#1
7th August 2014, 11:40 AM
 
 
DRDO Senior Technical Assistant Exam syllabus and Question papers
Hello Sir I am searching here for the Defence Research and Development Organization Assistant Exam syllabus and Question papers for preparation so can you provide me the papers.

#2
7th August 2014, 12:38 PM
 
 
Re: DRDO Senior Technical Assistant Exam syllabus and Question papers
As you are looking for the Defence Research and Development Organization Assistant Exam syllabus and Question papers so here I am providing you the same. DRDO Syllabus for Senior Technical Assistant and Admin Post Exam a) Syllabus For STA ‘B’ & Technician ‘A’: The written test will consist of (i) 50 questions on General Awareness, General Intelligence, Reasoning Ability, General Science and (ii) 100 Questions on Subject concerned. Electrical Engineering (EE) Syllabus: Electric Circuits and Fields Signals and Systems Electrical Machines Power Systems Control Systems Electrical and Electronic Measurements Analog and Digital Electronics Power Electronics and Drives Question Papers Section A 1.The current I in the given network. a) 1A b) 3A c) 5A d) 7A 2.For the Delta Wye transformation in given figure, the value of the resistance R is. a) 1/3 ohms b) 2/3 ohms c) 3/2 ohms d) 3 ohms 3.In the given network, the Thevenin’s equivalent as seen by the load resistance Rl is a) V=10 V, R= 2ohms b) V=10V, R=3 ohms c) V=15V, R= 2ohms d) V=15V, R=3 ohms 4.The current I in a series RL circuit with R=10 ohms and L=20mH is given by i=2sin500t A. If v is the voltage across the RL combination then i a) lags v by 45 degree b) is inphase with v c) leads v by 45 d) lags v by 90 5.In thr given network, the mesh current I and the input impedance seen by the 50 V source, respectively, are a) 125/13 A and 11/8 ohms b) 150/13 A and 13/8 ohms c) 150/13 A and 11/8 ohms d) 125/13 A and 13/8 ohms 6.A voltage sourcehaving a source impedance Z = R + jX can deliver maximum Average power to a load impedance Z, when a) Z = R + jX b) Z = R c) Z = jX d) Z = R –jX 7.In the given circuit, the switch S is closed at t=0. Assuming that there is no initial Charge in the capacitor, the current i(t) for t>0 is a) V/R e^ (2t/RC) b) V/R e^ (t/RC) c) V/2R e^ (2t/RC) d) V/2R e^ (t/RC) 8.For the circuit in given figure, if e(t) is a ramp signal, the steady state value of the Output voltage v(t) is a) 0 b) LC c) R/L d) RC 9.For the series RLC circuit in given figure, if w=1000 rad/sec, then the current I (in Amperes) is a) 2 ∟15 b) 2 ∟15 c) √2∟15 d) √2∟15 10.The Yparameter matrix (mA/V) of the twoport given network is a) [2 1 1 2] b) [2 1 1 2] c) [1 2 1 2] d) [2 1 1 2] 11.The maximum number of trees of the given graph is a) 16 b) 25 c) 100 d) 125 12.Given figure shows a graph and one of its trees. Corresponding to the tree, the group of branches that CAN NOT constitute a fundamental cut set is a) 1,2,3 b) 1,4,6,8,3 c) 5,6,8,3 d) 4,6,7,3 13.The Yparameter matrix of a network is given by Y=[1 1 1 1] A/V. The Z11 parameter of the same network is a) ½ ohms b) 1/√2 ohms c) 1 ohms d) 2 ohms 14.For the given circuit, the switch was kept closed for a long time before opening it at t=0. The voltage v(0+) is a) 10 V b) 1 V c) 0V d) 10 V 15.The input impedance of a series RLC circuit operating at frequency W=√2w, w being the resonant frequency, is a) Rj(wL/√2) ohms b) R+j(wL/√2) ohms c) Rj√2wL ohms d) Rj√2wL ohms 16.The threshold voltage V is negative for a) an nchannel enhancement MOSFET b) an nchannel depletion MOSFET c) an pchannel depletion MOSFET d) an pchannel JFET 17.At a given temperature, a