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  #2  
13th August 2014, 08:34 AM
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Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Civil Judge Exam Solved question papers

Here I am giving you sample quesiton paper for Civil Judge Examination....

QUESTION NO-1 - According to sec. 2 (2), the decree shall be deemed to include
A. Rejection of a plaint
B. Determination of any question with in sec. 144-CPC
C. any of order of dismissal for default
D. both (a) and (b)

QUESTION NO-2 - Judge means the presiding officer of
A. Civil court.
B. Criminal court.
C. Both civil and criminal court
D. Tribunal

QUESTION NO-3 - Pecuniary Jurisdiction has been defined under which of the following sec. of CPC
A. Sec. 7
B. Sec. 6
C. Sec. 8
D. Sec. 5

QUESTION NO-4 - In which of the following sec of CPC it has been provided that every plaint shall be proved by affidavit.
A. Sec. 26 (1)
B. Sec. 26 (2)
C. Sec. 28 (2)
D. Sec. 27

QUESTION NO-5 - Order V Rule 1 provide that when a suit has been duly instituted, a summons may be issued to the defendant to appear and answer the claim and to file the written statement of his defence, if any, within____ days from date of service of summons on that defendant .
A. 25 days.
B. 30 days.
C. 60 days
D. 90 days


1. According to sec. 2(b) of Cr.P.C, 1973, 'Charge' includes -
(a) Heading of Charge
(b) Any head of charge when the charge contains head
(c) Any head of charge when the charge contains more heads than one
(d) All the above
2. As per the Amendment Act, 2008 of Cr.P.C, the new definition that was inserted
under Sec. 2(wa) is -
(a) Audio-Video Electronic means (b) Victim
(c) Victim Compensation (d) Victim Compensation Scheme
3. The examination of a witness by the adverse party is -
(a) Examination-in-chief (b) Cross Examination
(c) Re-examination (d) Oral Examination
4. Facts not otherwise relevant are relevant if by themselves or in connection with
other facts they make the existence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly
probable or improbable is relevant under
(a) Sec. 9 of Evidence Act (b) Sec. 10 of Evidence Act
(c) Sec. 11 of Evidence Act (d) Sec. 12 of Evidence Act
5. State the correct sequence:
(a) Issue, Trial, Arguments, Pleadings, Decree, Judgement
(b) Pleadings, Trial, Issues, Arguments, Decree, Judgement
(c) Pleadings, Issues, Arguments, Trial Judgement Decree
(d) Pleadings, Issues, Trial Arguments, Judgement, Decree
6. During the pendency of a suit relating to a house, the defendant is about to leave
the local limits of the Court with an intension to delay the suit. The plaintiff files
an application under Order 38-Rule 1 for the arrest of the defendant. Now the
defedant -
(a) Cannot be arrested (b) Can be arrested
7. When the immovable property of one person is, by the act of parties or operation
of law, made security for the payment of money to another, such transaction is -
(a) Pledge (b) Accession (c) Mortgage (d) Charge
8. A gift made in expectation of death is know as -

(a) Universal Gift (b) Onerous Gift
(c) Resumable Gift (d) Donatio mortis causa
9. A Contract to do or not to do something, if some event collateral to such contract
does not happen, is known as -
(a) Wagering Agreement (b) Quasi Contract
(c) Contingent Contract (d) Impossible Contract
10. An agreement where the parties express opposite views regarding an uncertain
event and which results into a gain to one person at the loss of another person, is
known as -
(a) Wagering Agreement (b) Contingent Contract
(c) Continuing Agreement (d) Standing form Contract
11. When an instrument in writing does not express the real intention of the parties due
to fraud or mutual mistake of the parties, a suit can be instituted for -
(a) Cancellation of Instrument (b) Rectification of Instrument
(c) Declaration of Instrument (d) Rescission of Contract
12. What is the time limit to institute a suit for recovery of the property on the basis
of dispossession under the provisions of C.P.C. when the plaintiff was dispossed
of a house by the defendant?
(a) 60 days from the date of dispossession
(b) 6 months from the date of dispossession
(c) 6 years from the date of dispossession
(d) None of the above
13. The involvement of Five or more persons is essential for the offence of .....
(a) Theft (b) Extortion (c) Roberry (d) Decoity
14. Three persons A, B & C went to a Bank. A stood outside the bank holding a
revolver with him and watching at the road. B & C entered the bank and asked the
Cashier by showing revolvers at him, to handover the cash to them. On the refusal
to do so, C shot at the Cashier and took away money from Counter. Now ........
(a) C is liable for the murder and A & B are liable for abetment.
(b) B & C are liable for murder and A is liable for abetment.
(c) A, B & C are liable for murder.
(d) None of them is liable because it is not a murder but only culpable homicide
not amounting to murder.
15. 'Sans recourse indorsement' means -
(a) Indorsement with limited liability. (b) Indorsement without liability.
(c) Indorsement with absolute liability.

(d) Indorsement with conditional liability.
16. What is the punishment under Sec. 138 of N.I. Act.
(a) Imprisoment upto 2 years or with fine which may extend to twice the amount
of cheque or with both.
(b) Imprisonment upto 2 years and with fine which may extend to twice the
amount of cheque.
(c) Imprisonment for not less than 2 years and fine of Rs.10,000.
(d) Imprisonment for not less than 2 years or fine of Rs.10,000 - or with both.
17. The limitation period for enforcement of a perpetual injunction is -
(a) 1 year (b) 3 years (c) 12 years
(d) None of the above.
18. What is true with regard to application of Limitation Act, 1963?
(i) It has no application to sec. 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
(ii) This Act shall not apply to any suit or other proceeding relating to marriage
and divorce.
(iii) Where any special or local law prescribes for any suit, appeal or application
a period of limitation different from the period prescribed by the schedule, the
provisions of Sec. 3 shall apply as if such period where the period prescribed
by the schedule.
(iv) The provisions of Section 4 to 24 shall apply, unless expressly barred by special
or local law.
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct. (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(c) (i), (ii), and (iv) are correct. (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
19. An easement right is a right-
(a) in rem (b) in personam
20. Of the following, which is not a mode of acquiring easement?
(a) Easement by law (b) Easement by grant
(c) Easement by prescription (d) Easement by necessity
21. Whether Principle of res judicita applies to claim petitions under Order 21, Rule
58?
(a) No (b) Yes
22. X files a suit against Y and when the suit is called on for hearing neither party
appeared in the Court. The Court dismissed the suit under Order 9, Rule 3.
thereafter X may -
(a) File a fresh suit, subject to the law of limitation.
(b) Apply to the Court for restoring the suit by showing or sufficient cause.
(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) neither (a) nor (b)
23. Every Police Officer making an investigation shall enter day to day proceeding
for a case in a Diary Called
a) General Diary b) Special diary
c) Duty Diary d) Case Diary
24. Mr. Kumar voluntarily causes hurt to Gowtham. Gowtham goes to Police Station
to lodge F.I.R. The concerned Police Officer refuses to record the F.I.R. whether
the act of the Police Officer is valid?
(a) No (b) Yes
25. Khan commits an offence of grievous hurt in Hyderabad. However, he makes a
confession before the Judicial Magistrate at Adilabad, who has no power to try the
case. Whether the confession recorded, after following the procedure, by the
Magistrate is valid?
(a) No (b) Yes
26. The limitation Act, 1963 applies to the proceedings before -
a) Courts b) Executive Authority
c) Quasi-Judicial Tribunals d) none of the above
27. Section 5 of the Limitation Act deals with
a) Bar of Limitation.
b) Extension of prescribed period in certain cases.
c) Doctrine of Legal Disability. d) None of the above.
28. The provision of improvements made by bonafide holders under defective title is
dealt in
a) Sec. 50 of T.P. Act b) Sec. 51 of T.P. Act
c) Sec 53 of T.P. Act. d) None of the above
29. Of the following which is misfit matching:
(a) Sec. 81 of T.P. Act - Marshalling Securities.
b) Sec. 82 of T.P. Act - Doctrine of Contribution.
c) Sec. 92 of T.P. Act. - Doctrine of Subrogation.
d) Sec. 93 of T.P. Act - Charge.
30. According to section 60 of T.P. Act, a clog on redemption is
a) valid subject to certain conditions b) absolutely valid
c) voidable d) None of the above
31. Of the following which is a misfit matching
a) Agreement to supply goods from time to time - Continuing Offer
b) Responsibility of Finder of Lost goods - Agent
c) Betting Agreement - Wagering Agreement.

