest Seek First (SSF) algorithm? Assume that the
arm is at cylinder ?,0 when the last of these requests is made with none of the
requests yet served
a) 125 msec
b) 295 msec
c) 575 msec
d) 750 msec
Ans.
40. Consider a system having ‘m’ resources of the same type. The resources are
shared by 3 processes A,B,C which have peak time demands of 3,4,6 respectively.
The minimum value of ‘m’ that ensures that deadlock will never occur is
(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 13
(d) 14
Ans.
41. A task in a blocked state
a) is executable
b) is running
C) must still be placed in the run queues
d) Is waiting for some temporarily unavailable resources.

Ans.
42. Semaphores
a) synchronize critical resources to prevent deadlock
b) synchronize critical resources to prevent contention
C) are used to do I/O
d) are used for memory management.
Ans.
43. On a system using non-preemptive scheduling, processes with expected run
times of 5, 18, 9 and 12 are in the ready queue. In what order should they be run to
minimize wait time?
(a) 5, 12, 9, 18
(b) 5, 9, 12,18
(C )12,18, 9, 5
(d) 9, 12, 18, 5
Ans.
44. The number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by
a) the instruction set architecture
b) page size
c) number of processes in memory
d) physical memory size
Ans.
46 Consider a small 2-way set-associative cache memory, consisting of four blocks.
For choosing the block to be replaced, use the least recently (LRU) scheme. The
number of cache misses for the following sequence of block addresses is 8,12,0,12,8

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Ans.
47. Which commands are used to control access over objects in relational database?
a) CASCADE & MVD
b) GRANT & REVOKE
c) QUE & QUIST
d) None of these
Ans.
48. Which of the following is aggregate function in SQL?
a) Avg
b) Select
c) Ordered by
d) distinct
Ans.
49. One approach to handling fuzzy logic data might be to design a computer using
ternary (base..3) logic so that data could be stored as “true,” “false,” and “unknown.”
if each ternary logic element is called a flit, how many flits are required to represent
at least 256 different values?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
Ans.

50. A view of a database that appears to an application program is known as
a) Schema
b) Subschema
c) Virtual table
d) None of these
Ans.
51 Armstrong’s inference rule doesn’t determine
a) Reflexivity
b) Augmentation
C) Transitivity
d) Mutual dependency
Ans.
52. Which operation is used to extract specified columns from a table?
a) Project
b) Join
C) Extract
d) Substitute
Ans.
53. In the Big- Endian system, the computer stores
a) MSB of data in the lowest memory address of data unit
b) LSB of data in the lowest memory address of data unit
C) MSB of data in the highest memory address of data unit
d) LSB of data in the highest memory address of data unit
Ans.

54. BCNF is not used for cases where a relation has
a) Two (or more) candidate keys
b) Two candidate keys and composite
c) The candidate key overlap
d) Two mutually exclusive foreign keys
Ans.
55. Selection sort algorithm design technique Is an example of
a) Greedy method
b) Divide-and-conquer
C) Dynamic Programming
d) Backtracking
Ans.
56. Which of the following RAID level provides the highest Data Transfer Rate
(Read / Write)
a) RAID 1
b) RAID 3
C) RAID 4
d) RAID 5
Ans.
57. Which of the following programming language(s) provides garbage collection
automatically
a) Lisp
b) C++
c) Fortran
d) C

Ans.
60. Which of the following is correct with respect to Two phase commit protocol?
(a) Ensures serializability
(b) Prevents Deadlock
(C) Detects Deadlock
(d) Recover from Deadlock
Ans.
61 The Fibonacci sequence is the sequence of integers
a) 1,3,5,7,9,11,13
b) 0,1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21,54
c) 0, 1, 3, 4, 7, 11, 18, 29, 47
d) 0,1,3,7,15
Ans.
62 Let X be the adjacency matrix of a graph G with no self loops. The entries along
the principal diagonal of X are
(a) all zeros
(b) all ones
(C) both zeros and ones
(d) different
Ans.
63 Which of these is not a feature of WAP 2.0
(a) Push & Pull Model
(b) Interface to a storage device