semiconductor with intrinsic carrier concentration ni= 10 ^ 16 / m^3 is doped with a donor dopant of concentration Nd = 10 ^ 26 /m^3. Temperature remaining the same, the hole concentration in the doped semiconductor is a) 10 ^ 26 /m^3 b) 10 ^ 16 /m^3 c) 10 ^ 14 /m^3 d) 10 ^ 6 /m^3} 18.At room temperature, the diffusion and drift constants for holes in a Ptype semiconductor were measured to be Dp = 10 cm^2/s and µp = 1200 cm^2/Vs, respectively. If the diffusion constant of electrons in an Ntype semiconductor at the same temperature is Dn = 20 cm^2/s, the drift constant for electrons in it is a) µn = 2400 cm^2/Vs b) µn = 1200 cm^2/Vs c) µn = 1000 cm^2/Vs d) µn = 600 cm^2/Vs 19.A common LED is made up of a) intrinsic semiconductor b) direct semiconductor c) degenerate semiconductor d) indirect semiconductor 20.When operating as a voltage regulator, the breakdown in a Zener diode occurs due to the a) tunneling effect b) avalanche breakdown c) impact ionization d) excess heating of the junction. 21.If the common base DC current gain of a BJT is 0.98, its common emitter DC current gain is a) 51 b) 49 c) 1 d) 0.02 22.Negative resistance characteristics is exhibited by a a) Zener diode b) Schottky diode c) photo diode d) Tunnel diode 23.Let En and Ep, respectively, represent the effective Fermi levels for electrons and holes during current conduction in a semiconductor. For lasing to occur in a PN junction of bandgap energy 1.2 eV, (En  Ep) should be a) greater than 1.2eV b) less than 1.2eV c) equal to 1.1eV d) equal to 0.7eV 24.In a Pwell fabrication process, the substrate is a) Ntype semiconductor and is used to build Pchannel MOSFET b) Ptype semiconductor and is used to build Pchannel MOSFET c) Ntype semiconductor and is used to build Nchannel MOSFET d) Ptype semiconductor and is used to build Nchannel MOSFET 25.In a MOS capacitor with ntype silicon substrate, the Fermi potential ¢ = 0.41 V and the flatband voltage Vfb = 0V. The value of the threshold voltage Vt is a) 0.82 V b) 0.41 V c) 0.41 V d) 0.82 Refer given figure for question 26 and 27. Assume D1 and D2 to be ideal diodes. 26.Which one of the following statements is true? a) Both D1 and D2 are ON. b) Both D1 and D2 are OFF. c) D1 is ON and D2 is OFF. d) D2 is ON and D1 is OFF. 27.Values of Vo and I, respectively, are a) 2V and 1.1 mA b) 0V and 0 mA c) 2V and 0.7 mA d) 4V and 1.3 mA 28.In a BJT CASCODE pair, a a) common emitter follows a common base b) common base follows a common collector c) common collector follows a common base d) common base follows a common emitter 29.Inside a 741 opamp, the last functional block is a a) differential amplifier b) level shifter c) classA power amplifier d) classAB power amplifier 30.For the MOSFET in the given circuit, the threshold voltage Vt = 0.5V, the process parameter KP = 150 µA/V^2 and W/L = 10. The values of Vd and Id, respectively, are a) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 1 mA b) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 0.5 mA c) Vd = 4.8 V and Id = 0.4 mA d) Vd = 6 V and Id = 0 mA 31.A negative feedback is applied to an amplifier with the feedback voltage proportional to the output current. This feedback increases the a) input impedance of the amplifier b) output impedance of the amplifier c) distortion in the amplifier d) gain of the amplifier 32.The early effect in a BJT is modeled by the small signal parameter a) r0 b) r∏ c) gm d) β 33.For a given filter order, which one of the following type of filters has the least amount of ripple both in passband and stopband? a) Chebyshev type I