Bharathiar University SET Exam Question Papers

Here I am looking for the sample question paper of Bharathiar University SET - Electronic Science Paper II Exam, can you please provide me the same??

[Kiran Chandar]

As you are looking for the sample question paper of Bharathiar University SET - Electronic Science Paper II Exam, so here I am sharing the same with you

1. Silicon crystal grows into
(A) Zinc blende structure
(B) Diamond structure
(C) Wurtzite structure
(D) None of these.
2. The Fermi level of a degenerate n-type semiconductor lies
(A) near the conduction band edge in the band gap
(B) at the middle of the band gap
(C) inside the conduction band
(D) anywhere in the band gap.
3. In a p-n junction diode, the diffusion and drift currents are caused by
(A) all minority carriers
(B) all majority carriers
(C) all majority carriers for diffusion current and all minority carriers for drift current
(D) all majority carriers for drift current and all minority carriers for diffusion
current.
4. The etchant for SiO, in IC technology is
(A) HCI
(B) Acetic acid
(C) Formaldehyde
(D) HF.
5. The I-V characteristics of a practical p-n junction is best expressed by
(A) I = K (V - V,), V, = cut in, K = constant
(B) ~ = ~ ~ ( e ~ ~ " ' ~ ~ - l ) , q > l
(c) I = I , ( ~
ev'kT - 1)
(D) 1=1,(e'~'*~+1).

6. In a linear network, the ratio of voltage excitation to current response is unaltered
when the positions of excitation and response are interchanged. This follows from
(A) Principle of superposition
(B) Thevenin theorem
(C) Reciprocity theorem
(D) None of these.
7. If f, and f, are the lower and upper half power frequencies of a RLC circuit and fo is
the frequency of resonance then the selectivity of RLC circuit is given by
Jo
8. A parabolic function when differentiated yields
(A) ramp function
(B) unit ramp function
(C) exponential function
(D) unit impulse function.
9. If the input voltage of a bridge rectifier is V,,, sin ot, then the peak inverse voltage (PIV)
s+4
10. The inverse of Laplace Transform of is equal to
2s2+5s+3
1
(B) -[6 exp (-t)-5exp(-3t/2)]
2
1
(C) -[6exp(t)-5exp(-3t/2)]
2

5
11. The action of JFET in its equivalent circuit can be represented by
(A) current controlled current source
(B) current controlled voltage source
(C) voltage controlled voltage source
(D) voltage controlled current source.
d2v dv
12. To solve the differential equation -- 2 - + v, = 0, involving voltages v ( t ) and v, , an
dt2 dt
OPAMP circuit requires at least
(A) two OPAMP differentiators and one OPAMP adder
(B) one OPAMP integrator and two OPAMP adders
(C) two OPAMP integrators and one OPAMP adder
(D) one OPAMP integrator, one OPAMP differentiator and one OPAMP adder.
13. In the first stage inside the OPAMP-IC, external inputs are connected to the circuits
which are
(A) phase-splitter amplifier
(B) difference amplifier
(C) R-C coupled amplifier
(D) emitter follower.
14. In the low frequency equivalent circuit of a MOSFET
(A) G is connected to D by a capacitor
(B) G is connected to D by a resistor
(C) G is not connected to D
(D) G is connected to D with a current generator
G = Gate, D = Drain
15. One 4-to-16 decoder with active low outputs needs some additional logic gates to
design a comparator to two 2-bit binary numbers. Those additional gates are
(A) OR gates
(B) NAND gates
(C) EX-OR gates
(D) NOR gates.
[ P.T.O.

16. The Q output becomes Q for a T flip-flop when the T input is
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) 0 or 1
(D) 1orO.
17. "Multiplexing" means
(A) one to many
(B) one to one
(C) many to many
(D) many to one?
18. The circuit in the figure is based on n-channel MOSFETS. For positive logic, the circuit
works as a
+ \'OD
(A) NAND gate
(B) OR gate
(C) NOR gate
(D) AND gate.
19. 1 MB memory in computer technology means
(A) 1048576 bytes
(B) 1024000 bytes
(C) 1000024 bytes
(D) 1000000 bytes.