(c) Multimedia messaging
(d) Hashing
Ans.
64 Feedback queues
(a) are very simple to implement
(b) dispatch tasks according to execution characteristics
(C) are used to favour real time tasks
(d) require manual intervention to implement properly
Ans.
65 Which of the following is not a UML DIAGRAM?
(a) Use Case
(b) Class Diagram
(c) Analysis Diagram
(d) Swimlane Diagram
Ans.
66 Silly Window Syndrome is related to
(a) Error during transmission
(b) File transfer protocol
(c) Degrade in TCP performance
(d) Interlace problem
Ans.
67 To execute all loops at their boundaries and within their operational bounds is
an example of

(a) Black Box Testing
(b) Alpha Testing
(c) Recovery Testing
(d) White Box Testing
Ans.
68 SSL is not responsible for
(a) Mutual authentication of client & server
(b) Secret communication
(C) Data Integrity protection
(d) Error detection & correction
Ans.
69 A rule in a limited entry decision table is a
(a) row of the table consisting of condition entries
(b) row of the table consisting of action entries
(C) column of the table consisting of condition entries and the corresponding action entries
(d) columns of the table consisting of conditions of the stub
Ans.
70 The standard for certificates used on internet is
a) X.25
b) X.301
c) X.409
d) X.509
Ans.
71 Hashed message is signed by a sender using

a) his public key
b) his private key
C) receivers public key
d) receivers private key
Ans.
72 An email contains a textual birthday greeting, a picture of a cake, and a song. The
order is not important. What is the content-type?
a) Multipart / mixed
b) Multipart / parallel
c) Multipart / digest
d) Multipart / alternative
Ans.
73 Range of IP Address from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.256.255 are
a) Reserved for Loopback
b) Reserved for broadcast
C) Used for muticast packets
d) Reserved for future addressing
Ans.
74 IEEE 802.11 is standard for
a) Ethernet
b) Bluetooth
C) Broadband Wireless
d) Wireless LANs
Ans.

75 When a host on network A sends a message to a host on network B, which
address does the router look at?
a) Port
b) IP
C) Physical
d) Subnet mask
Ans.
76 Which of the following is not an approach to Software Process Assessment?
a) SPICE (ISO/IECI 5504)
b) Standard CMMI Assessment Method for process improvement
C) ISO 9001 : 2000
d) IEEE 2000:2001
Ans.
77 A physical DFD specifies
a) what processes will be used
b) who generates data and who processes it
c) what each person in an organization does
d) which data will be generated
Ans.
78 In UML diagram of a class
a) state of object cannot be represented
b) state is irrelevant
c) state is represented as an attribute
d) state is represented as a result of an operation

Ans.
79 Which of the following models is used for software reliability?
a) Waterfall
b) Musa
c) COCOMO
d) Rayleigh
Ans.
80 Djikstra’s algorithm is used to
a) Create LSAs
b) Flood an internet with information
C) Calculate the routing tables
d) Create a link state database
Ans.
  #3  
20th May 2015, 03:40 PM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Re: Model paper for DRDO Senior Technical Assistant

I am looking for the DRDO Mechanical Technical Assistant Admin Exam question Paper . Will you please provide it ?
  #4  
20th May 2015, 03:41 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Model paper for DRDO Senior Technical Assistant

