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8th October 2014, 03:43 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: DRDO Senior Technical Assistant Exam

DRDO is stands for Defence research & Development organization
DRDO has released the information regarding the center for personal talent management.
Now here I am giving you the syllabus pattern of DRDO exam.

Syllabus pattern:
Exam would be objective type.
In exam question number would be 150 maximum.
Candidate can give exam in both medium Hindi & Englisgh.

Exam pattern for Senior Technical Assistant ‘B’ & Technician ‘A’
General Awareness

General Intelligence

Reasoning Ability

General Science

There will be 50 questions from all these topics.

Exam pattern for Assistant Hindi
In the question paper of Assistant Hindi also covers questions from:

General Awareness

General Intelligence

Reasoning

Numerical Ability

There will be also total of 50 questions from all these topics.

Exam pattern of Admin Assistant ‘A’ & Store Assistant ‘A’
General Intelligence

Reasoning

General Awareness

Numerical ability

In this also 50 question would be from these topics.

1. The thermal conductivity k of a liquid metal is predicted via the empirical equation k = Aexp(B/T), where k is in Js-1m-1K-1 and T is absolute temperature in K. A and B are constants. The units of A and B are, respectively,
(A) Js-1m-1K-1 and K-1 (B) Js-1m-1K-1 and K
(C) J-1 smK and K-1 (D) J-1 smK and K
2. % Excess air for combustion process is defined as
(O2 entering the process-O2 required)
(A) % Excess air = ——————————————— x 100
O2 required
(O2 required – O2 entering the process)
(B) % Excess air = ———————————————— x 100
O2 entering the process
O2 required
(C) % Excess air = ———————————————- x 100
(O2 entering the process – O2 required)
O2 entering the process
(D) % Excess air = ———————————————— —– x 100
(O2 required – O2 entering the process)
3. To prepare a solution of 50% sulfuric acid, a dilute waste acid containing 27% sulfuric acid is fortified with a fresh acid containing 96% sulfuric acid. The amount of fresh acid required for each 100 kg of dilute waste acid is
(A) 13.5 kg (B) 25 kg (C) 50 kg (D) 100 kg
4. A flue gas analysis gave 10% O2, 25% CO2 and 65% N2 at 160 °C and 760 mm Hg. The ratio of partial pressures of CO2 to O2 is equal to
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 2.5 (D) 4
5. In the extraction of nicotine from a nicotine-water solution by kerosene, the pressure and temperature are kept constant. The available degree(s) of freedom is/are
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
6. The hydrostatic equation of pressure P with height h of an incompressible fluid of density ρ and specific weight γ is
(A) P = ρ/h (B) P = γ / h
(C) P = ρ h (D) P = γ h
7. A gas is being compressed from an enthalpy of 489 kJ/kg to 509 kJ/kg in a steady state open process. The entry and exit velocities of the gas are zero and 60 m/s, respectively. Assume that there is no heat loss or gain, no reaction, and potential energy change is negligible. If the load is 100 kg/h of gas, the work done on the gas is equal to
(A) 2000 kJ (B) 2180 kJ (C) 2500 kJ (D) 3000 kJ
8. The corresponding Maxwell relation for the Gibbsian equation dG = -SdT +VdP is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Statement for Linked Answer – Questions 9 and 10:
A system is taken from state A to state B along path ACB where 100 J of heat flows into the system and the system does 40 J of work.
9. How much heat flows into the system along path AEB if the work done by the system is 20 J?
(A) 20 J (B) 40 J (C) 60 J (D) 80 J
10. The system returns from B to A along path BDA. If the work done on the system is 30 J, what will be the amount of heat liberated/generated?
(A) -90 J (B) 90 J (C) 30 J (D) -30 J
11. Acentric factor for Argon is
(A) >1 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) <>
12. Wet steam at 270 °C enters a throttling calorimeter with enthalpies of 1200 kJ/kg and 2800 kJ/kg in liquid and gas phase, respectively. It leaves as supersaturated steam at 0.1 MPa and 120 °C with an enthalpy of 2700 kJ/kg. The quality of steam is
(A) 14/16 (B) 13/16 (C) 15/16 (D) 27/40
13. Superheated steam at 3 MPa and 300°C having enthalpy of 3000 kJ/kg enters a turbine at the rate of 1 kg/sec and leaves as dry saturated steam at 60 °C with an enthalpy of 2600 kJ/kg. If kinetic and potential energy changes are ignored, the power output of the turbine is
(A) 400 kW (B) 5600 kW (C) 3000 kW (D) 2600 kW
Statement for Linked Answer – Questions 14 and 15:
A reversible heat engine absorbs 800 kJ as heat from a reservoir at 600 K and rejects 100 kJ energy as heat to a reservoir at 300 K, as shown in the following figure.
Q14. The heat interaction (Q) with reservoir at 400 K is
(A) – 600 kJ (B) 400 kJ (C) – 400 kJ (D) 600 kJ
15. The work done (W) by the engine is
(A) 500 kJ (B) 400 kJ (C) 350 kJ (D) 300 kJ
16. The partial volume of component A in a binary mixture (A – B) is 60 x 10-6 m3/mol. The mole% of A in the mixture is 60%. The density of the mixture is 760 kg/m3. What will be the partial volume (m3/mol) of B in the mixture?
(Given: Molar mass of A is 50 x 10-3 kg/mol; molar mass of B is 20 x 10-3 kg/mol)
(A) 30 x 10-6 (B) 35 x 10-6 (C) 40 x 10-6 (D) 60 x 10-6
17. The enthalpy of vaporization of water at 100 °C is 2300 kJ/kg. The isobaric heat capacities of liquid and vapor are, respectively, 4.0 kJ/kg-K and 2 kJ/kg-K. The enthalpy of vaporization at 150 °C will be
(A) 2400 kJ/kg (B) 2100 kJ/kg (C) 2500 kJ/kg (D) 2200 kJ/kg
18. The following equations have been proposed for an isothermal binary solution where the standard states are the pure components at the solution temperature and pressure:
γ1 = Ax1; γ2 = Bx2
What can be said about the above relation?
(A) It satisfies Gibbs-Duhem equation
(B) It does not satisfy Gibbs-Duhem equation
(C) It is thermodynamically consistent
(D) It satisfies both (A) and (C)
19. The enthalpy change of some reactions are given below:
CO (g) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) ΔH = -300 kJ
H2 (g) + O2 (g) → H2O (1) ΔH = -320 kJ
H2O(1) H2O(g) ΔH = 50 kJ
What will be the enthalpy change for the following reaction:
CO(g) + H2O(g) à CO2 (g) + H2 (g)
(A) -70 kJ (B) 30 kJ (C) -30 kJ (D) 70 kJ
20. The decrease in the Helmholtz Free Energy for system in a given process for which initial and final temperatures are equal to the surrounding temperature indicates.
(A) Maximum work obtained from the system
(B) Minimum work obtained from the system
(C) Minimum work which can be done on the system
(D) Both (A) and (C)
21. The vapor pressures of benzene and toluene at 70 °C are 4 and 6 atm, respectively. A liquid feed of 0.6 moles of toluene at the same temperature is vaporized. Assuming Raoult’s law, the vapor phase mole fraction of benzene at equilibrium is approximately.
(A) 0.30 (B) 0.40 (C) 0.50 (D) 0.60
22. An oil film of viscosity u and thickness h is sheared between a solid stationary wall and a circular disc of radius R, where h < <> The circular disc is rotating with angular speed w. For the same thickness of the film, if the radius of the disc is doubled, the angular speed remaining the same, by what factor the torque on the disc increases?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16
