UGC NET entrance exam dates

Guys, can you tell me the important dates of the National Eligibility Test???

[Arun Vats]

The National Eligibility Test is conducted by the University Grants Commission.

Eligibility:
The applicant should have minimum 55% marks in Master’s Degree from universities recognized by UGC.

Important dates:
Last date for Applying Online & generation of filled Bank Challan for Fee. 05.05.2014
Last date of submission of Fee through online generated Bank Challan, at any branch of State Bank of India (SBI). 07.05.2014
Last date of taking printout of Application Form, Attendance Slip and Admit Card from UGC website 10.05.2014
Last date for receiving the printout of online Application Form (one copy) and Attendance Slip (one copy) at the respective Coordinating Institution opted by the candidate (with fee receipt & category certificate(s) ) 15.05.2014

Subjects of NET:
Economics
Kannada
Linguistics
Sanskrit
Tamil
Telugu
Political Science
Philosophy
Psychology
Sociology
Manipuri
Assamese
Music
Management
Maithili
Bengali
Hindi
Urdu
Gujarati
Marathi
French
Malayalam
Chinese
Dogri
Odia
Punjabi
Russian
English
History
Anthropology
Commerce
Education
Social Work
Defence and Strategic Studies
Home Science
Public Administration
Population Studies*
Arabic
Spanish
Nepali
Persian
Rajasthani
German
Japanese
Adult Education/ Continuing Education/ Andragogy/ Non Formal Education
Physical Education
Arab Culture and Islamic Studies
Indian Culture
Labour Welfare/Personnel Management/Industrial Relations/ Labour and Social Welfare/Human Resource Management
Law
Library and Information Science
Buddhist, Jaina, Gandhian and Peace Studies
Comparative Study of Religions
Mass Communication and Journalism
Performing Arts – Dance/Drama/Theatre
Museology & Conservation
Archaeology
Criminology
Tribal and Regional Language/Literature
Folk Literature
Comparative Literature
Sanskrit Traditional Subjects (including Jyotisha/Sidhanta Jyotisha/ Navya Vyakarna/ Vyakarna/ Mimamsa/ Navya Nyaya/ Sankhya Yoga/ Tulanatmaka Darsana/ Shukla Yajurveda/ Madhva Vedanta/ Dharma Sastra/ Sahitya/ Purana-itihasa/Agama/Advaita Vedanta)
Women Studies
Visual Arts (including Drawing & Painting/Sculpture/ Graphics/Applied Art/History of Art)
Geography
Social Medicine & Community Health
Forensic Science
Pali
Kashmiri
Konkani
Computer Science and Applications
Electronic Science
Environmental Sciences
International and Area Studies
Prakrit
Human Rights and Duties
Tourism Administration and Management
Bodo
Santali

What is the last date of submission of UGC NET entrance exam form?

[Arun Vats]

The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) conducts the National Eligibility Test (NET) on behalf of the University Grants Commission.

Tentative Dates of UGC NET entrance exam

Important Dates Online Form Submission
15th October, 2014 to 15th November, 2014

Last date for applying Online & generation of filled Bank Challan for Fee. 15th November, 2014

Last date of submission of Fee through online generated Bank Challan, at any branch of (SYNDICATE/CANARA/ICICI BANK) 18th November, 2014

Last date of taking printout of Application Form, Attendance Slip and Admit Card from website 19th November, 2014

Last date for receiving the printout of online Application Form (one copy) and Attendance Slip (one copy) at the respective Coordinating Institution opted by the candidate (with fee receipt & category certificate(s) 25th November, 2014

UGC NET Question Paper

Break-down in verbal communication
is described as
(A) Short circuit
(B) Contradiction
(C) Unevenness
(D) Entropy
2. The Telephone Model of
Communication was first developed
in the area of
(A) Technological theory
(B) Dispersion theory
(C) Minimal effects theory
(D) Information theory
3. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for
2013 has been conferred on
(A) Karan Johar (B) Amir Khan
(C) Asha Bhonsle (D) Gulzar
4. Photographs are not easy to
(A) publish (B) secure
(C) decode (D) change
5. The grains that appear on a television
set when operated are also referred to
as
(A) sparks (B) green dots
(C) snow (D) rain drops
6. In circular communication, the
encoder becomes a decoder when
there is
(A) noise (B) audience
(C) criticality (D) feedback