Here I am providing the list of few questions of DRDO Mechanical Technical Assistant Admin Exam question Paper which you are looking for .
DRDO Mechanical Technical Assistant Admin Exam question Paper
1. A hydraulic press has a ram of 15 cm diameter and plunger of 1.5 cm.
It is required to lift a mass of 1000kg. The force required on plunger is
nearly equal to
a) 100N b) 1000N c) 10000N d) 1ON Ans.
2. If the stream function is given by Ψ= 3xy, then the velocity at a point
(2, 3) will be
a) 7.21 unit b) 18 unit c)10.82 unit d)54unit Ans.
3. The correct sequence of the centrifugal, pump components through
which the fluid flows is
a) Impeller, Suction pipe, Foot valve and strainer, Delivery pipe b) Foot valve and strainer, Suction pipe, Impeller, Deliverypipe c) Impeller, Suction pipe,Delivery pipe,Foot valve and strainer d) Suction pipe, Delivery pipe, Impeller,Foot valve and strainer Ans.
4. The relation p = constant, where y is the ratio of the specific heats of
ideal gas, is applicable to
a) Any adiabatic process b)Only reversible adiabatic process c) Only irreversible adiabatic process d) Only isothermal process Ans.
5. Across a normal shock
a) static pressure and the static temperature rise b) entropy remains constant c) velocity and static pressure decrease d) density and temperature decrease Ans.
6. A necessary precaution in selection of pumps for parallel operations is
that
a) H-Q characteristics of both should be identical b) Both pumps should be centrifugal type c) Both pumps should be identical d) There should not be change from positive to negative slope In H-Q curve Ans.
7. A metallic cube of side 10 cm, density 6.8 gm/cc is floating in liquid
mercury (density 13.6gm/cc), with 5 cm height of cube exposed above
the mercury level. Water (density 1 gm/cc) is filled over this, to
submerge the cube fully. The new height of cube exposed above mercury
level is
a) 4.6 cm b)5.4cm c) 5.0 cm d)5.8cm Ans.
8. The pressure drop for a relatively low Reynolds number flow in a 600
mm, 30 m long pipeline is 7OkPa. What is the wall shear stress?
a) 0 Pa b)1400 Pa c) 700 Pa d) 350 Pa Ans. 9. The radiative heat transfer rate per unit area (W/m2) between two
plane parallel grey surfaces (emissivity 0.9) maintained at 400 K and
300 K is (Stefan Boltzmann constant σ = 5.67 x 10 W/m2k4)
a) 1020 b)464 c)812 d)567 Ans.
10. At the eye tip of a centrifugal impeller, blade velocity is 200 m/s
while the uniform axial velocity at the inlet is 150 m/s. If the sonic
velocity is 300 m/s, then the inlet Mach number of the flow will be
a)0.75 b) 0.66 c) 0.90 d)0.83 Ans.
11. The transition Reynolds number for flow over a flat plate is 5* 105.
What is the distance from the leading edge at which transition will occur
for flow of water with a uniform velocity of 1 m/s? (For water. the
kinematic viscosity, v = 0.86* 10-6 m2/s)
a) 0.43m b) 1m c)43m d)103m Ans.
12. For a reciprocating water pump having cylinder dia d and crank
radius r, if W is the weight of water lifted, the coefficient of discharge is
a) 2 b) 2 2 c) 2 d) 2 Ans. 13. Both free vortex and forced vortex can be expressed mathematically
in terms of tangential velocity V at the corresponding radius r. Choose
the correct combination
Free vortex Forced vortex
a) V r xconst. Vr= const. b)V2x r = const. V = r x const. c)V x r = const. V2= r x const. d) V x r= const. V =r x const. Ans.
14. A bucket of water is hanging from a spring balance. An iron piece is
suspended into water without touching sides of bucket from another