23. A circular fire hose of inner cross-sectional area 100 cm2 is connected to a nozzle whose exit cross-sectional area is 4 cm2. The horizontal nozzle is discharging water at 0.6 m3/minute to the atmosphere. If a pressure gauge is connected to the hose side just before the nozzle, what would be the reading of the pressure gauge?(Density of water = 1000 kg/m3 )
(A) 312 kPa (B) 624 kPa (C) 89 kPa (D) 178 kPa
24. A reciprocating pump has a piston of cross-sectional area A and is connected to a crank of radius r which is rotating with angular velocity ω. The pump is connected to the suction and the delivery pipes whose internal cross-sectional area is A1. The maximum velocity of the fluid element in the suction or delivery pipe is
(A) (B) (C) ωr (D)
25. Assuming that the thrust T of a propeller depends upon the diameter D, speed of advance V, angular velocity ω, dynamic viscosity μ, and density ρ, which of the following dimensionless parameters can be derived by dimensionless analysis?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4
26. The velocity profile u in the boundary layer over a flat plate is given by . where U is the free stream velocity, y is the vertical distance of the velocity point from the flat plate and δ is the boundary layer thickness. The displacement thickness of the boundary layer is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
27. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about thixotropic fluids?
(A) Apparent viscosity depends on the time of shearing
(B) Thixotropy is an irreversible process
(C) Thixotropic fluid shows shear thinning behavior
(D) Thixotropic fluids are in general non-Newtonian fluids.
28. A small liquid droplet of radius 1 mm and density 900 kg/m3 is rising up in a column of water. What is the terminal rise velocity of the drop if creeping flow conditions are assumed?(Given: viscosity of water = 1 cp, Gravitational constant g = 10 m/s2 )
(A) m/s (B) m/s (C) m/s (D) m/s
29. Which of the following is NOT RECOMMENDED to increase the collection efficiency of a cyclone separator?
(A) Increase in particle density
(B) Decrease in gas temperature
(C) Increase in particle diameter
(D) Increase in gas flow rate
Statement for Linked Answer – Questions 30 and 31:
In a fluidized bed operation, spherical particles of 1 mm diameter are packed to a height of 1.0 meter. The porosity of this bed is measured to be 0.4. At the minimum fluidization with air the bed height expands to 1.2 meter.
(Given: Particle density = 1200 kg/m3, Gravitational constant g = 10 m/s2 ).
30. The porosity of the bed at minimum fluidization is
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.3 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.6
31. The approximate value of pressure drop in the bed at minimum fluidization will be
(A) 3600 N/m2 (B) 7200 N/m2 (C) 6000 N/m2 (D) 3000 N/m2
32. In a centrifugal filter the inside radius of the filter basket is R2 and radius of the inner surface of liquid is R1. The centrifuge is rotating with an angular speed ω. Which of the following is true about the pressure drop ΔP from the centrifugal action?
(A) ΔP µ ω1/2 (B) ΔP µ (R22 + R12)
(C) ΔP µ (R22 – R12) (D) ΔP µ ω
33. In a dry crushing operation the mean diameter of the feed and product particles are 100 mm and 1 mm, respectively. The sphericity of the feed and product particles are 0.5 and 1.0, respectively. If the feed particles of 200 mm diameter with the same sphericity are handled at the same feed rate, what will be the percentage increase in power requirement assuming that the product remains the same?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
34. Which of the following is INCORRECT about the boundary layer development over flat infinite plate?
(A) The fluid velocity at solid-liquid interface is zero
(B) The shear rate inside the boundary layer is not zero
(C) The boundary layer thickness increases with distance from the leading edge
(D) The flow in the boundary layer close to the leading edge is turbulent
35. Which of the following velocity field represents an irrotational flow for x, y > 0, x ≠ y?
(A) V = 2 yi – 2x .j
(B) V = 2 xi – 3y,j
(C) V = xy i – xy j
(D) V = xy i + xy j
36. In a laminar flow between two parallel plates separated by a distance H, the head loss varies
(A) directly as H (B) inversely as H2
(C) directly as H2 (D) inversely as H3
37. Two viscous liquids are to be blended by passing through a pipe. Which of the following would be the most suitable condition for axial mixing?
(A) Creeping flow (B) Low Reynolds number flow
(C) High Reynolds number flow (D) Plug flow
38. A U-tube manometer measures
(A) absolute pressure at a point
(B) local atmospheric pressure at a point
(C) difference in total energy between two points
(D) difference in pressure between two points
39. What will happen to the heat loss if foam insulation, with thermal conductivity 0.09 W/m-K is added to a 5 cm outer diameter pipe carrying hot water? (Heat transfer coefficient on the outer surface = 10 W/m2-K)
(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) First increases then decreases (D) Remains constant
40. Biot number (hL/k) is important for which mode of heat transfer?
(A) Natural convection (B) Forced convection
(C) Transient heat conduction (D) Radiation
41. The temperature distribution in a 0.25 m thick wall is given as T (°C) = 250 + bx – cx2,
where x (in meter) is the position of a point with respect to the surface of the wall which is at higher temperature. The thermal conductivity of the wall is 5.95 W/m-°C. What will be the value of b if the surface at x = 0 is insulated?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) – 1 (D) 0.5
42. When momentum diffusivity is greater than the thermal diffusivity, the velocity boundary layer
(A) develops faster than the thermal boundary layer
(B) develops slower than the thermal boundary layer
(C) grows together
(D) disappears
43. An aluminium ball of area 0.5 m2 and mass 10 kg is cooled in ambient at 25 °C. When the temperature of the ball is 125 °C, it is found to cool at the rate of 6 °C/min. What will be the surface heat transfer coefficient?
(Given, Cp = 0.5 kJ/kg-°C)
(A) 0.5 W/m2-°C (B) 0.01 W/m2-°C
(C) 0.05 W/m2-°C (D) 0.l W/m2-°C
44. Water at 25 °C enters a pipe with internal diameter 2 cm having a constant wall heat flux of 1 KW/m2. The flow is hydro dynamically and thermally fully developed. What will be the difference between the local wall temperature and the local mean (bulk) temperature? (Thermal conductivity of pipe = 0.4 W/m-°C; Nusselt Number = 5.0)
(A) 5 °C (B) 15 °C (C) 10 °C (D) 50 °C
45. When some liquid nitrogen spills on the floor of a laboratory, the droplets move so briskly that they appear to be dancing before they disappear. This phenomenon
(A) is related to pool boiling (B) is related to film boiling
(C) is related to nucleate boiling (D) has nothing to do with boiling