b) Bessel c) Chebyshev type II d) Elliptic 34.For a practical feedback circuit to have sustained oscillation, the most appropriate value of the loop gain T is a) 1 b) 1 c) 1.02 d) 1.02 35.Assume the opamps in given figure to be ideal. If the input signal vi is a sinusoid of 2V peaktopeak and with zero DC component, the output signal vo is a a) sine wave b) square wave c) pulse train d) triangular wave 36.In a common source amplifier, the midband voltage gain is 40 dB and the upper cutoff frequency is 150kHz. Assuming single pole approximation for the amplifier the unity gain frequency fT is a) 6 MHz b) 15 MHz c) 150 MHz d) 1.5 GHz 37.An opamp is ideal except for finite gain and CMRR. Given the open loop differential gain Ad=2000, CMRR = 1000, the input to the noninverting terminal is 5.002 V and the input to the inverting terminal is 4.999 V, the output voltage of the opamp is a) 14 V b) 24 V c) 6 V c) 8 V 38.The opamp in the circuit in given figure has a nonzero DC offset. The steady state value of the output voltage Vo is a) –RC dvs(t)/ dt b) – (1/RC)vs(t)dt c) –V d) +V 39.For the circuit in given figure, if the value of the capacitor C is doubled, the dutycycle of the output waveform Vo a) increases by a factor of 2 b) increases by a factor of 1.44 c) remains constant d) decreases by a factor of 1.44 40.Assume the opamp in the given circuit to be ideal. The value of the output voltage Vo is a) 3.2 Vi b) 4 Vi c) 9 Vi d) 10 Vi 41.The complement of the Boolean expression F = (X + Y¯ + Z)(X¯ + Z¯)(X + Y) is a) XYZ+XZ¯+Y¯Z b) X¯YZ¯+XZ+X¯Y¯ c) X¯YZ¯+XZ+YZ d) XYZ+X¯Y¯ 42.The Boolean function F(A,B,C,D) = ∑(0,6,8,13,14) with don’t care conditions d(A,B,C,D) = ∑(2,4,10) can be simplified to a) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯ b) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯D c) F = AB¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯ d) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABCD 43.The Boolean function F = A¯D¯+B¯D can be realized by one of the following figures 44. For the multiplexer in given figure, the Boolean expression for the output Y is a) A¯B¯+B¯C¯+AC b) AB¯+B¯C¯+AC¯ c) AB¯+B¯C+AC d) A¯B¯+B¯C+A¯C 45. Which one of the following is TRUE? a) Both latch and flipflop are edge triggered. b) A latch is level triggered and a flipflop is edge triggered. c) A latch is edge triggered and a flipflop is level triggered. d) Both latch and flipflop are level triggered. 46. In a schottky TTL gate, the Schottky diode e) increases the propagation delay f) increases the power consumption g) prevents saturation of the output transistor h) keeps the transistor in cutoff region 47. For which one of the following ultraviolet light is used to erase the stored contents a) PROM b) EPROM c) EEPROM d) PLA 48. Which one of the following is NOT a synchronous counter a) Johnson counter b) Ring counter c) Ripple counter d) Updown counter 49. In 8085 microprocessor, the accumulator is a a) 4 bit register b) 8 bit register c) 16 bit register d) 32 bit register 50. In the register indirect addressing mode of 8085 microprocessor, data is stored a) at the address contained in the register pair b) in the register pair c) in the accumulator d) in a fixed location of the memory 51. The output w[n] of the system shown in given figure is a) x[n] b) x[n1] c) x[n] – x[n1] d) 0.5(x[n1] + x[n]) 52. Which one of the following is a periodic signal a) x(t) = 2 e^j(t+(π/4)) b) x[n] = u[n] + u[n] c) x*n+ = ∑,∂*n4k]∂*n14k]} where k = ∞to ∞ d) x(t) = e^ (1+j)t 53. If the inputoutput relation of a system is y(t) = ∫x(t) dt