support. The spring balance reading will
a)Remain same b)Decrease c) Increase d) Increase/decrease depending on depth of immersion Ans.
15. A single-stage impulse turbine with a diameter of 120 cm runs at
3000 rpm. If the blade speed ratio is 0.42 then, the inlet velocity of steam
will be
a) 79m/s b) 188m/s c) 450m/s d) 900m/s
Ans. 16. The critical point and triple point data for water are, Tc = 374°C, Pc =
22.1 Mpa, TT = 0.01°C. PT = 0.6 kPa Indicate the phase change that will
occur in following cases,
(i) ice at 0.5 kPa is heated isobarically
(ii) Water vapour at 400°C is compressed isothermally
a)(i)alongAB. (ii) alongCD b)(i)alongCD.(ii)along AB c) (i) alongOD.(ii) along PR d) (i) along RD.(ii)alongOR Ans.
17. The ratio of specific heats of a gas is 1.4 and the value of specific heat
at constant pressure is 7.0 cal/mole° C. The difference between specific
heat at constant pressure and specific heat at constant volume will be (in
cal/mole° C)
a) 1.4 b) 1.7 c) 5.0 d) 2.0 Ans.
18. The coefficient of linear expansion of a solid is L. The volume V of a
cube of this solid on being heated by 1° C will change by a)VL b)3VL c)3L d)VL/3
Ans. 19. Two springs of equal length but having stiffness of 10 N/mm and 15
N/mm support a mass of 2 tonnes in series. Find the frequency of
vibration
a)12 √3Hz b)12 √10Hz c)12 √15Hz d)12 √2Hz Ans. 20. Ratio of pitch circle diameter in millimeters to the number of teeth, is
known as
a) Module b) Circular pitch c) Diametral pitch d) Clearance Ans.
21. Two particles with masses in the ratio 1:4 are moving with equal
kinetic energies. The magnitude of their linear momentums will conform
to the ratio
a)1:8 b) 1 :√2 c) √2:1 d)1:2 Ans.
22. Which of the following stresses are associated with the tightening of
a nut on a stud?
1. Tensile stresses due to stretching of stud
2. Bending stresses of stud
3. Transverse shear stresses across threads
4. Torsional shear stresses in threads due to frictional resistance
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1,2 and 3 b) 1,2and 4 c) 1,3 and 4 d) 2,3 and 4 Ans. 23. A flywheel weighs kg and has a radius of gyration of 100 cm. It is
given a spin of 100 rpm about its horizontal axis. The whole assembly is
rotating about a vertical axis at 6 rad/sec. The gyroscopic couple
experienced will be
a)2,000 kgm b) 19,620 kgm c)20,000kgm d) 1,962kgm Ans.
24. Determine the diameter of solid shaft which will transmit 90kw at
160 rpm, if the shear stress in the shaft is limited to 60 N/mm2
a)50mm b)6Omm c)77mm d)7Omm Ans.
25. A roller of weight W is rolled over the wooden block shown in the
given figure. The pull required just to cause the said motion is
a) W/2 b)√3W c) W d) 2 W Ans.
26. For one-dimensional isentropic flow in. a diverging passage, if the
initial static pressure is P1, and the initial Mach number is M1 (M1 <1),
then for the downstream flow
a) M2< M1; P2<p1 b)M2>M1; P2>p1 c)M2<M1; P2>p1 d)M2>M1; P2<p1 Ans.
27. In a furnace made of bricks,
Inside heat transfer coefficient 35 W/m2K
Outside heat transfer coefficient =25 W/m2K
Thermal conductivity of bricks (15 cm thick) = 0.15 W/mK
The overall heat transfer coefficient (in W/m2K) will be closer to the
a)Insideheat transfer coefficient b) Outside heat transfer coefficient c) Thermal conductivity of bricks d) Heat transfer coefficient based on the thermal conductivityof the bricks alone. Ans.
28. Two systems have the same wet bulb temperature of 200 C. System ‘A’
has Dry bulb temperature of 25°C since it has a relative humidity of 65%.