d) An agreement to pay Rs.100/-, if it rains on Sunday - Contingent Contract
32. A Contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him
by the conduct of the promisor himself or by the conduct of any other person, is called
a) Contract of Guarantee b) Contract of Insurance
c) Contract of Bailment d) Contract of Indemnity
33. According to Section 69 of Indian Partnership Act, 1932, an unregistered firm can
file a suit against an outsider for recovery of an amount not exceeding Rs.100/-
(a) Yes (b) No
34. 'An Agency coupled with interest' can be revoked by Principal
(a) Yes (b) No
35. Doctrine of estoppel can be applied against a minor
(a) No (b) Yes
36. As per Sec. 3 of Indian Evidence Act, Fact means and includes ......
a) Physical Facts b) Psychological Facts.
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) or nor (b)
37. Can an evidence obtained by committing the offence of theft be admitted in a case
of criminal nature?
(a) Yes (b) No
38. A tape record of speech is .........
(a) Documentary Evidence (b) Oral Evidence
39. Mr. Lallu, an accused writes a letter, in his own handwriting with his signature,
addressing a Police Officer that he murdered his wife. The letter was found near
the dead body of his wife. Is the confession made by Lallu in the letter admissible
in evidence against him?
a) Yes, the letter is relevant b) No, it is not relevent
40. Mr. Bhallu is accused of a Murder. The police have produced an aex from a place
and he said that it was the weapon with which the deceased was killed.
Whether this statement made by him is relevant under Sec. 27 of Evidence Act?
a) Yes, it is relevant to the extent of axe.
b) No, it is not relevant as Sec. 27 is not applicable to the present case.
41. Mr. Varlu fires at Venkat with an intention to kill him. Venkat sustains serious
injuries. He lodges a F.I.R. against Varlu and subsequently, Venkat dies due to
injuries.
Whether this F.I.R. can be treated as dying declaration.
a) Yes, the F.I.R. can be treated as dying declaration.
b) No. it is not a statement made by him regarding his death.

42. How many witnesses are required to prove a Criminal case beyond all reasonable
doubts?
a) minimum Two b) minimum Three
c) minimum four d) None of the above
43. 'Any Question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects
to receive' is called.
a) Patent Question b) Latent Question
c) Leading Question d) Misleading Question
44. As per Sec. 5 of the Evidence Act, evidence can be adduced relating to a
a) Fact in issue b) relevant fact
c) Both (a) & (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b)
45. Under Sec. 3 of the Evidence Act, evidence means .........
a) Documentary Evidence b) Occular Evidence
c) Neither (a) nor (b) d) Both (a) & (b)
46. As per Sec. 167(5) Cr.P.C. a Magistrate can pass an order of stopping further
investigation and discharge the accused, in a summons case, if the investigation is
not completed within a period of ............. months from the date on which the
accused was arrested.
a) 2 Months b) 3 Months
c) 6 Months d) None of these
47. As per Sec. 357-A of Cr. P.C (Amendment Act, 2008) Who is the authority to
decide the Quantum of Compensation payable to the victim?
a) The Trial Court b) The Sessions Court
c) The High Court d) The district or State Legal Service Authority
48. Whta is true with regard to plea bargaining?
a) It has application where offence attracts imprisonment exceeding 7years
b) It is applicable where the offence affect Socio-economic Conditions of the
Country
c) Plea bargaining will not be allowed where the offence has been committed
against a Woman, or a Child below where the offence
d) All the above
49. Whenever a case is tried summarily, the sentence of imprisonment shall not exceed
a) 2 Months b) 3 Months
c) 6 Months d) None of these
50. A, B and C are charged by a Magistrate of 1 Class with, and convicted by him of,
robbing D, A, B & C were afterwards charged with and tried for decoity on the

same facts. Now -
a) They can take protection under Sec. 300 Cr. PC
b) They cannot take protection under Sec. 300 Cr.PC
51. Aand B are the joint owners of a horse. Atakes the horse of B's possession intending
to use it However, A sells the horse and appropriates the whole proceeds to his
own use. Now A is guilty of
a) No offence b) Criminal Breach of Trust
c) Mischief d) Dishonest Misappropriation
52. A& B are the Joint Owners of a horse AShoots intending thereby to cause wrongful
loss to B now A is guilty of -
a) No offence b) Mischief
c) Criminal Breach of Trust d) Criminal Misappropriation
53. Sec.84 of I.P.C provides for -
a) Medical Insanity b) Legal Insanity
c) Both Medical and Legal Insanity d) None of the above
54. Abetment under Sec. 107 I.P.C can be constituteda)
Instigation b) Conspiracy
c) Intentional Aid d) All the above
55. Rama, an Officer of a Court of Justice, was ordered by the court Arrest Raheem,
After due enquiry beliving Raheemuddin to be Raheem, Rama arrest
Raheemuddin. Rama is exempt from Criminal Liability under
a)Sec.76 I.P.C. b) Sec. 78 I.P.C.
c) Sec. 79 I.P.C. d) None of the above
56. When two or more persons, by fighting in a public place, disturb the public tranquility,
they are said to commit the offence of
a) Affray b) Rioting
c) Public Nuisance d) All the above
57. Sec. 34 of I.P.C.
a) Creates a substantive offence b) is a rule of evidence
58. Culpable homicide is not murder, if it is committed under
a) grave and sudden provocation b) Self- intoxication
c) irresistable impulse d) All the above
59. For a unlawful assembly under sec. 141 I.P.C the minimum number of persons
required is
a) Two b) Three c) Five d) Seven
60. Causing disappearance of evidence of offence or, giving false information to

screen to screen offender, is an offence under
a) Sec. 200 I.P.C. b) Sec. 201 I.P.C.
c) Sec. 202 I.P.C. d) Sec. 203. I.P.C.
61. What is the punishment for the offence of Theft?
a) Imprisonment upto 3 years and fine
b) Imprisonment of not less than 3 years and fine
c) Imprisonment 3years or fine
d) Imprisonment up to 3years or fine or with both
62. Can there be more than one preliminary decree and one final decree?
a) Yes b) No
63. Whether Doctrine of legal disablity applies to Pre-emption Suits?
a) Yes b) No
64. Whether an'interpleader' suit can be instistuted by the agent aganist princiopal?
a) Yes b) No
c) Yes, when a third party claims right through principal
65. Whether an ex-parte decree can be challenged by way of appeal?
a) No b) Yes
66. When a material proposition of fact of law is affirmed by one party and denied by
the other, it is known as
a) An assertion b) An allegation
c) An admission d) An issue
67. Mr. Vinod of Adilabad makes a proposal to sell his house, situated in vikarabad,
to vikram of Nizamabad. In the sale agreement they provide a clause stating that
all disputes arising out of the transactions are to be decided by the Court of
Nizamabad. There after when a dispute arises Vikram must file a suit.
a) In the Court of Adilabad b) In the Court of Nizamabad
c) In the Court of Vikarabad d) All the above
68. Every Warrant of Arrest issued by a Court remains in force for
a) 6 months b) 1 year c) 3 years
d) None of the above
69. According to Order VI C.P.C 'pleading' shall mean- a) Plaint b) Written Statement
c) Plaint and Written Statement d) Plaint or Written Statement
70. Under Sec. 167 Cr. P.C, the nature of custody can be changed from judicial custody
to police custodya)
During the period of first 14 days b) During the period of first 15 days