46. Consider sphere 1 enclosed by sphere 2 as shown in the following figure. The area of sphere 2 is double the area of sphere 1. What are the various view factors (F1I, F12, F21, F22)?
(A) 0, 0.5, 0.5, 1 (B) 0.5, 1, 1, 0.5
(C) 0.5, 0.5, 0, 1 (D) 0, 1, 0.5, 0.5
47. A triple-effect evaporator is concentrating a liquid that has no appreciable elevation in boiling point. The temperature of the steam to the first effect is 110 °C and the boiling point of the solution in the last effect is 50 °C. The ratio of the heat transfer resistance of the first effect to that of the overall heat transfer resistance is 0.2. At what temperature will the liquid boil in the first effect?
(A) 95 °C (B) 98 °C (C) 90 °C (D) 92 °C
48. Gas A is being cracked on a catalyst as per the reaction, A→2B+C in such a way that A diffuses to the cracking surface and B diffuses back, while C is not diffusing. At steady state what will be the ratio of molar flux of A to the total molar flux?
(A) 1/3 (B) –1 (C) 2 (D) 2/3
49. The eddy momentum diffusivity, the thermal diffusivity and the mass diffusivity will be same for most of the gases when
(A) both Prandtl and Schmidt numbers are equal to 1.2
(B) both Prandtl and Schmidt numbers are equal to 10.0
(C) both Prandtl and Schmidt numbers are equal to 0.1
(D) both Prandtl and Schmidt numbers are equal to 1.0
50. According to surface renewal theory, the average mass transfer coefficient is directly proportional to
(A) DAB (B) (C) (D)
51. For the flow of a fluid at right angles to a circular cylinder, the average heat transfer coefficient around the periphery is given by Nu = a + b Re”‘ Pr”, where, Nu is Nusselt Number, Sh is Sherwood Number, Pr is Prandtl Number, Sc is Schmidt Number and a, b, m, n are constants. The analogous expression for the mass transfer can be expressed as
(A) Sh = a + b Re”‘ Sc” (B) Sh = b + a Re”‘ Sc”
(C) Nu = m + n Re” Scb (D) Nu = n + m Re” Scv
Statement for Linked Answer – Questions 52 and 53:
A horizontal spray chamber with recirculated water is used for adiabatic humidification and cooling of air. Air with humidity of 0.01 kg water per kg of dry air is entering the unit with a flow rate of 2 kg/m2-s. The humidity of exit stream is 0.02 kg water per kg of dry air. The active part of the chamber is 1.0 m long. The humidity at the saturated condition is 0.03 kg water per kg of dry air.
52. The volumetric gas phase mass transfer coefficient in kg/m3-s in the operation is equal to
(A) ln 2 (B) ln 3 (C) ln 4 (D) ln 5
53. If a duplicate spray chamber operating in the same manner were to be added in series with the existing chamber, the expected humidity of the outlet air in kg water per kg of dry air is equal to
(A) 0.03 (B) 0.02 (C) 0.025 (D) 0.05
54. A saturated liquid mixture with 50% (mole basis) of more volatile component is to be separated in a continuous distillation column. The mole% of more volatile component in the distillate is 90. The constant relative volatility of more volatile component is 1.5. Assuming McCabe-Thiele method, the minimum reflux ratio for this operation is
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 2.5 (D) 1
55. In a perfectly mixed flow model, the ratio of the Murphree plate efficiency to the point efficiency is equal to
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) <> 1
Statement for Linked Answer – Questions 56 and 57:
A waste stream of organic vapor in a gas from a process was adsorbed by solid particles in packed bed of length 20 cm. The breakpoint concentration is set at C/C0 = 0.10 and the breakpoint time is 4 hours.
56. What will be the time equivalent to the unusable capacity of the bed up to the breakpoint time?
(A) 3 hours (B) 1.5 hours (C) 4 hours (D) 3.6 hours
57. The stoichiometric capacity of the bed is 7.2 hours. What will be the length of unused bed for this operation?
(A) 7.2 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 10 cm (D) 4 cm
58. In liquid-liquid extraction, the solvent B is used to separate solute C from a given solution of A and C. If A and B are completely insoluble in one another, the selectivity of B will be
(A) ∞ (B) 0 (C) <>
59. A batch of wet solid is to be dried from 80% to 50% moisture (wet basis). The drying surface is 1 m2/10 kg of dried solid. The drying takes place within the constant rate period. The constant flux of drying is 0.3 x 10-3 kg/m2-s. The drying time is
(A) 102 s (B) 103 s (C) 104 s (D) 105 s
60. A gas with a flow rate of 25 mol/m2.s is scrubbed by a pure liquid to remove a component in a counter-current packed bed column. The specific interfacial area of the packing material is 1 m-1. The individual gas-film mass transfer coefficient is 25 mol/m2.s. If the overall mass transfer resistance is 50% of the individual gas-film mass transfer resistance, the overall height of gas phase transfer unit (HTU)og is
(A) 0.5 m (B) 1.0 m (C) 2.0 m (D) 2.5 m
61. If L is the liquid flow rate. G is the gas flow rate and m is the slope of the equilibrium line, the absorption factor is
(A) mL / G (B) G / mL (C) L / mG (D) LG / m
62. A vessel dispersion number of zero indicates
(A) plug flow behavior (B) mixed flow behavior
(C) batch reactor behavior (D) both (B) and (C)
63. For the E curve shown below, the shaded region represents
E
tj
Time (t)
(A) fraction of inlet stream older than time t1
(B) fraction of exit stream younger than time tl
(C) fraction of exit stream older than time t1
(D) fraction of inlet stream younger than time t1
64. A first order reaction takes place in a single cylindrical pore having strong diffusion resistance. For a particle size (R), the rate of the reaction varies
(A) directly with R
(B) directly with √R
(C) inversely with ¬√R
(D) inversely with R
65. The response curve for a step input signal from a reactor is called C curve. The variance of C curve in a `tank in series model’ comprising of `n’ tanks is
(A) n (B) 1/n (C) n0.5 (D) n2
66. Calculate the weight of the catalyst required for the 75% conversion of sample A (CAO = 8 mol/m3) in a mixed flow reactor at a flow rate of 1000 mole/min.
(The weight time of the operation is 4.15 kg s/m3)
(A) 500 kg (B) 519 kg (C) 525 kg (D) 600 kg
67. In an endothermic reaction, for an increase in temperature, the equilibrium conversion
(A) rises (B) falls
(C) remains constant (D) first increases then decreases
Statement for Linked Answer – Questions 68 and 69:
Aqueous phase decomposition of A is investigated in two mixed flow reactors in series. The second reactor is having twice the volume of the first reactor. At steady state with a feed of 1 mole/litre and mean residence time of 96 seconds in first reactor, the concentration of A in the first reactor is 0.5 mol/litre and in the second 0.25 mol/litre.
68. The order of the reaction is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 3
69. The rate constant (lit/mol-min) is
(A) 1.5 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1.25
70. For a zero order reaction in a varying volume batch reactor, the correct equation is
71. The following figure shows the temperature dependency on the reaction rate for two sets of reactions I and II. Choose the INCORRECT statement.