System ‘B’ has a relative humidity of 30%. What will be its dry bulb
temperature
a) 33°C b) 25°C c)27°C d) 22°C Ans.
29. Four rods with different radii r and length l are connected to two
reservoirs at different temperature. Which one of them will conduct
most heat?
a)r=2cm&l=2m b)r=lcm&l=1m c)r=2cm&l=½m d)r=½cm&l= ½m Ans. 30. A 1000 kg vehicle travelling at 80 m/s impacts a plunger attached to
a piston-cylinder arrangement. If all of the energy of the vehicle is
absorbed by the 20 kg of liquid contained in the cylinder, what is the
maximum temperature rise of the liquid? (The specific heat of the liquid
(I is 4.0 kJ/kg.°C) a)55°C b) 40°C c)45°C d)50°C Ans. 31. In the Van der Waal’s gas equation (ƿ+ )(v – b) = RT to constant ‘a’
is introduced to compensate for
a) Reductioninspecific volume b) Inter-molecular forces c) Reduction in specific heat d) All of the above Ans.
32. The centrifugal tension in belts
a) Increase power transmission upto certain speed and then decreases b) Increases power transmission c) Does not affectpowertransmission d) Reduces power transmission
Ans. 33. In nodular iron, graphite is in the form of a) Spheroids b) Nodular carbide c) Flakes d) Cementite Ans. 34. Corrosion resistance of steel increases by addition of a) Vanadium, aluminium b) Sulpher, phosphorus, lead c) Chromium and nickel d) Tugsten, molybdenum, vanadium, chromium Ans. 35. Phenomenon of progressive extension of material with time at
constant load is called a) Plasticity b) Creep c) Yield d) Breaking Ans. 36. Rivets are made of a) Soft material b) Ductile material c) Hard material d) Brittle material Ans. 37. Addition of copper to aluminium results in a) Precipitation hardening system b) Corrosion resistance c) Grain refinement d) High machinability Ans.
38. A Hooke’s joint is used to connect two
a) Coplanar & Nonparallel shafts b) Non coplanar & Nonparallel shafts c) Coplanar & Parallelshafts d) All the 3 above Ans. 39. In a hardness test, L is load in kg, D is diameter of ball in mm and d is
diameter of indentation in mm. Brincll Hardness Number is expressed
by the equation a) BIIN = ( − 2− 2 b)BIIN = 2 ( − 2− 2
c) BIIN = ( − 2− 2 d)BIIN = 2 ( − 2− 2 Ans.
40. Circumferential anti longitudinal strains in the cylindrical boiler
under internal steam pressure arc Є1 and Є2 respectively. Change in the
volume of the boiler cylinder per unit volume will be
a) Є12Є2 b) Є1Є22 c) 2Є1+ Є2 d) Є1+2Є2 Ans. 41. An overhung beam ABC of length 4m is supported at A and B 3m
apart. It is loaded with UDL of 5 kN/m along its entire length. Find the
value of load ‘P’ at C such that the reactions at A and B are equal and
opposite.
a)P10 kN b) P30kN c)P20kN d) P25kN
Ans. 42. If two gears have moment of inertias as I1 and 12 respectively and
mesh with a speed ratio ω2 / ω1 = n, then equivalent moment of inertia of
both gears referred to first one is
a)n2I1+I2 b)I1+ nI2 c)nI1+ I2 d)I1+n2I2 Ans.
43. A uniform circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating with an
angular speed ω about an axis passing through its center and
perpendicular to the plane of the ring. Two identical beads, each of mass
m, somehow get attached at two diametrically opposite points. The
rotational speed of the ring will become
a) +2 b) + c) 2+2 d) ω Ans. 44. An electric lift is moving downward with an acceleration of g/3. the
vertical force between a passenger in the lift and its floor is equal to
a)3/4 of the passenger’s weight b) 2/3 of thepassenger’s weight c) Passenger’s weight d) 4/3 of thepassenger’s weight Ans. 45. A body of mass 10kg moving with a velocity of 1 m/s is acted upon by