c) During the period of first 30 days d) None of the above
71. If a Plaintiff fails to sue for the whole of the claim which he is entitled to make in
respect of a cause of action in the first suit then he is precluded from suing again
respect of portion so omitted, by virtue of
a) Sec. 11 of C.P.C b) Explanation IV of Sec. II
c) Order II, Rule 2 d) Order II, Rule 3
72. A suit for possession of immovable property on the basis of previous possession
and not on the basis of title can be filed under Sec. 6 of S.R. Act, 1963
a) Within 3 months of dispossession
b) Within 6 months of dispossession
c) Within 1 year of dispossession
d) Within 6 years of dispossession
73. Confession of one accused is admissible against Co- accused
a) If they are tried for different offences but jointly
b) If they are tried for same offences but jointly
c) If they are tried for same offences but not jointly
d) If they are tired for different offences but not jointly
74. In execution of a money decree for Rs. 2,000/- the Civil Prision shall be
a) Not exceeding 6 weeks b) Not exceeding 3months
c) Not exceeding 6 months d) None of the above
75. Whether an objection as to jurisdiction relating to subject matters (Competency)
can be raised before the supreme court without being in the trial court or first
appellate court?
a) No b) Yes
76. In connection with Commercial transactions what should be tha rate of interest
from the date of decree to the date of payment?
a) Not exceding 6%
b) Exceeding 6% but not exceeding Contractual rate if any
c) Not exceeding the Contractual rate and in the absence of it the rate at which
moneys are lent by nationalised banks in relation to commercial transaction.
d) Not exceeding 18%
77. The amount of Compensatory Costs under Sec. 35-A, C.P.C . shall not exceed
a) Rs. 1000/- b) Rs. 3000/- c) Rs. 5,000/- d) No such limit
78. Of the following which cannot be attached in execution of a Decree
a) Money b) Hundies c) Books of Accounts d) Bank Notes
79. When a Plaint is rejected by the Court under Order VII, Rule 11, the plaintiff can

a) Prefer an appeal
b) Present a fresh plaint in respect of the same cause of action
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Nether (A) nor (b)
80. When Commission is issued under 18, Rule 4 for examination of witness, within
what period the Commissioner shall submit his report?
a) Within 30 days b) Within 60days
c) Within 60 days or within the extended period
d) No such time limit
81. When an application is made by the J.dr, after the decree is passed, for payment of
decretal amount in installment for the order of installment payment whether Court
should take the Consent of the D.hr?
a) Yes b) No
82. Whether the purchaser of a Property in execution sale can make an application for
set aside the sale on the ground that the J.dr had no saleable interest in the property
sold?
a) Yes, he can make application under Order 21- Rule 89
b) Yes, he can make application under Order 21- Rule 90
c) Yes, he can make application under Order 21- Rule 91
d) No, as he is purchase he cannot get the sale set aside
83. When the next friend or guardian of a minor wants to enter into any agreement or
Compromise on behalf of the minor, whether the leave of the Court is mandatory?
a) No b) Yes
84. When an ad interim injunction is granted by the Court within what period the
application shall be disposed of?
a) within 30 days from the date of injunction
b) within 3 months from the date of injunction
c) within 1 Year from the injunction
d) No such time is prescribed.
85. Under which provision of law, the Appellate Court can adduce the additional evidence?
a) Under Order 41, Rule 23 b) Under Order 41, Rule 25
c) Under Order 41, Rule 27 d) Under Order 41, Rule 29
86. Of the following which are compulsorly attestable documents?
a) Sale deed and Mortgage deed b) Mortgage deed and Lease deed
c) Gift deed and Lease deed d) Mortgage deed and Gift deed
87. In case of a transfer hit by "Doctrine of lis pendens' the question of good faith of

the vendee is
a) Relevant b) Irrlevant
88. If case of Gift, if the donee dies before acceptance, then the gift is
a) Valid b) Void c) Reduced
d) Court has to decide
89. Who cannot be arrested in execution of Money Decree?
a) AWoman
b) A Magistrate while going to and coming from the Court or in the Court.
c) An Advocate while going to and coming from the Court or in the Court.
d) All the above
90. A declaratory decree passed under Sec. 34 of S.R.Act, 1963 operates -
a) Jus in rem b) Jus in personam
91. Whether an injunction can be granted in a case where for the breach of the
Contract Specific performance cannot be granted?
a) No b) Yes
92. According to Sec.5 of the T.P.Act, 1882- living person includes a Company or
Association or Body of individuals -
a) Which is incorporated b) Whether incorporated or not
93. According to Sec.6(e) of the T.P.Act, Right to sue for a certain sum of money.
a) Is not transferable b) Is transferable
94. In a contract of sale of goods, a stipulation essential to the main purpose of the
Contract is known as -
a) Warranty b) guarantee c) clog d) condition
95. As per Sec.34 of A.P. Tenancy (Telengana Area) Act, 1950, Protected tenant means
a person who has the land continuously for a period not less than -
a) 5 Years b) 6 Years c) 7 Years d) 8 Years
96. Under A.P. Escheats and Bona Vacantia Act, 1974, bona vacantia applies to the
property -
a) For which there is no rightful owner
b) For which the owner dies intestate (without legal heirs)
97. Which section of the A.P. Buildings (Lease, Rent and Eviction) control Act, 1960
provides the grounds for eviction of a tenant?
a) Sec.8 b) Sec.9 c) Sec.10 d) Sec.11
98. According to which section of A.P. Gaming Act, 1974 'Game of Skill' is not an
offence under the Act?
a) Sec.12 b) Sec.13 c) Sec.14 d) Sec.15
99. Under A.P. Pawn Brokers Act, 2002 carrying on Pawn Broking business without
licence is an offence punishable for -
a) Imprisonment for not less than 1 Year and upto 3 years and fine upto 50,000/-
b) Imprisonment upto 3 Years and fine upto 50,000/-
c) imprisonment upto 3 Years or fine upto 50,000/- or with both
d) Imprisonment upto 1 Year and fine upto 50,000/-
100. According to Sec.4 of A.P. Prohibition of Ragging Act, 1997 if a person causes
ragging or abets. ragging which causes the death, he shall be punished with -
a) Imprisonment upto 10 years and fine upto 50,000/-
b) Imprisonment of life and fine upto 50,000/-
c) Imprisonment upto 7 Years and fine upto 50,000/-
d) Imprisonment upto 3 Years and fine upto 50,000/-