where t = ∞ to 2t a) linear, timeinvariant and unstable b) linear, noncausal and unstable c) linear, causal and time invariant d) noncausal, time invariant and unstable 54. Which one of the can be the magnitude of the transfer function  H(jw)  of a causal system 55. Consider the function H(jw) = H1(w) + jH2(w), where H1(w) is an odd function and H2(w) is an even function. The inverse Fourier transform of H(jw) is a) a real and odd function b) a complex function c) a purely imaginary function d) a purely imaginary and odd function 56. The laplace transform of given signal is a) –A((1e^cs)/s) b) A((1e^cs)/s) c) A((1e^cs)/s) d) –A((1e^cs)/s) 57. If X(z) is the ztransform of x[n] = (1/2)^ n, the ROC of X(z) is a) z > 2 b) z < 2 c) 0.5<z<2 d) the entire zplane 58. In a linear phase system, τg the group delay and τp the phase delay are a) constant and equal to each other b) τg is a constant and τp is proportional to w c) a constant and τg is proportional to w d) τg is proportional to w and τp is proportional to w 59. A signal m(t), bandlimited to a maximum frequency of 20 kHz is sampled at a frequency fs kHz to generate s(t). An ideal low pass filter having cutoff frequency 37 kHz is used to reconstruct m(t) from s(t). The maximum value of fs required to reconstruct m(t) without distortion is a) 20 kHz b) 40kHz c) 57 kHz d) 77 kHz 60. If the signal x(t) shown in given figure is fed to an LTI system having impulse response h(t) as shown in given figure, the value of the DC component present in the output y(t) is a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 61. The characteristic equation of an LTI system is given as s^3 + Ks^2 + 5s + 10. When the system is marginally stable, the value of K and the sustained oscillation frequency w, respectively, are a) 2 and 5 b) 0.5 and √5 c) 0.5 and 5 d) 2 and √5 62. The time required for the response of a linear timevariant system to reach half the final value for the first time is a) delay time b) peak time c) rise time d) decay time 63. The signal flow graph of the given network is 64. Let c(t) be the unit step response of a system with transfer function K(s+a)/(s+K). If c(0+)=2 and c(∞)=10, then the values of a and K, respectively, are a) 2 and 10 b) 2 and 10 c) 10 and 2 d) 2 and 10 65. The loop transfer function of an LTI system is G(s)H(s)= K(s+1)(s+5) / s(s+2)(s+3). For K>0, the point on the real axis that DOES NOT belong to the root locus of the system is a) 0.5 b) 2.5 c) 3.5 d) 5.5 66. The state space equation of the circuit shown in given figure for x1=v0, x2=I is 67. The open loop gain of a unity feedback system is G(s)=wn^2 / s(s+2wn). The unit step response c(t) of the system is 68. If A = [2 0 0 2], then e^At is given by a) [e^2t 0 0 e^2t] b) [e^2t 0 0 e^2t] c) [e^t/2 0 0 e^t/2] d) [e^t/2 0 0 e^t/2] 69. The angles of the asymptotes of the root loci of the equation s^3 + 5s^2 + (K+2)s + K = 0, for 0<=K<∞, are a) 0 and 270 b) 0 and 180 c) 90 and 270 d) 90 and 180 70. The bode plot corresponding to a proportional derivative controller is the one shown in given figure 71. In frequency modulation, the instantaneous a) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal b) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal c) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal d) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal 72. If X is a zero mean Gaussian random variable, then P{X<=0} is a) 0 b) 0.25 c) 0.5 d) 1 73. If a singletone amplitude modulated signal at a modulation depth of 100% transmits a total power of 15W, the power in the carrier