20. When the following program segment is executed in a 8085 CPU based system, then
the content of Reg A
LXI D, 9000H
DCX D
J Z 8050H
MVI A, 05H
RST 1
8050 H MVI A, 06 H
RST 1
(A) 05H
(B) 06H
(C) OOH
(D) none of these.
21. If instruction RST-5 is written in a program, the program control will jump to location
(A) 0020H
(B) 0024H
(C) 0028H
(D) 0002H.
22. Which of the following ports of 8255 supports bi-directional data transfer function ?
(A) Port A
(B) Port B
(C) Port C upper
(D) Port C lower
23. Choose the correct statement :
(A) Instruction cycle is a part of machine cycle
(B) An instruction cycle can have more than one opcode fetch machine cycles
(C) In an execution cycle, there can be no fetch cycle
(D) In 8085 AD bus is time-multiplexed.
24. For an 8085 pP with 5 MHz clock, what is the time required to perform the instruction
LDA 8085 ?
(A) 0-8 p sec
(B) 2 p sec
(C) 2.6 p sec
(D) 3.2 p sec.
[ P.T.O.

25. For a statement : Do 10 1 = L, M, N, the number of iterations will be
M-L
(7)
M-L
(B) I + ( ~ )
M-L
(0 I - ( ~ )
26. What will be the correct output statement of the following C program ?
1% program *I
#include cstdio.h>
main ( )
{
printf ("%.Of\n",3.0/4.0);
printflu%. lf\n1',3.0/4.0);
printfl"%.2f\nH, 3.014.0);
}
(A) 1
0.75
0.8
(B) 0.75
0.8
0.75
(C) 0.0
0.75
0.75
(Dl 1
0.8
0.75
27. FORTRAN subroutine always
(A) follows data card
(B) follows main program
(C) jumps main program
(D) succeeds main program.

28. A quarter-wavelength of a lossless uniform transmission line open circuited at the load
end behaves as
(A) a perfect inductor
(B) a perfect capacitor
(C) a series tuned circuit
(D) a parallel tuned circuit.
29. To tune a microwave oscillation, p-n junction diode may be used in
(A) forward bias condition
(B) reverse bias condition
(C) no biasing is necessary
(D) all the above conditions are wrong.
30. An evanescent mode occurs when
(A) a wave is attenuated rather than propagated
(B) the propagation constant is purely imaginary
(C) m = 0 = n so that all field components vanish
(D) the wave frequency is the same as the cut-off frequency
31. What is the differential statement of Poynting's theorem connecting Poynting vector ? - 4
Let S be the Poynting vector, u be the field energy density, E be the electric field and j
be the current density.
+ + + +
(A) V . S + j . E = O
+ - au 7 - (B) V.S+-+ j . E + I R = O
at
+ - au 7 - (C) V.S+-+ j . E = O
at
32. The condition of no distortion in a practical transmission line in terms of primary line
constants is
(A) RC = GL
(B) RL = GC
(C) RG = LC
(D) RLGC = 1

33. Gunn diodes are called transferred electron device because
(A) electrons are transferred from valence band to conduction band
(B) electrons are transferred from heavy hole band to light hole band
(C) electrons are transferred from heavy hole band to split-off band
(D) electrons are transferred from lower conduction band to higher conduction band.
34. In a low level AM transmitter, amplifier following the modulated state must be
(A) Class-A
(B) linear Class-B
(C) Class-C
(D) Class-AB.
35. A DSB-SC AM signal is detected using
(A) envelope detectors
(B) synchronous detectors
(C) limiter discriminators
(D) band-pass filters.
36. For normal speech signal to be transmitted, the bandwidth required for PCM channel
would be
(A) 1 kHz
(B) 8 kHz
(C) 16 kHz
(D) 64 kHz.
37. Sampling theorem finds application in
(A) Amplitude modulation
(B) FM
(C) PCM
(D) Phase modulation
38. Which of the following semiconductor devices acts like a diode and two resistors ?
(A) SCR
(B) Diac
(C) Triac
(D) UJT.

39. The emission from usual light sources is
(A) totally coherent
(B) totally incoherent
(C) principally coherent
(D) principally incoherent.
40. Radiation emitted by a LED can be in the
(A) UV region
(B) visible region
(C) visible as well as in the infrared region
(D) only in the infrared region.
41. A p-i-n photodiode, on an average, generates one electron-hole pair per five incident
photons at a h = 0.90 pm. Assuming all the photo-generated electrons are collected,
what is the quantum efficiency of the diode ?
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%.
42. Given that Germanium ( Ge ) has a band gap of 0.67 eV, what is the wavelength that
will be absorbed by it ?
(A) 7,080 nm
(B) 4,560nm
(C) 1,850 nm
(D) 1,100 nm.
43. Erbium-doped fibre amplifier repeaters operate at which of the following wavelength
windows ?
(A) Low dispersion window ( - 1.3 pm )
(B) Low attenuation window ( - 1.55 pm )
(C) Both of the above windows
(D) None of these.
44. The material for making an efficient LED should be
(A) an indirect band gap type semiconductor
(B) a direct band gap type semiconductor
(C) ametal
(D) an insulator.