(A) Reaction I is temperature sensitive
(B) Reactions I and II represent high and low activation energies respectively
(C) Reactions I and II represent low and high activation energies respectively
(D) Reaction II is temperature insensitive
72. For a particular reaction where order of the reaction is less than one, the CORRECT sequence of reactors for efficient use is
(A) Small MFR, Large MFR, PFR (B) Large MFR, Small MFR, PFR
(C) PFR, Large MFR. Small MFR (D) PFR, Small MFR, Large MFR
73. The half-life period of the reaction A → products is independent of the initial concentration of the reactant A if the order of the reaction is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 1/2
Statement for Linked Answer – Questions 74 and 75:
Chemical A reacts to form R (k1 = 8 hr-1) and chemical R reacts to form S (k2 = 3 hr-1). In addition R slowly decomposes to form T (k3 = 1 hr-1). A solution containing 1 mol/litre of A is introduced into a batch reactor.
74. What is the maximum concentration of R (mol/lit)?
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.75 (D) 1.0
75. How long will it take (in hours) for R to reach its maximum concentration?
(A) ln 2 (B) ln 2 (C) ln 2 (D) 2 1n 2
76. Ordinary mercury-in-glass thermometer (without any covering or air gap) is an
example of
(A) zero-order system (B) first-order system
(C) second-order system (D) third-order system
77. The symbol of the type __________ denotes
(A) Pneumatic line (B) Fluid pressure line
(C) Electrical line (D) Software link
78. The Laplace transform of sin (kt) is
(A) k /(s2 + k2) (B) s /(s2 + k2)
(C) k /(s2 – k2) (D) s /(s2 – k2)
79. A control system is unstable if the open loop frequency response exhibits an amplitude ratio exceeding unity at the cross-over frequency. This is
(A) Bode stability criteria (B) Routh stability criteria
(C) Nyquist criteria (D) Root-locus criteria
80. What will be the maximum value of K(such that a closed loop system having the following characteristic equation is stable ?
s3 + 6s2 + 11s + 6 (1+KC) = 0
(A) KC <>C <>C < (D) KC <
81. The transfer function of a proportional-integral-derivative (PID) controller is
(A) = KC (1 + τD S + τD S) (B) = KC + τD + τD S
(C) = KC (D) =
82. For the block diagram shown below what will be the overall transfer function for the change in set point (U = 0)?
(A) = (B) =
(C) = (D) =
83. The amplitude ratio (AR) for the sinusoidal response of a first-order system is always
(A) <1>1 (C) 1 (D) 0
84. Solenoid valve works like
(A) Proportional controller (B) PD controller
(C) PID controller (D) On-off controller
85. The final product from a chemical plant is composed of two materials A and B with some of each being required. The total cost per unit of the finished product is
CT = Rupees/unit.
If the amount of A is fixed, the amount of B required for minimum total cost of product is
(A) (B) (C) A/36 (D) 720A
86. Which of the following is NOT a function of baffle in the shell-and-tube heat exchanger?
(A) Direct the flow across the tube bundle
(B} Support the tube from sagging
(C) Arrest the vibration of the tubes
(D) Decrease the turbulence of the fluid
87. Match the following:
(1) Microfiltration (P) Solution/diffusion
(2) Reverse Osmosis (Q) Size exclusion
(3) Distillation (R) Vapor/liquid equilibria
(4) Stripping (S) Absorption
(A) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R. 4-S (B) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-R, 4-S
(C) 1-S, 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q (D) 1-R, 2-Q, 3-S, 4-P
88. What is the cross-flow area in the case of a shell-and-tube heat exchanger where inside diameter of the shell is 5 m, baffle spacing 0.5 m, clearance between the tubes 5 cm, outside diameter of the tube 10 cm and pitch of the tube 2 cm?
(A) 12.5 m2 (B) 6.25 m2 (C) 22.5 m2 (D) 10 m2
89. A chemical company has purchased leaf pressure filters with 100 ft2 for purifying an inorganic liquid stream at the cost of Rs. 15000. In a similar application the company will need 900 ft2 leaf pressure filter. The size exponent of this type of filter is 0.5. The purchased price of the 900 ft2 filter will be
(A) Rs.135000 (B) Rs. 67500 (C) Rs. 45000 (D) Rs. 90000
90. Which of the following results in book values greater than those obtained with the straight line method?
(A) Declining balance method (B) Sum-of-the years digit method
(C) Multiple straight line method (D) Sinking fund method
91. The Darcy’s law is used to calculate
(A) heat transfer coefficient
(B) friction factor in pipe flow
(C) permeability of porous medium
(D) vapor pressure in azeotropic mixtures
92. `Total capital investment’ for a chemical process plant comprises of the fixed capital investment and the
(A) working capital (B) indirect production costs
(C) direct production costs (D) overhead costs
93. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT for the manufacture of sulfuric acid by contact process?
(A) Yield is higher than the chamber process
(B) Catalyst used is vanadium pentoxide on a porous carrier
(C) Final scrubbing is done using concentrated sulfuric acid only
(D) Optimization of space velocity in catalyst chamber is a major engineering problem.
94. Match the following:
(1) Paper (P) Zeigler
(2) Soda ash (Q) Sachsse
(3) Polyethylene (R) Kraft
(4) Acetylene (S) Solvay
(A) 1-P, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-S (B) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S
(C) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P (D) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q
95. Match the following:
(1) Maleic anhydride (P) Ag0
(2) DDT (Q) NH3
(3) Ethylene oxide (R) V205
(4) Soda ash (S) Oleum
(A) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q (B) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P
(C) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-P (D) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S
96. Match the following:
(1) Parathion (P) Lead oxide
(2) Margarine (Q) Pesticide
(3) Litharge (R) Enzyme
(4) Lipase (S) Fat
(A) 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R (B) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P
(C) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R (D) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q
97. Cetane number of diesel is the measure of its
(A) smoke point (B) ignition delay
(C) viscosity (D) oxidation stability
98. Choose the CORRECT statement from the following:
(A) Aromatics have lowest octane number
(B) Paraffins are the hardest to crack
(C) Dearomatisation of kerosene increases its smoke point
(D) Aniline point is a property of LPG
99. Choose the INCORRECT statement from the following:
(A) SBR compared to natural rubber has poor tensile strength
(B) Silicone is an inorganic polymer
(C) Nylon-6 is a polyamide
(D) Neoprene is an elastomer
100. Match the following:
(1) Permanent hardness of water (P) Steam distillation
(2) Alkyl group of detergent (Q)Cation/anion exchanger
(3) Rancidity of oil (R) Hydrogenation
(4) Essential oil (S) Hydrophobic
(A) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-R, 4-P (B) 1-Q, 2-R, 3-S, 4-P
(C) 1-R, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-S (D) 1-S, 2-P, 3-R, 4-Q