component is a) 5W b) 10W c) 12W d) 15W 74. In a superheterodyne receiver, rejection of the image signal can be achieved by using a a) higher local oscillatorn frequency b) crystal oscillator c) narrow band IF filter d) narrow band filter at RF stage 75. The number of bbits per sample of a PCM system depends upon the a) sampler type b) quantizer type c) number of levels of the quantizer d) sampling rate 76. Which one of the following is used for the detection of AMDSBSC signal a) Ratio detector b) FosterSeeley discriminator c) Product demodulator d) Balancedslpoe detector 77. Which one of the following signal pairs can represent a BPSK signal a) A cos2πfct, A sinπfct b) A cos2πfct,  A sinπfct c)  A cos2πfct, A sinπfct d) A sin2πfct, A cosπfct 78. Which one of the following can be used for the detection of the noncoherent BPSK signal a) matched filter b) phaselocked loop c) envelope detector d) product demodulator 79. Bits of duration Tb are to be transmitted using a BPSK modulation with a carrier of frequency Fc Hz. The power spectral density of the transmitted signal has the first null at the normalized frequency a) F – FcTb = 0 b) F – FcTb = 1 c) F – FcTb = 2 d) F – FcTb = 4 80. The probability of bit error of a BPSK modulation scheme, with transmitted signal energy per bit Eb, in an additive white Gaussian noise channel having onesided power spectral density N0, is a) (1/2) erfc(Eb/2N0) b) (1/2) erfc√(Eb/2N0) c) (1/2) erfc(Eb/N0) d) (1/2) erfc√ (Eb/N0) 81. For a given transmitted pulse p(t), 0<=t<=T, the impulse response of a filter matched to the received signal is a) –p(tT), 0<=t<=T b) –p(Tt), 0<=t<=T c) p(tT), 0<=t<=T d) p(Tt), 0<=t<=T 82. The multiple access communication scheme in which each user is allocated the full available channel spectrum for a specified duration of time is known as a) CDMA b) FDMA c) TDMA d) MCCDMA 83. GSM system uses TDMA with a) 32 users per channel b) 16 users per channel c) 8 users per channel d) 4 users per channel 84. If Rx(τ) is the autocorrelation function of a zeromean widesense stationary random process X, then which one of the following is NOT true? a) Rx(τ) = Rx(τ) b) Rx(τ) = Rx(τ) c) ςx^2 = Rx(0) d) Rx(τ) <=Rx(0) 85. If E denotes the expectation operator, then E[XEX]^3 of a random variable X is a) EX^3 – E^3X b) EX^3 + 2E^3X – 3EX Ex^2 c) 3EX^3 – E^3X d) 2EX^3 + E^3X – 3EX EX^2 86. A discrete memoryless source produces symbols m1,m2,m3 and m4 with probabilities 1/2, 1/4 , 1/8 and 1/8, respectively. The entropy of the source is a) ¼ b) 1 c) 7/4 d) 2 87. A channel has a signaltonoise ratio of 63 and bandwidth of 1200 Hz. The maximum data rate that can be sent through the channel with arbitrary low probability of error is a) 600 bps b) 1200 bps c) 4800 bps d) 7200 bps 88. For the vectors A = X ax + Y ay and B = Z az, del . (A X B) is a) 0 b) 1 c) XZ d) YZ 89. Which one of the following relations represents Strokes’ theorem (symbols have their usual meaning)? a) ∫s del X A.ds = 0 b) ∫L A.dl = ∫s del X A.ds c) ∫s A X dS = ∫v (del X A)dv d) ∫v del.Adv = ∫s A.ds 90. Which one of the following relations is not correct (symbols have their usual meaning)? a) del X E =  ∂B/∂t b) del X H = J + ∂E/∂t c) del.D = ρv d) del.B = 0 91. The electric field component of a uniform plane wave propagating in a lossless magnetic dielectric medium is given by E(t,z)=ax 5cos(10^9 t – 20/3 z)V/m. If η0 represents the intrinsic impedance of the free space, the corresponding magnetic field component is given by a) H(t,z)= ay 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m b) H(t,z)= ay 