Key:
1) C 2) B 3) B 4) C 5) D 6) A 7) D 8) D 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) D 13) B 13) D 14)
C 15) B 16) A 17) D 18) D 19) B 20) A 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) B 26) A 27)
B 28) B 29) D 30) D 31) B 32) D 33) B 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) A 38) A 39) A 40)
B 41) A 42) D 43) C 44) C 45) D 46) C 47) D 48) D 49) B 50) B 51) D 52) B 53)
B 54) D 55) A 56) A 57) B 58) A 59) C 60) B 61) D 62) A 63) B 64) C 65) B 66)
D 67) C 68) D 69) D 70) B 71) C 72) B 73) B 74) D 75) B 76) C 77) B 78) C 79)
C 80) C 81) A 82) C 83) B 84) A 85) C 86) D 87) B 88) B 89) D 90) B 91) A 92)
B 93) B 94) D 95) B 96) A 97) C 98) D 99) A 100) A
Attached Files
File Type: pdf Civil Judge Exam question papers.pdf (423.9 KB, 170 views)
  #3  
6th January 2015, 12:56 AM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Re: Civil Judge Exam Solved question papers

hey please help me...am a final year law student and need some guidence for andhra civil judge examination...plz help me...my mail id is aafreenahmad27@yahoo.com
  #4  
13th January 2015, 11:27 AM
Junior Member
 
Join Date: Jan 2015
Re: Civil Judge Exam Solved question papers

Quote:
Originally Posted by Arun Vats View Post
Here I am giving you sample quesiton paper for Civil Judge Examination....

QUESTION NO-1 - According to sec. 2 (2), the decree shall be deemed to include
A. Rejection of a plaint
B. Determination of any question with in sec. 144-CPC
C. any of order of dismissal for default
D. both (a) and (b)

QUESTION NO-2 - Judge means the presiding officer of
A. Civil court.
B. Criminal court.
C. Both civil and criminal court
D. Tribunal

QUESTION NO-3 - Pecuniary Jurisdiction has been defined under which of the following sec. of CPC
A. Sec. 7
B. Sec. 6
C. Sec. 8
D. Sec. 5

QUESTION NO-4 - In which of the following sec of CPC it has been provided that every plaint shall be proved by affidavit.
A. Sec. 26 (1)
B. Sec. 26 (2)
C. Sec. 28 (2)
D. Sec. 27

QUESTION NO-5 - Order V Rule 1 provide that when a suit has been duly instituted, a summons may be issued to the defendant to appear and answer the claim and to file the written statement of his defence, if any, within____ days from date of service of summons on that defendant .
A. 25 days.
B. 30 days.
C. 60 days
D. 90 days


1. According to sec. 2(b) of Cr.P.C, 1973, 'Charge' includes -
(a) Heading of Charge
(b) Any head of charge when the charge contains head
(c) Any head of charge when the charge contains more heads than one
(d) All the above
2. As per the Amendment Act, 2008 of Cr.P.C, the new definition that was inserted
under Sec. 2(wa) is -
(a) Audio-Video Electronic means (b) Victim
(c) Victim Compensation (d) Victim Compensation Scheme
3. The examination of a witness by the adverse party is -
(a) Examination-in-chief (b) Cross Examination
(c) Re-examination (d) Oral Examination
4. Facts not otherwise relevant are relevant if by themselves or in connection with
other facts they make the existence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly
probable or improbable is relevant under
(a) Sec. 9 of Evidence Act (b) Sec. 10 of Evidence Act
(c) Sec. 11 of Evidence Act (d) Sec. 12 of Evidence Act
5. State the correct sequence:
(a) Issue, Trial, Arguments, Pleadings, Decree, Judgement
(b) Pleadings, Trial, Issues, Arguments, Decree, Judgement
(c) Pleadings, Issues, Arguments, Trial Judgement Decree
(d) Pleadings, Issues, Trial Arguments, Judgement, Decree
6. During the pendency of a suit relating to a house, the defendant is about to leave
the local limits of the Court with an intension to delay the suit. The plaintiff files
an application under Order 38-Rule 1 for the arrest of the defendant. Now the
defedant -
(a) Cannot be arrested (b) Can be arrested
7. When the immovable property of one person is, by the act of parties or operation
of law, made security for the payment of money to another, such transaction is -
(a) Pledge (b) Accession (c) Mortgage (d) Charge
8. A gift made in expectation of death is know as -

(a) Universal Gift (b) Onerous Gift
(c) Resumable Gift (d) Donatio mortis causa
9. A Contract to do or not to do something, if some event collateral to such contract
does not happen, is known as -
(a) Wagering Agreement (b) Quasi Contract
(c) Contingent Contract (d) Impossible Contract
10. An agreement where the parties express opposite views regarding an uncertain
event and which results into a gain to one person at the loss of another person, is
known as -
(a) Wagering Agreement (b) Contingent Contract
(c) Continuing Agreement (d) Standing form Contract
11. When an instrument in writing does not express the real intention of the parties due
to fraud or mutual mistake of the parties, a suit can be instituted for -
(a) Cancellation of Instrument (b) Rectification of Instrument
(c) Declaration of Instrument (d) Rescission of Contract
12. What is the time limit to institute a suit for recovery of the property on the basis
of dispossession under the provisions of C.P.C. when the plaintiff was dispossed
of a house by the defendant?
(a) 60 days from the date of dispossession
(b) 6 months from the date of dispossession
(c) 6 years from the date of dispossession
(d) None of the above
13. The involvement of Five or more persons is essential for the offence of .....
(a) Theft (b) Extortion (c) Roberry (d) Decoity
14. Three persons A, B & C went to a Bank. A stood outside the bank holding a
revolver with him and watching at the road. B & C entered the bank and asked the
Cashier by showing revolvers at him, to handover the cash to them. On the refusal
to do so, C shot at the Cashier and took away money from Counter. Now ........
(a) C is liable for the murder and A & B are liable for abetment.
(b) B & C are liable for murder and A is liable for abetment.
(c) A, B & C are liable for murder.
(d) None of them is liable because it is not a murder but only culpable homicide
not amounting to murder.
15. 'Sans recourse indorsement' means -
(a) Indorsement with limited liability. (b) Indorsement without liability.
(c) Indorsement with absolute liability.