a force of 50 N for two seconds. The final velocity of the body is
a) 22 m/sec b) 1m/sec c)√21m/sec d) 11 m/sec Ans.
46. Proof resilience may be defined as
a) Work done in strainingthe material b) Max. strain energy that can be storedin a material per unit volume c) Max. strain energy that can be storedina material under elastic condition d) Max. load which can be applied to amember Ans. 47. A plane intersects the co-ordinate axes at x = 2/3, y = 1/3, z = 1/2.
What is the Miller index of this plane?
a)(932) b)(432) c)(364) d)(423) Ans.
48. Relationship between modulus of elasticity E, modulus of rigidity G
and Poisson’s ratio μ is
a) G = E/2 (1 +μ) b) G=E (2-μ) c) E= G (1+μ) d) G=E/1+μ Ans.
49. A bar of Length L, area A and Young’s modulus E is subjected to a
pulling force P. The strain energy stored in the bar is
a) 2 b) 2 2 c) 2 2 d) 2
Ans.
50. What is the expression for crippling load for a column of length L,
with one end fixed and other end free?
a)P = π2EI/4L2 b)P=π2EI/L2 c)P=2π2EI/L d) 4π2El/L2 Ans.
51. A Mohr’s circle reduces to a point when the body is subjected to
a) Pure shear b) Uniaxial stress only c) Equal & opposite axial stresses on two mutually perpendicular planes, the planes being free of shear. d) Equal axial stresses are on two mutually perpendicular planes, the planes being free of shear. Ans.
52. Power screws are used to convert
a) Linear motion torotary motion b) None of these c) Both a & b d) Rotary motion intotranslatorymotion Ans. 53. Following gases are used in tungsten inert gas welding
a) CO2andll2 b)Argon and neon c) Argon and helium d) Helium and neon Ans.
54. The force required to punch a 25 mm hole in a mild steel plate 10
mm thick, when ultimate shear stress of the plate is 500 N/mm2 will be
nearly
a)78kN b) 393kN c) 98kN d) 158kN Ans.
55. One-half length of 50mm diameter steel rod is solid while the
remaining half is hollow having a bore of 5 mm. The rod is subjected to
equal and opposite torque at its ends. If the maximum shear stress in
solid portion is τ, the maximum shear stress in the hollow portion is: a)15 16 b) τ c)43
d)16 15 Ans. 56. Two metal plates of thickness ‘t’ & width ‘w’ arc joined by a fillet weld
of 450 as shown in fig. When subjected to a pulling force ‘F’ the stress
induced in the weld will be
a) b) 45 c) 45 d)2
Ans. 57. Ring rolling is used
a) To decrease the thickness and increase diameter b) To increase the thickness of a ring
c) For producing a seamless tube d) For producing large cylinder Ans.
58. A bar of 20mm dia is tested in tension. It is observed that when a load
of 38KN is applied the extension measured over a gauge length of
200mm is 0.12mm and contraction in diameter is 0.0036mm. Find the
Poisson’s ratio
a) 0.2 b) 0.3 c) 0.25 d) 0.33 Ans.
59. A perfect frame has N joints. The number of members should not be
less than
a) 2N-1 b) 2N-2 c) 2N-3 d) 2N-5 Ans.
60. A cantilever beam of rectangular cross section is subjected to load at
free end. If the depth of the beam is doubled and load is halved,
deflection of the free end as compared to original will be
a) 1/2 b) 1/8 c) 2 d) 1/16 Ans. 61. The kinematic planar chain Shown in the given figure is a
a) Structure b) Mechanism with 2 degreeof freedom c) Mechanism with 1degree of freedom d) Mechanism with more than 2 degree offreedom Ans.
62. The machining process in which the work piece is dissolved into an
electrolyte solution is called