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m c) H(t,z)= az 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m d) H(t,z)= az 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m 92. The skin depth of a nonmagnetic conducting material at 100 MHz is 0.15 mm. The distance which a plane wave of frequency 10 GHz travels in this material before its amplitude reduces by a factor of e^1 is a) 0.0015 mm b) 0.015 mm c) 0.15 mm d) 1.5 mm 93. A lossless transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 100 ohms and an inductance per unit length of 1 μH/m. If the line is operated at 1 GHz, the propagation constant β is a) 2π rad/m b) 20π/3 rad/m c) 20π rad/m d) 2π *10^5 rad/m 94. When a load resistance Rl is connected to a lossless transmission line of characteristic impedance 75 ohms, it results in a VSWR of 2. The load resistance is a) 100 ohms b) 75√2 ohms c) 120 ohms d) 150 ohms 95. A twoport network characterized by the Sparameter matrix, [S] = [0.3 L0 0.9 L90 0.9 L90 0.2 L0] Is a) both reciprocal and lossless b) reciprocal, but not lossless c) lossless, but not reciprocal d) neither reciprocal nor lossless 96. A lossless air filled rectangular waveguide has internal dimensions of a cm * b cm. If a=2b and the cutoff frequency of the TE02 mode is 12 GHz, the cutoff frequency of the dominant mode is a) 1 GHz b) 3 GHz c) 6 GHz d) 9 GHz 97. A Hertzian dipole antenna is placed at the origin of a coordinate system and it is oriented along zaxis. In which one of the following planes the radiation pattern of the antenna has a circular shape? a) x=0 b) y=0 c) z=0 d) ø=45 98. Which one of the following statements is not true? a) Antenna losses are taken into account in calculating its power gain b) For an antenna which does not dissipate any power, the directive gain and the power gain are equal c) Directivity of an antenna is the maximum value of its directive gain d) The directive gain of a Hertzian dipole is same in all direction 99. The directivity of a half dipole antenna is a) 1.0 b) 1.5 c) 1.64 d) 2 100. Which one of the following is not true for a step index optical fibre? a) It can support multiple modes b) HE11 mode is its lowest order mode c) The refractive index of the cladding is higher than that of the core d) At a given wavelength, single mode operation is possible by proper choice of core diameter, core and cladding refractive indices. SECTION – B 101. Sarnath is situated in the state of a) MP b) Bihar c) Punjab d) UP 102. Green house effect is due to the increase of atmospheric a) CO2 level b) SO2 level c) CO level d) N2 level 103. In the month of July, it is winter in a) New York b) Beijing c) Sydney d) London 104. The chairman of the Planning commission of India is a) The prime minister b) The vicepresident c) The union finance minister d) The union commerce minister 105. The satellite launch vehicle that placed a number of satellites ito orbit in May 2008 is a) PSLVC7 b) PSLVC8 c) PSLVC9 d) PSLVC10 106.DRDO was formed in a) 1947 b) 1950 c) 1954 d) 1958 107. SAMYUKTA is developed for the use of a) Navy b) Army c) Air force d) RAC 108. DARL 202 is a variety of a) pea b) garlic c) capsicum d) tomato 109. TRISHUL is a) a surface to surface battlefield missile b) a quick reaction surface to air missile c) an intermediate range ballistic missile d) a supersonic cruise missile 110. HUMSA is a a) sonar b) tank c) mine d) night vision device 111. The value of 1+2i / 34i + 2I / 5i , where i^2 is 1, is a) 5/2 b) 5/2 c) 2/5 d) 2/5 112. The particular solution of the differential equation d^2y/dx^2 + 2 dy/dx + 