45. Which of the following materials is not suitable for making an LED ?
(A) GaAs
(B) Silicon
(C) InGaAsP
(D) GaAIAs.
46. Laser action in semiconductor p-n junction is possible for
(A) any finite value of forward current
(B) any finite value of reverse current
(C) current producing positive gain
(D) current sufficient to make gain exceeding total losses.
47. For the characteristic equation s4 + 5s3 + 5s2 +4s + k =O , the system is stable if k lies in
the range
(A) 4 > k > 0
(B) 80/105>k>O
(C) 2 > k > 0
(D) 84/25>k>O.
48. Nyquist stability criterion is based on the principle of
(A) arguments
(B) imaginary numbers
(C) s-plane
(D) conjugates.
49. Hall effect transducers can be used to measure
(A) mobility, conductivity and carrier type
(B) displacement, position and velocity
(C) position, magnetic flux and pressure
(D) displacement, positive and magnetic flux.
50. The function of the dummy strain gauge, in measurement using two strain gauges, is
to
(A) increase the stability
(B) nullify the errors due to temperature
(C) measure the strain in both, X as well as Y directions
(D) increase the sensitivity of measuring system.

I need the previous years question papers for SET examination conducted by Bharathiar University can you please provide me?

[Quick Sam]

Bharathiar University Coimbatore State Eligibility Test (SET) is an admission test conducted by Bharathiar University for the selection of candidates for the post of lectures in various colleges in Tamil Nadu

Exam Pattern:
Paper 1: (100 marks) (50 Questions)

Paper 2; (100 marks) (50 Questions)

Paper 3: (200 Marks) (50 Questions)


Bharathiar University SET exam question papers

I am looking for the Bharathiar University State Eligibility Test SET Geography entrance exam Question Paper. Will you please provide it ?

[Arun Vats]

Here I am providing the list of few question of Bharathiar University State Eligibility Test SET Geography entrance exam Question Paper which you are looking for .

1. The statement – “The present is the
key to the past” was given by
(A) G.K. Gilbert
(B) James Hutton
(C) W.H. Davis
(D) Walter Penk

2. Which process of chemical weathering causes rusting of iron ?
(A) Carbonation
(B) Oxidation
(C) Hydration
(D) Dissilication

3. Sea floor spreading theory was propounded by
(A) Harry Hess
(B) Tuzo Wilson
(C) A. Hobbes
(D) D.L. Holms

4. Match List – I with List – II and select correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I
(Theory)
List – II
(Names of
Scientist)
(a) Sea floorspreading theory
(i) Wegener
(b) Continental drifttheory
(ii) HarryHess
(c) Elastic reboundtheory
(iii) Joly
(d) Radio activitytheory
(iv) Reed
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

5. Red Sea is an example of
(A) Synclinal valley
(B) Volcanic structure
(C) Rift valley
(D) Eroded valley

6. Which of the following factors is responsible for the planetary wind
belts ?
(A) The tilt of earth’s axis
(B) The rotation of earth
(C) High and low pressure belts
(D) Differential rate of heating of land and water

7. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Select your answers from the code
given below :