7. In a post-office, stamps of three
different denominations of ` 7, ` 8,
` 10 are available. The exact amount
for which one cannot buy stamps is
(A) 19 (B) 20
(C) 23 (D) 29
8. In certain coding method, the word
QUESTION is encoded as
DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is
the code word for the word
RESPONSE ?
(A) OMESUCEM
(B) OMESICSM
(C) OMESICEM
(D) OMESISCM
9. If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, ....
is continued in the same pattern,
which one of the following is not a
term of this series ?
(A) 31 (B) 32
(C) 33 (D) 35
10. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML,
PP, ...........by choosing one of the
following option given :
(A) TS (B) ST
(C) RS (D) SR
11. A man started walking from his house
towards south. After walking 6 km, he
turned to his left and walked 5 km.
Then he walked further 3 km after
turning left. He then turned to his left
and continued his walk for 9 km. How
far is he away from his house ?
(A) 3 km (B) 4 km
(C) 5 km (D) 6 kmü

12. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99
without the digits 2 and 7. How many
numbers have been written ?
(A) 32 (B) 36
(C) 40 (D) 38
13. “If a large diamond is cut up into little
bits, it will lose its value just as an
army is divided up into small units of
soldiers, it loses its strength.”
The argument put above may be
called as
(A) Analogical (B) Deductive
(C) Statistical (D) Causal
14. Given below are some characteristics
of logical argument. Select the code
which expresses a characteristic
which is not of inductive in character.
(A) The conclusion is claimed to
follow from its premises.
(B) The conclusion is based on causal
relation.
(C) The conclusion conclusively
follows from its premises.
(D) The conclusion is based on
observation and experiment.
15. If two propositions having the same
subject and predicate terms can both
be true but can not both be false, the
relation between those two
propositions is called
(A) contradictory
(B) contrary
(C) subcontrary
(D) subaltern

16. Given below are two premises and
four conclusions drawn from those
premises. Select the code that
expresses conclusion drawn validly
from the premises (separately or
jointly).
Premises :
(a) All dogs are mammals.
(b) No cats are dogs.
Conclusions :
(i) No cats are mammals.
(ii) Some cats are mammals.
(iii) No dogs are cats.
(iv) No dogs are non-mammals.
Codes :
(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)
17. Given below is a diagram of three
circles A, B & C inter-related with
each other. The circle A represents the
class of Indians, the circle B
represents the class of scientists and
circle C represents the class of
politicians. p, q, r, s ... represent
different regions. Select the code
containing the region that indicates
the class of Indian scientists who are
not politicians.
Codes :
(A) q and s only
(B) s only
(C) s and r only
(D) p, q and s only

Read the following table carefully. Based upon
this table answer questions from 18 to 22 :
Net Area under Irrigation by sources in a
country (Thousand Hectares)
Year Government
canals
Private
canals
Tanks Tube
wells &
other
wells
Other
sources
Total
1997-98 17117 211 2593 32090 3102 55173
1998-99 17093 212 2792 33988 3326 57411
1999-00 16842 194 2535 34623 2915 57109
2000-01 15748 203 2449 33796 2880 55076
2001-02 15031 209 2179 34906 4347 56672
2002-03 13863 206 1802 34250 3657 53778
2003-04 14444 206 1908 35779 4281 56618
2004-05 14696 206 1727 34785 7453 58867
2005-06 15268 207 2034 35372 7314 60196
18. Which of the following sources of
Irrigation has registered the largest
percentage of decline in Net area under
irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06 ?
(A) Government canals
(B) Private canals
(C) Tanks
(D) Other sources
19. Find out the source of Irrigation that has
registered the maximum improvement
in terms of percentage of Net irrigated
area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.
(A) Government canals
(B) Tanks
(C) Tube wells and other wells
(D) Other sources
20. In which of the following years, Net
irrigation by tanks increased at the
highest rate ?
(A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01
(C) 2003-04 (D) 2005-06
21. Identify the source of Irrigation that
has recorded the maximum incidence
of negative growth in terms of Net
irrigated area during the years given
in the table.
(A) Government canals
(B) Private canals
(C) Tube wells and other wells
(D) Other sources
22. In which of the following years, share
of the tube wells and other wells in the
total net irrigated area was the highest ?
(A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01
(C) 2002-03 (D) 2004-05