5y = 0 satisfying the conditions y(0)=0 and y’(0)=1 is a) y=1/2 e^x cos2x b) y=1/2 e^x sin4x c) y=1/2 e^x sin2x d) y=1/2 e^x cos4x 113. For the vectors A=3i2j+k and B=2ik, the value of (A*B).A is a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 114. The orthogonal trajectory of the family of curves x^2y^2 = a (where a is a constant) and passing through the point (1,1) is a) y=1/x b) y=1/x c) y=x d) y=x 115. The value of the line integral ∫ y^2 dx + 2xydy over the curve x=accost, y=asint is a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4 116. The nth partial sum of the infinite series 1/1*2 + 1/2*3 + 1/3*4+……1/n*(n+1)…….. a) 1/n+1 b) n+2/n+1 c) n/n+1 d) n1/n+1 117. The complexvalued function f(z)=e^z is analytic for a) no z b) all z c) real z only d) imaginary z only 118. The inverse of the matrix [ cos A sin A sin A cos A] is a) [ cos A Sin A b) [cos A sin A} c) [cos A sin A d) [cos A sin A sin A cos A] sin A cos A] sin A cos A] sin A cos A] 119. Consider the function f(x) defined as F(x) = 3x1, x<0 0, x=0 2x+5, x>0 In the following table, List I shows 4 expressions for limits of f(x) and List II indicates the values of the limits List I List II P.Lim x>2 f(x) 1. 1 Q.Lim x>0+ f(x) 2. 9 R.Lim x>0 f(x) 3. 10 S.Lim x>3 f(x) 4. 5 The correct matches are a) P2,Q4,R1,S3 B) P2,Q4,R3,S1 C) P4,Q2,R1,S3 D) P4,Q2,R3,S1 120. Two events A and B with probability 0.5 and 0.7, respectively, have joint probability of 0.4. The probability that neither A nor B happens is a) 0.2 b) 0.4 c) 0.6 d) 0.8 121. Consider the differential equation X^2 d^2/dx^2 + x dy/dx + (x^2  4)y = 0. The statement which is not true for it is a) It is a linear second order ordinary differential equation b) It can not be reduced to a differential equation with constant coefficients c) X=0 is a regular singular point d) It is a nonhomogeneous second order ordinary differential equation 122. The sum of two numbers is 16 and the sum of their squares is a minimum. The two numbers are a) 10,6 b) 9,7 c) 8,8 d) 5,11 123. The value of the definite integral 0∫(π/2)^(1/3) x^2 sin(x^3)dx is a) 1/3 b) 0 c) 1 d) 1/3 124. A circle C2 is concentric with the circle C1 : x^2 + y^2 4x +6y 12 =0 and has a radius twice that of C1. The equation of the circle C2 is a) x^2 + y^2 4x +6y 13 =0 b) x^2 + y^2 4x +6y 87 =0 c) x^2 + y^2 4x +6y 100 =0 d) x^2 + y^2 4x +6y 88 =0 125. Consider the quadratic equation x^2 + px + q =0. If p and q are roots of the equation, the values of p and q are a) p=0, q=0 only b) p=1, q=2 only c) p=0, q=0 and p=1, q=2 d) p=0, q=0 and p=2, q=1 126. Consider the list of words: etiquette, accommodate, forty, exaggerate, continous, independent, receipt. The number of misspelt words are a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 127. Consider the following sentences 1. A few friends he has are all very rich. 2. Do not insult the weak. 3. The later of the two persons was more interesting. 4. All the informations were correct. Out of these sentences, the grammatically correct sentence is a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 128. The appropriate auxiliary verb to fill in the blank of the sentence “Gandhi knew that he __ soon be jailed.”is a) would b) will c) shall d) may 129. The number of missing punctuation marks in the sentence “Rajesh along with Amit went to the market.”is a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 130. The meaning of the word PLAGIARISM is a) theft of public money b) theft of ideas c) belief in one god d) belief in many gods 131. The antonym of the word TRANSIENT is a) certain b) close