Part 1

1.The current I in the given network.
a) 1A b) 3A c) 5A d) 7A

2.For the Delta- Wye transformation in given figure, the value of the resistance R is.
a) 1/3 ohms b) 2/3 ohms c) 3/2 ohms d) 3 ohms

3.In the given network, the Thevenin’s equivalent as seen by the load resistance Rl is
a) V=10 V, R= 2ohms b) V=10V, R=3 ohms c) V=15V, R= 2ohms d) V=15V, R=3 ohms

4.The current I in a series R-L circuit with R=10 ohms and L=20mH is given by i=2sin500t A. If v is the voltage across the R-L combination then i
a) lags v by 45 degree b) is in-phase with v c) leads v by 45 d) lags v by 90

5.In thr given network, the mesh current I and the input impedance seen by the 50 V source, respectively, are
a) 125/13 A and 11/8 ohms b) 150/13 A and 13/8 ohms c) 150/13 A and 11/8 ohms d) 125/13 A and 13/8 ohms

6.A voltage sourcehaving a source impedance Z = R + jX can deliver maximum Average power to a load impedance Z, when
a) Z = R + jX b) Z = R c) Z = jX d) Z = R –jX

7.In the given circuit, the switch S is closed at t=0. Assuming that there is no initial Charge in the capacitor, the current i(t) for t>0 is
a) V/R e^ (-2t/RC) b) V/R e^ (-t/RC) c) V/2R e^ (-2t/RC) d) V/2R e^ (-t/RC)

8.For the circuit in given figure, if e(t) is a ramp signal, the steady state value of the Output voltage v(t) is
a) 0 b) LC c) R/L d) RC

9.For the series RLC circuit in given figure, if w=1000 rad/sec, then the current I (in Amperes) is
a) 2 ∟-15 b) 2 ∟15 c) √2∟-15 d) √2∟15

10.The Y-parameter matrix (mA/V) of the two-port given network is
a) [2 -1 -1 2] b) [2 1 -1 2] c) [1 -2 -1 2] d) [2 1 1 2]

11.The maximum number of trees of the given graph is
a) 16 b) 25 c) 100 d) 125

12.Given figure shows a graph and one of its trees. Corresponding to the tree, the group of branches that CAN NOT constitute a fundamental cut set is
a) 1,2,3 b) 1,4,6,8,3 c) 5,6,8,3 d) 4,6,7,3


13.The Y-parameter matrix of a network is given by Y=[1 1 -1 1] A/V. The Z11 parameter of the same network is
a) ½ ohms b) 1/√2 ohms c) 1 ohms d) 2 ohms

14.For the given circuit, the switch was kept closed for a long time before opening it at t=0. The voltage v(0+) is
a) -10 V b) -1 V c) 0V d) 10 V

15.The input impedance of a series RLC circuit operating at frequency W=√2w, w being the resonant frequency, is
a) R-j(wL/√2) ohms b) R+j(wL/√2) ohms c) R-j√2wL ohms d) R-j√2wL ohms

16.The threshold voltage V is negative for
a) an n-channel enhancement MOSFET b) an n-channel depletion MOSFET c) an p-channel depletion MOSFET d) an p-channel JFET

17.At a given temperature, a semiconductor with intrinsic carrier concentration ni= 10 ^ 16 / m^3 is doped with a donor dopant of concentration Nd = 10 ^ 26 /m^3. Temperature remaining the same, the hole concentration in the doped semiconductor is
a) 10 ^ 26 /m^3 b) 10 ^ 16 /m^3 c) 10 ^ 14 /m^3 d) 10 ^ 6 /m^3}

18.At room temperature, the diffusion and drift constants for holes in a P-type semiconductor were measured to be Dp = 10 cm^2/s and µp = 1200 cm^2/V-s, respectively. If the diffusion constant of electrons in an N-type semiconductor at the same temperature is Dn = 20 cm^2/s, the drift constant for electrons in it is
a) µn = 2400 cm^2/V-s b) µn = 1200 cm^2/V-s c) µn = 1000 cm^2/V-s d) µn = 600 cm^2/V-s

19.A common LED is made up of
a) intrinsic semiconductor b) direct semiconductor c) degenerate semiconductor d) indirect semiconductor

20.When operating as a voltage regulator, the breakdown in a Zener diode occurs due to the
a) tunneling effect b) avalanche breakdown c) impact ionization d) excess heating of the junction.

21.If the common base DC current gain of a BJT is 0.98, its common emitter DC current gain is
a) 51 b) 49 c) 1 d) 0.02

22.Negative resistance characteristics is exhibited by a
a) Zener diode b) Schottky diode c) photo diode d) Tunnel diode


23.Let En and Ep, respectively, represent the effective Fermi levels for electrons and holes during current conduction in a semiconductor. For lasing to occur in a P-N junction of band-gap energy 1.2 eV, (En - Ep) should be
a) greater than 1.2eV b) less than 1.2eV c) equal to 1.1eV d) equal to 0.7eV

24.In a P-well fabrication process, the substrate is
a) N-type semiconductor and is used to build P-channel MOSFET
b) P-type semiconductor and is used to build P-channel MOSFET
c) N-type semiconductor and is used to build N-channel MOSFET
d) P-type semiconductor and is used to build N-channel MOSFET

25.In a MOS capacitor with n-type silicon substrate, the Fermi potential ¢ = -0.41 V and the flat-band voltage Vfb = 0V. The value of the threshold voltage Vt is
a) -0.82 V b) -0.41 V c) 0.41 V d) 0.82

Refer given figure for question 26 and 27. Assume D1 and D2 to be ideal diodes.
26.Which one of the following statements is true?
a) Both D1 and D2 are ON.
b) Both D1 and D2 are OFF.
c) D1 is ON and D2 is OFF.
d) D2 is ON and D1 is OFF.

27.Values of Vo and I, respectively, are
a) 2V and 1.1 mA b) 0V and 0 mA c) -2V and 0.7 mA d) 4V and 1.3 mA

28.In a BJT CASCODE pair, a
a) common emitter follows a common base
b) common base follows a common collector
c) common collector follows a common base
d) common base follows a common emitter

29.Inside a 741 op-amp, the last functional block is a
a) differential amplifier b) level shifter c) class-A power amplifier d) class-AB power amplifier