(d) Indorsement with conditional liability.
16. What is the punishment under Sec. 138 of N.I. Act.
(a) Imprisoment upto 2 years or with fine which may extend to twice the amount
of cheque or with both.
(b) Imprisonment upto 2 years and with fine which may extend to twice the
amount of cheque.
(c) Imprisonment for not less than 2 years and fine of Rs.10,000.
(d) Imprisonment for not less than 2 years or fine of Rs.10,000 - or with both.
17. The limitation period for enforcement of a perpetual injunction is -
(a) 1 year (b) 3 years (c) 12 years
(d) None of the above.
18. What is true with regard to application of Limitation Act, 1963?
(i) It has no application to sec. 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
(ii) This Act shall not apply to any suit or other proceeding relating to marriage
and divorce.
(iii) Where any special or local law prescribes for any suit, appeal or application
a period of limitation different from the period prescribed by the schedule, the
provisions of Sec. 3 shall apply as if such period where the period prescribed
by the schedule.
(iv) The provisions of Section 4 to 24 shall apply, unless expressly barred by special
or local law.
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct. (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(c) (i), (ii), and (iv) are correct. (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
19. An easement right is a right-
(a) in rem (b) in personam
20. Of the following, which is not a mode of acquiring easement?
(a) Easement by law (b) Easement by grant
(c) Easement by prescription (d) Easement by necessity
21. Whether Principle of res judicita applies to claim petitions under Order 21, Rule
58?
(a) No (b) Yes
22. X files a suit against Y and when the suit is called on for hearing neither party
appeared in the Court. The Court dismissed the suit under Order 9, Rule 3.
thereafter X may -
(a) File a fresh suit, subject to the law of limitation.
(b) Apply to the Court for restoring the suit by showing or sufficient cause.
(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) neither (a) nor (b)
23. Every Police Officer making an investigation shall enter day to day proceeding
for a case in a Diary Called
a) General Diary b) Special diary
c) Duty Diary d) Case Diary
24. Mr. Kumar voluntarily causes hurt to Gowtham. Gowtham goes to Police Station
to lodge F.I.R. The concerned Police Officer refuses to record the F.I.R. whether
the act of the Police Officer is valid?
(a) No (b) Yes
25. Khan commits an offence of grievous hurt in Hyderabad. However, he makes a
confession before the Judicial Magistrate at Adilabad, who has no power to try the
case. Whether the confession recorded, after following the procedure, by the
Magistrate is valid?
(a) No (b) Yes
26. The limitation Act, 1963 applies to the proceedings before -
a) Courts b) Executive Authority
c) Quasi-Judicial Tribunals d) none of the above
27. Section 5 of the Limitation Act deals with
a) Bar of Limitation.
b) Extension of prescribed period in certain cases.
c) Doctrine of Legal Disability. d) None of the above.
28. The provision of improvements made by bonafide holders under defective title is
dealt in
a) Sec. 50 of T.P. Act b) Sec. 51 of T.P. Act
c) Sec 53 of T.P. Act. d) None of the above
29. Of the following which is misfit matching:
(a) Sec. 81 of T.P. Act - Marshalling Securities.
b) Sec. 82 of T.P. Act - Doctrine of Contribution.
c) Sec. 92 of T.P. Act. - Doctrine of Subrogation.
d) Sec. 93 of T.P. Act - Charge.
30. According to section 60 of T.P. Act, a clog on redemption is
a) valid subject to certain conditions b) absolutely valid
c) voidable d) None of the above
31. Of the following which is a misfit matching
a) Agreement to supply goods from time to time - Continuing Offer
b) Responsibility of Finder of Lost goods - Agent
c) Betting Agreement - Wagering Agreement.

d) An agreement to pay Rs.100/-, if it rains on Sunday - Contingent Contract
32. A Contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him
by the conduct of the promisor himself or by the conduct of any other person, is called
a) Contract of Guarantee b) Contract of Insurance
c) Contract of Bailment d) Contract of Indemnity
33. According to Section 69 of Indian Partnership Act, 1932, an unregistered firm can
file a suit against an outsider for recovery of an amount not exceeding Rs.100/-
(a) Yes (b) No
34. 'An Agency coupled with interest' can be revoked by Principal
(a) Yes (b) No
35. Doctrine of estoppel can be applied against a minor
(a) No (b) Yes
36. As per Sec. 3 of Indian Evidence Act, Fact means and includes ......
a) Physical Facts b) Psychological Facts.
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) or nor (b)
37. Can an evidence obtained by committing the offence of theft be admitted in a case
of criminal nature?
(a) Yes (b) No
38. A tape record of speech is .........
(a) Documentary Evidence (b) Oral Evidence
39. Mr. Lallu, an accused writes a letter, in his own handwriting with his signature,
addressing a Police Officer that he murdered his wife. The letter was found near
the dead body of his wife. Is the confession made by Lallu in the letter admissible
in evidence against him?
a) Yes, the letter is relevant b) No, it is not relevent
40. Mr. Bhallu is accused of a Murder. The police have produced an aex from a place
and he said that it was the weapon with which the deceased was killed.
Whether this statement made by him is relevant under Sec. 27 of Evidence Act?
a) Yes, it is relevant to the extent of axe.
b) No, it is not relevant as Sec. 27 is not applicable to the present case.
41. Mr. Varlu fires at Venkat with an intention to kill him. Venkat sustains serious
injuries. He lodges a F.I.R. against Varlu and subsequently, Venkat dies due to
injuries.
Whether this F.I.R. can be treated as dying declaration.
a) Yes, the F.I.R. can be treated as dying declaration.
b) No. it is not a statement made by him regarding his death.

42. How many witnesses are required to prove a Criminal case beyond all reasonable
doubts?
a) minimum Two b) minimum Three
c) minimum four d) None of the above
43. 'Any Question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects
to receive' is called.
a) Patent Question b) Latent Question
c) Leading Question d) Misleading Question
44. As per Sec. 5 of the Evidence Act, evidence can be adduced relating to a
a) Fact in issue b) relevant fact
c) Both (a) & (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b)
45. Under Sec. 3 of the Evidence Act, evidence means .........
a) Documentary Evidence b) Occular Evidence
c) Neither (a) nor (b) d) Both (a) & (b)
46. As per Sec. 167(5) Cr.P.C. a Magistrate can pass an order of stopping further
investigation and discharge the accused, in a summons case, if the investigation is
not completed within a period of ............. months from the date on which the
accused was arrested.
a) 2 Months b) 3 Months
c) 6 Months d) None of these
47. As per Sec. 357-A of Cr. P.C (Amendment Act, 2008) Who is the authority to
decide the Quantum of Compensation payable to the victim?
a) The Trial Court b) The Sessions Court
c) The High Court d) The district or State Legal Service Authority
48. Whta is true with regard to plea bargaining?
a) It has application where offence attracts imprisonment exceeding 7years
b) It is applicable where the offence affect Socio-economic Conditions of the
Country
c) Plea bargaining will not be allowed where the offence has been committed
against a Woman, or a Child below where the offence
d) All the above
49. Whenever a case is tried summarily, the sentence of imprisonment shall not exceed
a) 2 Months b) 3 Months
c) 6 Months d) None of these
50. A, B and C are charged by a Magistrate of 1 Class with, and convicted by him of,
robbing D, A, B & C were afterwards charged with and tried for decoity on the

same facts. Now -
a) They can take protection under Sec. 300 Cr. PC
b) They cannot take protection under Sec. 300 Cr.PC
51. Aand B are the joint owners of a horse. Atakes the horse of B's possession intending
to use it However, A sells the horse and appropriates the whole proceeds to his
own use. Now A is guilty of
a) No offence b) Criminal Breach of Trust
c) Mischief d) Dishonest Misappropriation
52. A& B are the Joint Owners of a horse AShoots intending thereby to cause wrongful
loss to B now A is guilty of -
a) No offence b) Mischief
c) Criminal Breach of Trust d) Criminal Misappropriation
53. Sec.84 of I.P.C provides for -
a) Medical Insanity b) Legal Insanity
c) Both Medical and Legal Insanity d) None of the above
54. Abetment under Sec. 107 I.P.C can be constituteda)
Instigation b) Conspiracy
c) Intentional Aid d) All the above
55. Rama, an Officer of a Court of Justice, was ordered by the court Arrest Raheem,
After due enquiry beliving Raheemuddin to be Raheem, Rama arrest
Raheemuddin. Rama is exempt from Criminal Liability under
a)Sec.76 I.P.C. b) Sec. 78 I.P.C.
c) Sec. 79 I.P.C. d) None of the above
56. When two or more persons, by fighting in a public place, disturb the public tranquility,
they are said to commit the offence of
a) Affray b) Rioting
c) Public Nuisance d) All the above
57. Sec. 34 of I.P.C.
a) Creates a substantive offence b) is a rule of evidence
58. Culpable homicide is not murder, if it is committed under
a) grave and sudden provocation b) Self- intoxication
c) irresistable impulse d) All the above
59. For a unlawful assembly under sec. 141 I.P.C the minimum number of persons
required is
a) Two b) Three c) Five d) Seven
60. Causing disappearance of evidence of offence or, giving false information to