Assertion (A) : Remains of older mountain belts lie within the shields in few places.
Reason (R) : Older mountain belts in shield areas are composed of soft sedimentary
rocks.
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
GEOGRAPHY
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all the questions.
8. The correct sequence of the following features towards sea fromthe coast is :
(A) Berm – Lowtide terrace – Longshore trough – Longshore bar.
(B) Longshore trough – Longshorebar – Berm – Lowtide terrace.
(C) Lowtide terrace – Berm –Longshore bar – Longshoretrough.
(D) Longshore bar – Lowtideterrace – Berm – Longshoretrough.
9. Given below are two statements, one
is labelled as Assertion (A) and theother is labelled as Reason (R).Select your answers from the code given below :
Assertion (A) : When sand arrivesat a particular section of thebeach more rapidly, than it iscarried away, the beach iswidened and built ocean ward.
Reason (R) : The progradationprocess is everywhere common inthe coastal environment.
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) iswrong.
(B) (A) is wrong, but (R) iscorrect.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
10. Who propounded the concept of
“Poly Climax” ?
(A) Clement (B) Tanslay
(C) Whittaker (D) Haeckel
11. The “Agenda 21” was adopted inwhich of the following conventions ?
(A) Stockholm convention
(B) Rio-Earth summit
(C) Rotterdam convention
(D) Ramsar convention
12. The correct sequence of Koppen’s climatic type from Nile delta towards Congo basin is
(A) BWh – BSh – Aw - Af
(B) Aw – Af – BSh – BWh
(C) BWh – Aw – BWh – Af
(D) Af – Aw – BSh – BWh
13. Given below are two statements, one
is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Select your answers from the code
given below :
Assertion (A) : There is a littlemixing of air between thetroposphere and stratosphere.
Reason (R) : The stratosphereholds large volume of watervapour dust.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
14. “The special purpose of Geographyis the comparison of unity inmultiplicity” is the statement of
(A) Carl Ritter (B) Ratzel
(C) Hartshorne (D) Humboldt
15. Which of the following area’sobservation motivated Davis todevelop his concept on ‘Cycle of Erosion’ ?
(A) Missouri (B) Grinoco
(C) Montana (D) Red River
16. Kant viewed Geography as a
(A) Spatial science
(B) Chorological science
(C) Regional science
(D) Systematic science
17. Match the following List – I with
List – II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(a) Mark
Jefferson
(i) Urban
Geography
(b) Robert
Dichinson
(ii) Settlement
Geography
(c) Arthur
Robinson
(iii) Physical
Geography
(d) Alexander
Von
Humboldt
(iv) Carto graphy
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(B) (iii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
18. Match the following List – I with
List – II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(a) Strabo (i) Christian
Topography
(b) Firamanus (ii) Historical
Memoir
(c) Solinus (iii) La Terre
(d) Elisee
Reclus
(iv) Rerum
Memorabilum
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
19. City-size distribution is best depicted
by
(A) Urban hierarchy
(B) Central place theory
(C) Rank-size rule
(D) Losch’s Hexagonal Model
20. According to UN projections, which
one of the following regions will
contribute maximum to the global
urban population by 2030 ?
(A) South Asia
(B) East Asia
(C) South East Asia
(D) Latin America
21. Given below are two statements, one
is labelled as Assertion (A) and the
other is labelled as Reason (R).
Select your answers from the codes
given below :
Assertion (A) : Social landscape is a
region in which one or several
groups live and share a common
set of ideas about their immediate
environment.
Reason (R) : It is a region where
human needs, identity, security
and stimulation are satisfied.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
22. Given below are two statements, one
is labelled as Assertion (A) and the
other is labelled as Reason (R).
Select your answers from the codes
given below :
Assertion (A) : Logistic population
growth is allowed to develop in
an optimal environment of
unlimited size.
Reason (R) : The growth follows
an exponential curve.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
23. Carl Sauer is best identified for his
classic work related to
(A) cultural landscape
(B) economic landscape
(C) social landscape
(D) physical landscape
24. pH value of moderately alkaline
soils varies between
(A) 4.5 to 5.0 (B) 5.0 to 5.5
(C) 5.8 to 6.4 (D) 7.8 to 8.4
25. Which one of the following
agricultural systems is described as
“Child of Industrial Revolution” ?
(A) Intensive subsistence tillage
(B) Livestock ranching
(C) Subsistence tillage
(D) Collective farming
26. Match List – I with List – II and
select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Scholar) (Model)
(a) Von Thunen (i) Input output
model
(b) Julian Wolpart (ii) Diffusion
model
(c) W.W. Leontieff (iii) Concentric
rings of landuse
(d) Toresten
Hagerstrand
(iv) Decision
making
model
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
27. Which one of them is a footloose
industry ?
(A) Iron and steel industry
(B) Automobile industry
(C) Cement industry
(D) Cotton textile industry
28. Transport route development model
by Taffe is based on his studies on
(A) Ethiopia and Egypt
(B) Sudan and Nigeria
(C) Kenya and Nigeria
(D) Ghana and Nigeria
29. Which of the following ports has an
outer harbour for export of iron ore ?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Mumbai
(C) Vishakapatanam
(D) Cochin

I want to do M.Phil COMMERCE from Bharathiar university CET EXAM MODEL QUESTION PAPER