30.For the MOSFET in the given circuit, the threshold voltage Vt = 0.5V, the process parameter KP = 150 µA/V^2 and W/L = 10. The values of Vd and Id, respectively, are
a) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 1 mA
b) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 0.5 mA
c) Vd = 4.8 V and Id = 0.4 mA
d) Vd = 6 V and Id = 0 mA
31.A negative feedback is applied to an amplifier with the feedback voltage proportional to the output current. This feedback increases the
a) input impedance of the amplifier b) output impedance of the amplifier c) distortion in the amplifier d) gain of the amplifier
32.The early effect in a BJT is modeled by the small signal parameter
a) r0 b) r∏ c) gm d) β
33.For a given filter order, which one of the following type of filters has the least amount of ripple both in pass-band and stop-band?
a) Chebyshev type I b) Bessel c) Chebyshev type II d) Elliptic
34.For a practical feedback circuit to have sustained oscillation, the most appropriate value of the loop gain T is
a) 1 b) -1 c) -1.02 d) 1.02
35.Assume the op-amps in given figure to be ideal. If the input signal vi is a sinusoid of 2V peak-to-peak and with zero DC component, the output signal vo is a
a) sine wave b) square wave c) pulse train d) triangular wave
36.In a common source amplifier, the mid-band voltage gain is 40 dB and the upper cutoff frequency is 150kHz. Assuming single pole approximation for the amplifier the unity gain frequency fT is
a) 6 MHz b) 15 MHz c) 150 MHz d) 1.5 GHz
37.An op-amp is ideal except for finite gain and CMRR. Given the open loop differential gain Ad=2000, CMRR = 1000, the input to the noninverting terminal is 5.002 V and the input to the inverting terminal is 4.999 V, the output voltage of the op-amp is
a) 14 V b) 24 V c) -6 V c) -8 V

38.The op-amp in the circuit in given figure has a non-zero DC offset. The steady state value of the output voltage Vo is
a) –RC dvs(t)/ dt b) – (1/RC)|vs(t)dt c) –V d) +V

39.For the circuit in given figure, if the value of the capacitor C is doubled, the duty-cycle of the output waveform Vo
a) increases by a factor of 2 b) increases by a factor of 1.44 c) remains constant d) decreases by a factor of 1.44

40.Assume the op-amp in the given circuit to be ideal. The value of the output voltage Vo is
a) 3.2 Vi b) 4 Vi c) 9 Vi d) 10 Vi

41.The complement of the Boolean expression F = (X + Y¯ + Z)(X¯ + Z¯)(X + Y) is
a) XYZ+XZ¯+Y¯Z b) X¯YZ¯+XZ+X¯Y¯ c) X¯YZ¯+XZ+YZ d) XYZ+X¯Y¯

42.The Boolean function F(A,B,C,D) = ∑(0,6,8,13,14) with don’t care conditions d(A,B,C,D) = ∑(2,4,10) can be simplified to
a) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯ b) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯D c) F = AB¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯ d) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABCD

43.The Boolean function F = A¯D¯+B¯D can be realized by one of the following figures

44. For the multiplexer in given figure, the Boolean expression for the output Y is
a) A¯B¯+B¯C¯+AC b) AB¯+B¯C¯+AC¯ c) AB¯+B¯C+AC d) A¯B¯+B¯C+A¯C

45. Which one of the following is TRUE?
a) Both latch and flip-flop are edge triggered.
b) A latch is level triggered and a flip-flop is edge triggered.
c) A latch is edge triggered and a flip-flop is level triggered.
d) Both latch and flip-flop are level triggered.

46. In a schottky TTL gate, the Schottky diode
e) increases the propagation delay
f) increases the power consumption
g) prevents saturation of the output transistor
h) keeps the transistor in cutoff region

47. For which one of the following ultraviolet light is used to erase the stored contents
a) PROM b) EPROM c) EEPROM d) PLA

48. Which one of the following is NOT a synchronous counter
a) Johnson counter b) Ring counter c) Ripple counter d) Up-down counter

49. In 8085 microprocessor, the accumulator is a
a) 4 bit register b) 8 bit register c) 16 bit register d) 32 bit register
50. In the register indirect addressing mode of 8085 microprocessor, data is stored
a) at the address contained in the register pair
b) in the register pair
c) in the accumulator
d) in a fixed location of the memory

51. The output w[n] of the system shown in given figure is
a) x[n] b) x[n-1] c) x[n] – x[n-1] d) 0.5(x[n-1] + x[n])

52. Which one of the following is a periodic signal
a) x(t) = 2 e^j(t+(π/4)) b) x[n] = u[n] + u[-n] c) x[n] = ∑{∂[n-4k]-∂[n-1-4k]} where k = -∞to ∞ d) x(t) = e^ (-1+j)t

53. If the input-output relation of a system is y(t) = ∫x(t) dt where t = -∞ to 2t
a) linear, time-invariant and unstable
b) linear, non-causal and unstable
c) linear, causal and time invariant
d) non-causal, time invariant and unstable

54. Which one of the can be the magnitude of the transfer function | H(jw) | of a causal system

55. Consider the function H(jw) = H1(w) + jH2(w), where H1(w) is an odd function and H2(w) is an even function. The inverse Fourier transform of H(jw) is
a) a real and odd function
b) a complex function
c) a purely imaginary function
d) a purely imaginary and odd function

56. The laplace transform of given signal is
a) –A((1-e^cs)/s) b) A((1-e^cs)/s) c) A((1-e^-cs)/s) d) –A((1-e^-cs)/s)

57. If X(z) is the z-transform of x[n] = (1/2)^ |n|, the ROC of X(z) is
a) |z| > 2 b) |z| < 2 c) 0.5<|z|<2 d) the entire z-plane

58. In a linear phase system, τg the group delay and τp the phase delay are
a) constant and equal to each other b) τg is a constant and τp is proportional to w c) a constant and τg is proportional to w d) τg is proportional to w and τp is proportional to w

59. A signal m(t), band-limited to a maximum frequency of 20 kHz is sampled at a frequency fs kHz to generate s(t). An ideal low pass filter having cut-off frequency 37 kHz is used to reconstruct m(t) from s(t). The maximum value of fs required to reconstruct m(t) without distortion is
a) 20 kHz b) 40kHz c) 57 kHz d) 77 kHz

60. If the signal x(t) shown in given figure is fed to an LTI system having impulse response h(t) as shown in given figure, the value of the DC component present in the output y(t) is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

61. The characteristic equation of an LTI system is given as s^3 + Ks^2 + 5s + 10. When the system is marginally stable, the value of K and the sustained oscillation frequency w, respectively, are
a) 2 and 5 b) 0.5 and √5 c) 0.5 and 5 d) 2 and √5

62. The time required for the response of a linear time-variant system to reach half the final value for the first time is
a) delay time b) peak time c) rise time d) decay time

63. The signal flow graph of the given network is

64. Let c(t) be the unit step response of a system with transfer function K(s+a)/(s+K). If c(0+)=2 and c(∞)=10, then the values of a and K, respectively, are
a) 2 and 10 b) -2 and 10 c) 10 and 2 d) 2 and -10

65. The loop transfer function of an LTI system is G(s)H(s)= K(s+1)(s+5) / s(s+2)(s+3). For K>0, the point on the real axis that DOES NOT belong to the root locus of the system is
a) -0.5 b) -2.5 c) -3.5 d) -5.5

66. The state space equation of the circuit shown in given figure for x1=v0, x2=I is

67. The open loop gain of a unity feedback system is G(s)=wn^2 / s(s+2wn). The unit step response c(t) of the system is

69. The angles of the asymptotes of the root loci of the equation s^3 + 5s^2 + (K+2)s + K = 0, for 0<=K<∞, are
a) 0 and 270 b) 0 and 180 c) 90 and 270 d) 90 and 180