a) Electro-chemical machining b) Ultrasonic machining c) Electro-discharge machining d) Laser machining Ans.
63. In the metal forming process, the stresses encountered are
a) Greater than yield strength but less than ultimate strength b) Less than yield strength of the material c) Greater than the ultimate strength of the material d) Less than the elastic limit Ans.
64. A grinding wheel is specified as 49 A 26 36 M 7 V 24. The number 36
stands for
a) Structure b) Grade c) Grit size d) Bond Ans.
65. In a fluid machinery, the relationship between saturation
temperature and pressure decides the process of
a) Flow separation b) Cavitation c) Turbulent mixing d) Water hammer Ans,.
66. Anodising is
a) A process of coating of zinc by hot dipping b) A zinc diffusion process c) A process used for makingthin phosphatecoatings on steel to act as a base orprimerfor enamels and paints d) An oxidizing process used for aluminiumand magnesium articles Ans.
67. The process layout is best suited where
a) Automation is employed b) Mass production is envisaged c) A few number of non-standardized unitsare to be produced d) Machines are arranged according tosequence of operation Ans. 68. The blank size of the gear of 3 mm module and 40 number of teeth is
a) 120mm b) 123 mm c)126 mm d)129 mm Ans.
69. A bag contains 7 white, 6 red and 9 black balls. Two balls are drawn
at random. The probability that both the balls will be black is a)111 b)12 77 c)577 d)977 Ans. 70. Match list—I (Machining Process) with list—II (Associated medium)
and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List — I (Machining Process) List— II (Associated Medium)
A) Ultrasonic machining 1) kerosene
B) EDM 2) Abrasive slurry
C) ECM 3) Vacuum
D) FBM 4) Salt solution
A B C D a) 2 1 4 3 b) 2 3 4 1 c) 4 1 2 3 d) 4 3 2 1 Ans.
71. The rake angle of a cutting tool is 150, shear angle 45° and cutting
velocity 35 m/min. What is the velocity of chip along the tool face?
a)25.3m/min b)27.3m/min c)28.5m/min d)23.5m/min Ans.
72. The value of the determinant given below is 1 1 1 1+a 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1−b 1 1 1+c a)–abc b) abc c) 1 d) 0 Ans. 73. The locus of the point Z satisfying the condition arg −+
= is a) x2-y2-2√3y = 0 b) x2+ y2= 1 c) x2-y2-2√3y-1 = 0 d) x2+ y2-2√3y-1 = 0 Ans. 74. In a simple micrometer with screw pitch 0.5 mm and divisions on
thimble 50, the reading corresponding to 5 divisions on barrel and 12
divisions on thimble is
a) 2.620mm b)2.512 mm c) 5.120 mm d) 5.012mm Ans.
75. It is required to cut screw threads of 2mm pitch on a lathe. The lead
screw has a pitch of 6 mm. If the spindle speed is 60 rpm, then the speed
of the lead screw will be
a) 10 rpm b) 20 rpm c) 120 rpm d) 180 rpm Ans.
76. If u = log (tan x + tan y), then sin 2x +sin 2y is
a)1 b)-2 c)2 d)-1 Ans. 77. The value of λ for which the equations 2λx — 3y + λ — 3 = 0, 3x— 2y
+ 1 = 0 and 4x — λy +2 = 0 are consistent is
a)3or 6 b) 1or3 c) 2 or 6 d) 2 or3 Ans.
78. 1f + + = 0 and ∣ ∣= 3, ∣ ∣= 5, ∣ ∣= 7, then the angle between and
is
a) 450 b)300 c) 900 d) 60° Ans.
79. The image of the point P(1,3,4) in the plane 2x — y + z -3 is
a)(-3,5,-2) b)(-3,-5,2) c)(3,-5,-2) d)(-3,5,2) Ans.
80. Find a particular integral of the differential equation (D2 – 4D + 3)y =
sin3xcos2x a)120(10cos5x–11sin5x) + 1 884(sin x–2cosx) b) 1 884(10cos5x–11sin5x) +120(sin x + 2cosx)
c)120(10cos5x–11sin5x)+ 1 884(sin x + 2cosx) d) 1 884(10cos5x + 11sin5x) +120(sin x + 2cosx) Ans.


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