c) permanent d) fast 132. ACROPHOBIA is the abnormal fear of a) open spaces b) height c) fire d) water 133. The appropriate pair of prepositions to fill in the blank in the sentence “He was angry __ me, because my remarks were aimed __ him.”is a) at,to b) with, at c) with, to d) at, for 134. The appropriate word(s) to fill up the blank in the sentence “ I remember __ voices in the middle of the night.”is (are) a) hear b) to hear c) hearing d) heard 135. The passive voice form of the sentence “I have known him for a long time.”is a) He is known to me for a long time. b) He is known by me for a long time. c) He has been known to me for a long time. d) He has been known by me for a long time. 136. If kennel is to a dog, then __ is to a hen. a) nest b) coop c) hole d) stable 137. If NATION is to 5236765, then NOTION is to a) 573675 b) 563765 c) 576375 d) 557365 138. The next two numbers of the series 3,5,11,21 are a) 34 and 52 b) 34 and 53 c) 35 and 52 d) 35 and 53 139. A, B and C are three places in India with longitudes 80E, 85 E and 90 E respectively. Which one of the following statements about the local times of the places is true? a) Local time of C is ahead of that of B. b) Local time of B is ahead of that of C. c) Local time of A is ahead of that of C. d) A, B and C all have the same local time. 140. In this question, notations +, / and * are used as follows A + B means A is the husband of B. A / B means A is the sister of B. A * B means A is the son of B. With these relations, the relationship denoted by P / Q * R is a) P is son of R b) P is daughter of R c) P is uncle of R d) P is father of R 141. If DELHI is written as EDHIL, then PARIS is written as a) APRIS b) SARIP c) SAPIR d) APISR 142. The number of prime numbers between 10 and 50 is a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 13 143. The odd one in the list : LAN, TCP/IP, HACKER and KILLER is a) LAN b) TCP/IP c) KILLER d) HACKER 144. SAW is to carpenter as SCALPEL is to a) surgeon b) mason c) plumber d) tailor Contact Detail Defence Research and Development Organisation Civil Lines, New Delhi, Delhi Map [MAP]https://www.google.co.in/maps?q=DRDO,+Civil+Lines,+New+Delhi&hl=en&ll=28.68 4075,77.22687&spn=0.011389,0.021136&sll=21.125498, 81.914063&sspn=24.633156,43.286133&oq=DRDO&t=m&z=1 6&iwloc=A[/MAP] 
#3
19th May 2015, 01:59 PM
 
 
Re: DRDO Senior Technical Assistant Exam syllabus and Question papers
Please provide me Syllabus and Previous Years Question Papers of DRDO Senior Technical Assistant Exam for preparation?

#4
19th May 2015, 02:09 PM
 
 
Re: DRDO Senior Technical Assistant Exam syllabus and Question papers
Here I am providing you Syllabus and Previous Years Question Papers of DRDO Senior Technical Assistant Exam for your preparation. DRDO Syllabus for Senior Technical Assistant Exam: STA ‘B’ & Technician ‘A’: General Awareness General Intelligence Reasoning Ability General Science Subject concerned Assistant Hindi: General Awareness General Intelligence Reasoning & Numerical Ability Hindi and English Language Personal Assistant, Admin Assistant ‘A’ & Store Assistant ‘A’: General Awareness General Intelligence Reasoning Numerical Ability General English a Hindi OR English language Civilian Driver ‘A’, Security Assistant ‘A’, Fire Engine Driver and Fireman: General Awareness General Reasoning Arithmetic Numerical Ability Questions related to Job Question Papers of DRDO Senior Technical Assistant Exam: DRDO Senior Technical Assistant Exam Paper 1 more paper detail to attached pdf file; 
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