70. The bode plot corresponding to a proportional derivative controller is the one shown in given figure

71. In frequency modulation, the instantaneous
a) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal
b) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal
c) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal
d) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal

72. If X is a zero mean Gaussian random variable, then P{X<=0} is
a) 0 b) 0.25 c) 0.5 d) 1

73. If a single-tone amplitude modulated signal at a modulation depth of 100% transmits a total power of 15W, the power in the carrier component is
a) 5W b) 10W c) 12W d) 15W

74. In a superheterodyne receiver, rejection of the image signal can be achieved by using a
a) higher local oscillatorn frequency b) crystal oscillator c) narrow band IF filter d) narrow band filter at RF stage

75. The number of bbits per sample of a PCM system depends upon the
a) sampler type b) quantizer type c) number of levels of the quantizer d) sampling rate

76. Which one of the following is used for the detection of AM-DSB-SC signal
a) Ratio detector b) Foster-Seeley discriminator c) Product demodulator d) Balanced-slpoe detector

77. Which one of the following signal pairs can represent a BPSK signal
a) A cos2πfct, A sinπfct
b) A cos2πfct, - A sinπfct
c) - A cos2πfct, A sinπfct
d) A sin2πfct, A cosπfct

78. Which one of the following can be used for the detection of the noncoherent BPSK signal
a) matched filter b) phase-locked loop c) envelope detector
d) product demodulator

79. Bits of duration Tb are to be transmitted using a BPSK modulation with a carrier of frequency Fc Hz. The power spectral density of the transmitted signal has the first null at the normalized frequency
a) |F – Fc|Tb = 0 b) |F – Fc|Tb = 1 c) |F – Fc|Tb = 2 d) |F – Fc|Tb = 4

80. The probability of bit error of a BPSK modulation scheme, with transmitted signal energy per bit Eb, in an additive white Gaussian noise channel having one-sided power spectral density N0, is
a) (1/2) erfc(Eb/2N0) b) (1/2) erfc√(Eb/2N0) c) (1/2) erfc(Eb/N0) d) (1/2) erfc√ (Eb/N0)

81. For a given transmitted pulse p(t), 0<=t<=T, the impulse response of a filter matched to the received signal is
a) –p(t-T), 0<=t<=T b) –p(T-t), 0<=t<=T c) p(t-T), 0<=t<=T d) p(T-t), 0<=t<=T

82. The multiple access communication scheme in which each user is allocated the full available channel spectrum for a specified duration of time is known as
a) CDMA b) FDMA c) TDMA d) MC-CDMA

83. GSM system uses TDMA with
a) 32 users per channel b) 16 users per channel c) 8 users per channel d) 4 users per channel

84. If Rx(τ) is the auto-correlation function of a zero-mean wide-sense stationary random process X, then which one of the following is NOT true?
a) Rx(τ) = Rx(-τ) b) Rx(τ) = -Rx(-τ) c) σx^2 = Rx(0) d) |Rx(τ)| <=Rx(0)

85. If E denotes the expectation operator, then E[X-EX]^3 of a random variable X is
a) EX^3 – E^3X b) EX^3 + 2E^3X – 3EX Ex^2 c) 3EX^3 – E^3X d) 2EX^3 + E^3X – 3EX EX^2

86. A discrete memoryless source produces symbols m1,m2,m3 and m4 with probabilities 1/2, 1/4 , 1/8 and 1/8, respectively. The entropy of the source is
a) ¼ b) 1 c) 7/4 d) 2

87. A channel has a signal-to-noise ratio of 63 and bandwidth of 1200 Hz. The maximum data rate that can be sent through the channel with arbitrary low probability of error is
a) 600 bps b) 1200 bps c) 4800 bps d) 7200 bps

88. For the vectors A = X ax + Y ay and B = Z az, del . (A X B) is
a) 0 b) 1 c) XZ d) YZ

89. Which one of the following relations represents Strokes’ theorem (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) ∫s del X A.ds = 0 b) ∫L A.dl = ∫s del X A.ds c) ∫s A X dS = -∫v (del X A)dv d) ∫v del.Adv = ∫s A.ds

90. Which one of the following relations is not correct (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) del X E = - ∂B/∂t b) del X H = J + ∂E/∂t c) del.D = ρv d) del.B = 0

91. The electric field component of a uniform plane wave propagating in a lossless magnetic dielectric medium is given by E(t,z)=ax 5cos(10^9 t – 20/3 z)V/m. If η0 represents the intrinsic impedance of the free space, the corresponding magnetic field component is given by
a) H(t,z)= ay 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
b) H(t,z)= ay 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
c) H(t,z)= az 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
d) H(t,z)= az 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m

92. The skin depth of a non-magnetic conducting material at 100 MHz is 0.15 mm. The distance which a plane wave of frequency 10 GHz travels in this material before its amplitude reduces by a factor of e^-1 is
a) 0.0015 mm b) 0.015 mm c) 0.15 mm d) 1.5 mm

93. A lossless transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 100 ohms and an inductance per unit length of 1 μH/m. If the line is operated at 1 GHz, the propagation constant β is
a) 2π rad/m b) 20π/3 rad/m c) 20π rad/m d) 2π *10^5 rad/m
  #3  
8th October 2014, 03:43 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: DRDO Senior Technical Assistant Exam

94. When a load resistance Rl is connected to a lossless transmission line of characteristic impedance 75 ohms, it results in a VSWR of 2. The load resistance is
a) 100 ohms b) 75√2 ohms c) 120 ohms d) 150 ohms

95. A two-port network characterized by the S-parameter matrix, [S] = [0.3 L0 0.9 L90

0.9 L90 0.2 L0]

Is

a) both reciprocal and lossless b) reciprocal, but not lossless c) lossless, but not reciprocal d) neither reciprocal nor lossless

96. A lossless air filled rectangular waveguide has internal dimensions of a cm * b cm. If a=2b and the cutoff frequency of the TE02 mode is 12 GHz, the cutoff frequency of the dominant mode is
a) 1 GHz b) 3 GHz c) 6 GHz d) 9 GHz

97. A Hertzian dipole antenna is placed at the origin of a coordinate system and it is oriented along z-axis. In which one of the following planes the radiation pattern of the antenna has a circular shape?
a) x=0 b) y=0 c) z=0 d) ø=45

98. Which one of the following statements is not true?
a) Antenna losses are taken into account in calculating its power gain
b) For an antenna which does not dissipate any power, the directive gain and the power gain are equal
c) Directivity of an antenna is the maximum value of its directive gain
d) The directive gain of a Hertzian dipole is same in all direction

99. The directivity of a half dipole antenna is
a) 1.0 b) 1.5 c) 1.64 d) 2

100. Which one of the following is not true for a step index optical fibre?
a) It can support multiple modes
b) HE11 mode is its lowest order mode
c) The refractive index of the cladding is higher than that of the core
d) At a given wavelength, single mode operation is possible by proper choice of core diameter, core and cladding refractive indices.