screen to screen offender, is an offence under
a) Sec. 200 I.P.C. b) Sec. 201 I.P.C.
c) Sec. 202 I.P.C. d) Sec. 203. I.P.C.
61. What is the punishment for the offence of Theft?
a) Imprisonment upto 3 years and fine
b) Imprisonment of not less than 3 years and fine
c) Imprisonment 3years or fine
d) Imprisonment up to 3years or fine or with both
62. Can there be more than one preliminary decree and one final decree?
a) Yes b) No
63. Whether Doctrine of legal disablity applies to Pre-emption Suits?
a) Yes b) No
64. Whether an'interpleader' suit can be instistuted by the agent aganist princiopal?
a) Yes b) No
c) Yes, when a third party claims right through principal
65. Whether an ex-parte decree can be challenged by way of appeal?
a) No b) Yes
66. When a material proposition of fact of law is affirmed by one party and denied by
the other, it is known as
a) An assertion b) An allegation
c) An admission d) An issue
67. Mr. Vinod of Adilabad makes a proposal to sell his house, situated in vikarabad,
to vikram of Nizamabad. In the sale agreement they provide a clause stating that
all disputes arising out of the transactions are to be decided by the Court of
Nizamabad. There after when a dispute arises Vikram must file a suit.
a) In the Court of Adilabad b) In the Court of Nizamabad
c) In the Court of Vikarabad d) All the above
68. Every Warrant of Arrest issued by a Court remains in force for
a) 6 months b) 1 year c) 3 years
d) None of the above
69. According to Order VI C.P.C 'pleading' shall mean- a) Plaint b) Written Statement
c) Plaint and Written Statement d) Plaint or Written Statement
70. Under Sec. 167 Cr. P.C, the nature of custody can be changed from judicial custody
to police custodya)
During the period of first 14 days b) During the period of first 15 days

c) During the period of first 30 days d) None of the above
71. If a Plaintiff fails to sue for the whole of the claim which he is entitled to make in
respect of a cause of action in the first suit then he is precluded from suing again
respect of portion so omitted, by virtue of
a) Sec. 11 of C.P.C b) Explanation IV of Sec. II
c) Order II, Rule 2 d) Order II, Rule 3
72. A suit for possession of immovable property on the basis of previous possession
and not on the basis of title can be filed under Sec. 6 of S.R. Act, 1963
a) Within 3 months of dispossession
b) Within 6 months of dispossession
c) Within 1 year of dispossession
d) Within 6 years of dispossession
73. Confession of one accused is admissible against Co- accused
a) If they are tried for different offences but jointly
b) If they are tried for same offences but jointly
c) If they are tried for same offences but not jointly
d) If they are tired for different offences but not jointly
74. In execution of a money decree for Rs. 2,000/- the Civil Prision shall be
a) Not exceeding 6 weeks b) Not exceeding 3months
c) Not exceeding 6 months d) None of the above
75. Whether an objection as to jurisdiction relating to subject matters (Competency)
can be raised before the supreme court without being in the trial court or first
appellate court?
a) No b) Yes
76. In connection with Commercial transactions what should be tha rate of interest
from the date of decree to the date of payment?
a) Not exceding 6%
b) Exceeding 6% but not exceeding Contractual rate if any
c) Not exceeding the Contractual rate and in the absence of it the rate at which
moneys are lent by nationalised banks in relation to commercial transaction.
d) Not exceeding 18%
77. The amount of Compensatory Costs under Sec. 35-A, C.P.C . shall not exceed
a) Rs. 1000/- b) Rs. 3000/- c) Rs. 5,000/- d) No such limit
78. Of the following which cannot be attached in execution of a Decree
a) Money b) Hundies c) Books of Accounts d) Bank Notes
79. When a Plaint is rejected by the Court under Order VII, Rule 11, the plaintiff can

a) Prefer an appeal
b) Present a fresh plaint in respect of the same cause of action
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Nether (A) nor (b)
80. When Commission is issued under 18, Rule 4 for examination of witness, within
what period the Commissioner shall submit his report?
a) Within 30 days b) Within 60days
c) Within 60 days or within the extended period
d) No such time limit
81. When an application is made by the J.dr, after the decree is passed, for payment of
decretal amount in installment for the order of installment payment whether Court
should take the Consent of the D.hr?
a) Yes b) No
82. Whether the purchaser of a Property in execution sale can make an application for
set aside the sale on the ground that the J.dr had no saleable interest in the property
sold?
a) Yes, he can make application under Order 21- Rule 89
b) Yes, he can make application under Order 21- Rule 90
c) Yes, he can make application under Order 21- Rule 91
d) No, as he is purchase he cannot get the sale set aside
83. When the next friend or guardian of a minor wants to enter into any agreement or
Compromise on behalf of the minor, whether the leave of the Court is mandatory?
a) No b) Yes
84. When an ad interim injunction is granted by the Court within what period the
application shall be disposed of?
a) within 30 days from the date of injunction
b) within 3 months from the date of injunction
c) within 1 Year from the injunction
d) No such time is prescribed.
85. Under which provision of law, the Appellate Court can adduce the additional evidence?
a) Under Order 41, Rule 23 b) Under Order 41, Rule 25
c) Under Order 41, Rule 27 d) Under Order 41, Rule 29
86. Of the following which are compulsorly attestable documents?
a) Sale deed and Mortgage deed b) Mortgage deed and Lease deed
c) Gift deed and Lease deed d) Mortgage deed and Gift deed
87. In case of a transfer hit by "Doctrine of lis pendens' the question of good faith of

the vendee is
a) Relevant b) Irrlevant
88. If case of Gift, if the donee dies before acceptance, then the gift is
a) Valid b) Void c) Reduced
d) Court has to decide
89. Who cannot be arrested in execution of Money Decree?
a) AWoman
b) A Magistrate while going to and coming from the Court or in the Court.
c) An Advocate while going to and coming from the Court or in the Court.
d) All the above
90. A declaratory decree passed under Sec. 34 of S.R.Act, 1963 operates -
a) Jus in rem b) Jus in personam
91. Whether an injunction can be granted in a case where for the breach of the
Contract Specific performance cannot be granted?
a) No b) Yes
92. According to Sec.5 of the T.P.Act, 1882- living person includes a Company or
Association or Body of individuals -
a) Which is incorporated b) Whether incorporated or not
93. According to Sec.6(e) of the T.P.Act, Right to sue for a certain sum of money.
a) Is not transferable b) Is transferable
94. In a contract of sale of goods, a stipulation essential to the main purpose of the
Contract is known as -
a) Warranty b) guarantee c) clog d) condition
95. As per Sec.34 of A.P. Tenancy (Telengana Area) Act, 1950, Protected tenant means
a person who has the land continuously for a period not less than -
a) 5 Years b) 6 Years c) 7 Years d) 8 Years
96. Under A.P. Escheats and Bona Vacantia Act, 1974, bona vacantia applies to the
property -
a) For which there is no rightful owner
b) For which the owner dies intestate (without legal heirs)
97. Which section of the A.P. Buildings (Lease, Rent and Eviction) control Act, 1960
provides the grounds for eviction of a tenant?
a) Sec.8 b) Sec.9 c) Sec.10 d) Sec.11
98. According to which section of A.P. Gaming Act, 1974 'Game of Skill' is not an
offence under the Act?
a) Sec.12 b) Sec.13 c) Sec.14 d) Sec.15
99. Under A.P. Pawn Brokers Act, 2002 carrying on Pawn Broking business without
licence is an offence punishable for -
a) Imprisonment for not less than 1 Year and upto 3 years and fine upto 50,000/-
b) Imprisonment upto 3 Years and fine upto 50,000/-
c) imprisonment upto 3 Years or fine upto 50,000/- or with both
d) Imprisonment upto 1 Year and fine upto 50,000/-
100. According to Sec.4 of A.P. Prohibition of Ragging Act, 1997 if a person causes
ragging or abets. ragging which causes the death, he shall be punished with -
a) Imprisonment upto 10 years and fine upto 50,000/-
b) Imprisonment of life and fine upto 50,000/-
c) Imprisonment upto 7 Years and fine upto 50,000/-
d) Imprisonment upto 3 Years and fine upto 50,000/-