GENERAL ABILITY TEST

101. Sarnath is situated in the state of
a) MP b) Bihar c) Punjab d) UP

102. Green house effect is due to the increase of atmospheric
a) CO2 level b) SO2 level c) CO level d) N2 level

103. In the month of July, it is winter in
a) New York b) Beijing c) Sydney d) London

104. The chairman of the Planning commission of India is
a) The prime minister b) The vice-president c) The union finance minister d) The union commerce minister

105. The satellite launch vehicle that placed a number of satellites ito orbit in May 2008 is
a) PSLV-C7 b) PSLV-C8 c) PSLV-C9 d) PSLV-C10

106.DRDO was formed in
a) 1947 b) 1950 c) 1954 d) 1958

107. SAMYUKTA is developed for the use of
a) Navy b) Army c) Air force d) RAC

108. DARL 202 is a variety of
a) pea b) garlic c) capsicum d) tomato

109. TRISHUL is
a) a surface to surface battlefield missile
b) a quick reaction surface to air missile
c) an intermediate range ballistic missile
d) a supersonic cruise missile

110. HUMSA is a
a) sonar b) tank c) mine d) night vision device

111. The value of 1+2i / 3-4i + 2-I / 5i , where i^2 is -1, is
a) -5/2 b) 5/2 c) 2/5 d) -2/5

112. The particular solution of the differential equation d^2y/dx^2 + 2 dy/dx + 5y = 0 satisfying the conditions y(0)=0 and y’(0)=1 is
a) y=1/2 e^-x cos2x b) y=1/2 e^-x sin4x c) y=1/2 e^-x sin2x d) y=1/2 e^-x cos4x

113. For the vectors A=3i-2j+k and B=2i-k, the value of (A*B).A is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

114. The orthogonal trajectory of the family of curves x^2-y^2 = a (where a is a constant) and passing through the point (1,1) is
a) y=-1/x b) y=1/x c) y=-x d) y=x
115. The value of the line integral ∫ y^2 dx + 2xydy over the curve x=accost, y=asint is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4

116. The n-th partial sum of the infinite series 1/1*2 + 1/2*3 + 1/3*4+……1/n*(n+1)……..
a) 1/n+1 b) n+2/n+1 c) n/n+1 d) n-1/n+1

117. The complex-valued function f(z)=e^z is analytic for
a) no z b) all z c) real z only d) imaginary z only
118. The inverse of the matrix [ cos A sin A
-sin A cos A] is

a) [ -cos A Sin A b) [cos A sin A} c) [cos A -sin A d) [cos A -sin A
sin A cos A] sin A -cos A] -sin A cos A] sin A cos A]

119. Consider the function f(x) defined as
F(x) = 3x-1, x<0
0, x=0
2x+5, x>0
In the following table, List I shows 4 expressions for limits of f(x) and List II indicates the values of the limits
List I List II
P.Lim x->2 f(x) 1. -1
Q.Lim x->0+ f(x) 2. 9
R.Lim x->0- f(x) 3. -10
S.Lim x->-3 f(x) 4. 5
The correct matches are
a) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3 B) P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1 C) P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3 D) P-4,Q-2,R-3,S-1

120. Two events A and B with probability 0.5 and 0.7, respectively, have joint probability of 0.4. The probability that neither A nor B happens is
a) 0.2 b) 0.4 c) 0.6 d) 0.8

121. Consider the differential equation
X^2 d^2/dx^2 + x dy/dx + (x^2 - 4)y = 0. The statement which is not true for it is
a) It is a linear second order ordinary differential equation
b) It can not be reduced to a differential equation with constant coefficients
c) X=0 is a regular singular point
d) It is a non-homogeneous second order ordinary differential equation

122. The sum of two numbers is 16 and the sum of their squares is a minimum. The two numbers are
a) 10,6 b) 9,7 c) 8,8 d) 5,11

123. The value of the definite integral 0∫(π/2)^(1/3) x^2 sin(x^3)dx is
a) -1/3 b) 0 c) 1 d) 1/3

124. A circle C2 is concentric with the circle C1 : x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -12 =0 and has a radius twice that of C1. The equation of the circle C2 is
a) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -13 =0 b) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -87 =0 c) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -100 =0 d) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -88 =0

125. Consider the quadratic equation x^2 + px + q =0. If p and q are roots of the equation, the values of p and q are
a) p=0, q=0 only b) p=1, q=-2 only c) p=0, q=0 and p=1, q=-2 d) p=0, q=0 and p=-2, q=1

126. Consider the list of words: etiquette, accommodate, forty, exaggerate, continous, independent, receipt. The number of misspelt words are
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

127. Consider the following sentences
1. A few friends he has are all very rich.
2. Do not insult the weak.
3. The later of the two persons was more interesting.
4. All the informations were correct.
Out of these sentences, the grammatically correct sentence is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

128. The appropriate auxiliary verb to fill in the blank of the sentence “Gandhi knew that he __ soon be jailed.”is
a) would b) will c) shall d) may

129. The number of missing punctuation marks in the sentence “Rajesh along with Amit went to the market.”is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

130. The meaning of the word PLAGIARISM is
a) theft of public money b) theft of ideas c) belief in one god d) belief in many gods


132. ACROPHOBIA is the abnormal fear of
a) open spaces b) height c) fire d) water

133. The appropriate pair of prepositions to fill in the blank in the sentence “He was angry __ me, because my remarks were aimed __ him.”is
a) at,to b) with, at c) with, to d) at, for

134. The appropriate word(s) to fill up the blank in the sentence “ I remember __ voices in the middle of the night.”is (are)
a) hear b) to hear c) hearing d) heard

135. The passive voice form of the sentence “I have known him for a long time.”is
a) He is known to me for a long time.
b) He is known by me for a long time.
c) He has been known to me for a long time.
d) He has been known by me for a long time.

136. If kennel is to a dog, then __ is to a hen.
a) nest b) coop c) hole d) stable

137. If NATION is to 5236765, then NOTION is to
a) 573675 b) 563765 c) 576375 d) 557365

138. The next two numbers of the series 3,5,11,21 are
a) 34 and 52 b) 34 and 53 c) 35 and 52 d) 35 and 53

139. A, B and C are three places in India with longitudes 80E, 85 E and 90 E respectively. Which one of the following statements about the local times of the places is true?
a) Local time of C is ahead of that of B.
b) Local time of B is ahead of that of C.
c) Local time of A is ahead of that of C.
d) A, B and C all have the same local time.

140. In this question, notations +, / and * are used as follows
A + B means A is the husband of B.
A / B means A is the sister of B.
A * B means A is the son of B.
With these relations, the relationship
denoted by P / Q * R is
a) P is son of R
b) P is daughter of R
c) P is uncle of R
d) P is father of R

141. If DELHI is written as EDHIL, then PARIS is written as
a) APRIS b) SARIP c) SAPIR d) APISR

142. The number of prime numbers between 10 and 50 is
a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 13

143. The odd one in the list : LAN, TCP/IP, HACKER and KILLER is
a) LAN b) TCP/IP c) KILLER d) HACKER

144. SAW is to carpenter as SCALPEL is to
a) surgeon b) mason c) plumber d) tailor


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