Key:
1) C 2) B 3) B 4) C 5) D 6) A 7) D 8) D 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) D 13) B 13) D 14)
C 15) B 16) A 17) D 18) D 19) B 20) A 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) B 26) A 27)
B 28) B 29) D 30) D 31) B 32) D 33) B 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) A 38) A 39) A 40)
B 41) A 42) D 43) C 44) C 45) D 46) C 47) D 48) D 49) B 50) B 51) D 52) B 53)
B 54) D 55) A 56) A 57) B 58) A 59) C 60) B 61) D 62) A 63) B 64) C 65) B 66)
D 67) C 68) D 69) D 70) B 71) C 72) B 73) B 74) D 75) B 76) C 77) B 78) C 79)
C 80) C 81) A 82) C 83) B 84) A 85) C 86) D 87) B 88) B 89) D 90) B 91) A 92)
B 93) B 94) D 95) B 96) A 97) C 98) D 99) A 100) A
What a reply... So informative and detailed.I like this information so much.
  #5  
19th March 2015, 03:36 PM
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Re: Civil Judge Exam Solved question papers

I want to get Civil Judge Exam Solved question paper for doing preparation so will you please provide me that ?
  #6  
19th March 2015, 03:38 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Civil Judge Exam Solved question papers

As you want to get Civil Judge Exam Solved question paper for doing preparation so here I am giving you some questions of that paper:

Q. No. 1
Whether the pendency of a suit in a foreign court will preclude the courts in India from trying a suit founded on the same cause of action?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) It will depend on the nature of the suit
(d) Finding will be said on Valuation of the suit

Select this line to see correct answer : b


Q. No. 2
The provisions of Res Judi-cata also apply to the execution proceedings of a decree: -
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Resjudicata only applies to the suit
(d) Not apply if objection raised by JDR

Select this line to see correct answer : a


Q. No. 3
In the case of a public nuisance a suit for declaration and injunction may be instituted by :-
(a) Two persons, with the leave of the court
(b) Two persons having obtained oral consent of the Advocate General
(c) Two persons having Obtained the written consent of the advocate general
(d) Two persons having no special loss by such public nuisance

Select this line to see correct answer : a


Q. No. 4
In which of the following cases can C set off the claim?
(a) A sues C on a Bill of Exchange C alleges that A has wrongfully neglected to insure C's goods and is liable to pay in compensation
(b) A sues B and C for Rs. 1000 The debt is due to C by A alone
(c) A sues B and C for Rs. 1000 The debt is due to C by A alone
(d) A Sues C on a bill of exchange of Rs. 500. C holds a judgement against A for recovery of debt of Rs. 1,000

Select this line to see correct answer : d


Q. No. 5
Where the defendant is confined in a prison, the summons shall be served :-
(a) By affixing out side the prison
(b) By sending process server in the prison
(c) By delivery of the summons to the Officer incharge of the prison for service on the defendant
(d) By production warrant through the court

Select this line to see correct answer : c


Q. No. 6
Whether the appeal or revisional court can return the plaint U/o 7rlO CPC after set side the decree:-
(a) No .
(b) On technical ground
(c) With the consent of parties
(d) Yes

Select this line to see correct answer : d


Q. No. 7
The Plaint shall be rejected in the following ground also:-
(a) Where it is not filed in 2 copies
(b) Where it is not supported with affidavit
(c) Where plaintiff has not affixed his photo
(d) Where plaintiff does not put his signature

Select this line to see correct answer : a


Q. No. 8
Where the defendant appears and the plaintiff does not appear when the suit is called for hearing and where a part of the claim is admitted the court shall :-
(a) Dismiss the whole suit
(b) Dismiss the suit so far as it relates to the remainder
(c) Pass the decree of the whole Claim
(d) Proceed exparte (proceedings) against defendant

Select this line to see correct answer : b


Q. No. 9
Where the appellant has withdrawn the appeal preferred against a decree passed exparte the application under Order 9 Rule 13 shall be:-
(a) Rejected
(b) Returned
(c) Maintainable
(d) Referred for opinion to the Appellate Court

Select this line to see correct answer : c


Q. No. 10
If sufficient cause is shown by the parties for adjourn the hearing of the case the court shall not adjourn the case more than:-
(a) Once
(b) Twice
(c) Three
(d) Four time

Select this line to see correct answer : c


Q. No. 11
In every case the examination in Chief Shall be :-
(a) On affidavit
(b) Orally
(c) By typing in the court
(d) As court thinks fit

Select this line to see correct answer : a


Q. No. 12
Where a suit abates or dismissed u/o 22 of CPC on the same cause of action:-
(a) New suit may institute with the consent of parties
(b) with prior permission of the court fresh suit may file
(c) No fresh suit shall be brought
(d) If sufficient cause shown, then new suit may file

Select this line to see correct answer : c


Q. No. 13
Whether a minor on attaining majority may, if a sole plaintiff, apply that a suit instituted in his name by his next friend be dismissed on the ground that it was unreasonable or improper:-
(a) No
(b) With the consent of next friend
(c) Yes
(d) Joint application will be with next friend

Select this line to see correct answer : c


Q. No. 14
Where any injunction is passed without giving notice to opposite party the court will try to decide the application within:-
(a) 7 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 21 days
(d) 30 days from the date of such exparte injunction order.

Select this line to see correct answer : d


Q. No. 15
Immovable property does not include timber-
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Till it is rooted in the earth
(d) Only the branches of timber does not include in immovable property

Select this line to see correct answer : a


Q. No. 16
Under sec 5 of T.P.Act "Living person" does include company Also:-
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Company is not living person
(d) Company cannot transfer its assets

Select this line to see correct answer : a


Q. No. 17
Where writing is not expressly required by law a transfer of property may be made orally :-
(a) False
(b) Transfer can only be made by writing
(c) With consent of parties oral transfer can be done
(d) True

Select this line to see correct answer : d


Q. No. 18
A lets a farm to B on condition that he shall walk hundred miles in an hour:-
(a) The lease is void
(b) Lease can be executed if B walks 100 miles in a hour
(c) Lease can be executed
(d) Conditional transfer can be made

Select this line to see correct answer : a


Q. No. 19
Transferee of the part performance has right to protect his possession :-
(a) Wrong
(b) Right can accrue only after payment of full consideration
(c) Right
(d) Delivery of possession is not neccessary

Select this line to see correct answer : c


Q. No. 20
Which of the following is usufrutuary mortgage :-
(a) Where without delivery of the possession of the mortgage property binds himself to pay the mortgage money
(b) Where without delivery of the possession to the mortgage but retains the profit of the property
(c) Where mortgagor binds himself to repay the mortgage money on a certain date
(d) None of the above

Select this line to see correct answer : d


Q. No. 21
Termination of lease of immovable property shall be in the following manner:-
(a) By oral intimation
(b) By written notice
(c) By sending agent
(d) By telephonic intimation

Select this line to see correct answer : b


Q. No. 22
A lease of immovable property from year to year or exceeding one year can be made:-
(a) Only before Notary
(b) Valid if executed before Magistrate
(c) Agreements made by parties will be effective
(d) Only by a registered instrument

Select this line to see correct answer : d


Q. No. 23
Gift comprising of future property is valid :-
(a) Right
(b) Wrong
(c) Gift property may be provide in future to valid it
(d) Future gift will be valid if donee accepted it

Select this line to see correct answer : b


Q. No. 24
Universal donee is :-
(a) Not liable for any debt or liabilities
(b) Donee is personally liable for all debts to liabilities existing at the time of gift
(c) Donee is only liable for half of the liabilities
(d) Donee is only liable for the one-third of liabilities

Select this line to see correct answer : b


Q. No. 25
Transfer of actionable claim has exception - u/s of 130 T.RAct:-
(a) It does not apply to transfer of life insurance policy
(b) It does not apply to the transfer of marine or fire policy
(c) It does not apply to vehicle insurance policy
(d) None of the above policy applies

Select this line to see correct answer : d


Q. No. 26
Whether furniture provided by landlord is defined as accommodation u/s 2 of A.C. Act:-
(a) No
(b) Furniture never be accommodation
(c) Yes
(d) Furniture which is attached with land can be accommodation only

Select this line to see correct answer : c


Q. No. 27
Accommodation which is the property of the Government Accommodation Control Act shall not apply :-
(a) True
(b) Government may apply throungh notification
(c) False
(d) With the consent of Government and tenant it can apply

Select this line to see correct answer : a


Q. No. 28
Pagree means (as defined in Sec6ofA.C.Act)
(a) Deposits which is refundable
(b) Premium or cash received or claimed in addition to rent
(c) Amount which is received by landlord as agreement
(d) Special amount for special place or accommodation

Select this line to see correct answer : b


Q. No. 29
Member of the family :-
(a) Married sister
(b) A friend in service living together
(c) Unmarried sister
(d) Married daughter

Select this line to see correct answer : c


Q. No. 30
If any eviction decree is obtained on the basis of compromise then on execution:-
(a) The executing court has not right to enquire about the validity of the decree
(b) Executing court will see whether ground was available or not
(c) Tenant has right to challange the decree as no ground was available u/s 12 of the Act
(d) Landlord has right to impose new condition for execution

Select this line to see correct answer : a


Q. No. 31
If not specific place is agreed regarding payment of rent between landlord and tenant then the tenant will pay the rent :-
(a) In the business place of the landlord
(b) In the residential house of the landlord
(c) The landlord will come to the tenant and receive
(d) Rent will be deposited in Bank account of landlord

Select this line to see correct answer : b


Q. No. 32
Plaintiff lives in another city but casually when he comes lives in the suit house with his family:-
(a) It doesn't include in bonafide need of plaintiff
(b) When plaintifflives in other city how it would be bonafide need
(c) It also includes bonafide need of plaintiff
(d) Only when the plaintiff comes to enjoy vacation it includes bonafide need

Select this line to see correct answer : a


Q. No. 33
Tenant cannot sue against sub-tenant why:-
(a) Because the contract is voidable
(b) As there was no contract
(c) As no permission taken from landlord
(d) Because the contract is Void

Select this line to see correct answer : c


Q. No. 34
If stairs of the house is dismantled as unsafe whether tenant can get any relief u/s 38 of the Accommodation Control Act:-
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) It can be directed to reerrect the stairs
(d) It depends on the discretion of the R.A.

Select this line to see correct answer : c


Q. No. 35
Who can take cognizance of the offences mentioned u/s 44 of the Accommodation Control Act:-
(a) Third Class Magistrate
(b) Second Class Magistrate
(c) First Class Magistrate
(d) Second class Executive Magistrate

Select this line to see correct answer : c


Q. No. 36
Agriculture includes betel leaves and water nuts pro-duce:-
(a) No
(b) Only peddy , wheat and pulses included
(c) Right
(d) Till today not included

Select this line to see correct answer : c


Q. No. 37
Rent means as defined in sec 2(1) in C.G.Land Revenue Coder-
(a) Money or kind payable on account of land
(b) Consideration paid during sale of the land
(c) Income Tax imposes by the Income Tax deprt.
(d) Service money given to kotwar

Select this line to see correct answer : a


Q. No. 38
Within how many period a person who lawfully acquired the right in land shall report to the revenue deptt:-
(a) 30 days
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 12 months

Select this line to see correct answer : c


Q. No. 39
At the end of which month the village patel shall direct the holder of the land to rectify the defective survey mark:-
(a) July
(b) June
(c) October
(d) November

Select this line to see correct answer : d


Q. No. 40
Who can correct the errors in record of rights which the parties admit :-
(a) Tahsildar
(b) Revenue Inspector
(c) S.D.O.
(d) Collector

Select this line to see correct answer : c


Q. No. 41
When a transfer of land is done by a tribe then who can file application u/s 170 A of land revenue coder-
(a) By son of the seller
(b) By the seller only
(c) By Revenue Officer
(d) Any person who have knowledge about transfer

Select this line to see correct answer : b


Q. No. 42
In a partition proceeding before Tahsildar u/s 178 land revenue code if question of title is raised before Tahsildar for how many period Tahsildar shall stay the proceeding to file civil suit and get stay:-
(a) 6 months
(b) 3 months
(c) 1 months
(d) 15 days

Select this line to see correct answer : b


Q. No. 43
Whether transfer of trees standing on the land is valid:-
(a) It can be transferred with the land
(b) Only trees can be transferred
(c) Standing trees can not be transferred
(d) It can be transferred with the permission

Select this line to see correct answer : a


Q. No. 44
The following land includes in NistarPatrak:-
(a) All agricultural land
(b) All un occupied land
(c) All tanks
(d) All roads

Select this line to see correct answer : b


Q. No. 45
Whether civil court can decide regarding reinstatement of a Bhumiswami improperly dispossessed u/s 250 of Land Revenue Code:-
(a) Yes
(b) With the consent of Parties
(c) NO
(d) Both revenue and civil court can decide

Select this line to see correct answer : c


Q. No. 46
Every promise and every set of promises, forming the consideration for each other:-
(a) Is a promise
(b) Is an agreement
(c) Is called consideration
(d) Is called contract

Select this line to see correct answer : b


Q. No. 47
When, during partition in a family or it is agreed as family arrangement to maintain the mother then his contract is :-
(a) Void and not enforceable
(b) Voidable but enforceable
(c) Valid and enfroceable
(d) Null and void ( As per parition under Hindu Law)

Select this line to see correct answer : c


Q. No. 48
As per Indian law a person attains majority:-
(a) When he has completed 21 years
(b) When he has completed 18 years
(c) When he has completed 19 years
(d) When he has completed 25 years

Select this line to see correct answer : b


Q. No. 49
A patient in a lunatic asylum who is at intervals of sound mind:-
(a) May not contract
(b) May contract during intervals
(c) May contract on Medical certificate
(d) May contract after complete sound mind

Select this line to see correct answer : b


Q. No. 50
A sells, by auction, to B, a horse which A knows to be unsound, A says nothing to B about the horse's unsoundness:-
(a) This is not fraud in A
(b) A plays fraud with B
(c) A did not tell the truth to B
(d) A did not follow the ethics


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