23. The acronym FTP stands for
(A) File Transfer Protocol
(B) Fast Transfer Protocol
(C) File Tracking Protocol
(D) File Transfer Procedure
24. Which one of the following is not a/an
image/graphic file format ?
(A) PNG (B) GIF
(C) BMP (D) GUI
25. The first web browser is
(A) Internet Explorer
(B) Netscape
(C) World Wide Web
(D) Firefox
26. When a computer is booting, BIOS is
loaded to the memory by
(A) RAM (B) ROM
(C) CD-ROM (D) TCP
27. Which one of the following is not the
same as the other three ?
(A) MAC address
(B) Hardware address
(C) Physical address
(D) IP address
28. Identify the IP address from the
following :
(A) 300 215 317 3
(B) 302 215@ 417 5
(C) 202 50 20 148
(D) 202 – 50 – 20 – 148

29. The population of India is about 1.2
billion. Take the average consumption
of energy per person per year in India
as 30 Mega Joules. If this
consumption is met by carbon based
fuels and the rate of carbon emissions
per kilojoule is 15 × 106 kgs, the total
carbon emissions per year from India
will be
(A) 54 million metric tons
(B) 540 million metric tons
(C) 5400 million metric tons
(D) 2400 million metric tons
30. Which of the following cities has been
worst affected by urban smog in
recent times ?
(A) Paris
(B) London
(C) Los Angeles
(D) Beijing
31. The primary source of organic
pollution in fresh water bodies is
(A) run-off urban areas
(B) run-off from agricultural forms
(C) sewage effluents
(D) industrial effluents
32. ‘Lahar’ is a natural disaster involving
(A) eruption of large amount of
material
(B) strong winds
(C) strong water waves
(D) strong winds and water waves

33. In order to avoid catastrophic
consequences of climate change, there
is general agreement among the countries
of the world to limit the rise in average
surface temperature of earth compared
to that of pre-industrial times by
(A) 1.5 C to 2 C
(B) 2.0 C to 3.5 C
(C) 0.5 C to 1.0 C
(D) 0.25 C to 0.5 C
34. The National Disaster Management
Authority functions under the Union
Ministry of
(A) Environment
(B) Water Resources
(C) Home Affairs
(D) Defence
35. Match List – I and List – II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below :
List – I List – II
a. Flood 1. Lack of rainfall of
sufficient duration
b. Drought 2. Tremors produced
by the passage of
vibratory waves
through the rocks
of the earth
c. Earthquake 3. A vent through
which molted
substances come out
d. Volcano 4. Excess rain and
uneven distribution
of water
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
36. Which one of the following green
house gases has the shortest residence
time in the atmosphere ?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbon
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) Nitrous oxide

37. Consider the following statements and
select the correct answer from the
code given below :
i. Rajasthan receives the highest
solar radiation in the country.
ii. India has the fifth largest installed
wind power in the world.
iii. The maximum amount of wind
power is contributed by Tamil
Nadu.
iv. The primary source of uranium
in India is Jaduguda.
Codes :
(A) i and ii (B) i, ii and iii
(C) ii and iii (D) i and iv
38. Who among the following is the de
facto executive head of the Planning
Commission ?
(A) Chairman
(B) Deputy Chairman
(C) Minister of State for Planning
(D) Member Secretary
39. Education as a subject of legislation
figures in the
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Residuary Powers
40. Which of the following are Central
Universities ?
1. Pondicherry University
2. Vishwa Bharati
3. H.N.B. Garhwal University
4. Kurukshetra University
Select the correct answer from the
code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4

41. Consider the statement which is
followed by two arguments (i) and
(ii).
Statement : India should have a very
strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments : (i) Yes, it will go a long in
eliminating corruption
in bureaucracy.
(ii) No, it will discourage
honest officers from
making quick decisions.
Codes :
(A) Only argument (i) is strong.
(B) Only argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is
strong.
42. Which of the following universities
has adopted the meta university
concept ?
(A) Assam University
(B) Delhi University
(C) Hyderabad University
(D) Pondicherry University
43. Which of the following statements are
correct about a Central University ?
1. Central University is established
under an Act of Parliament.
2. The President of India acts as the
visitor of the University.
3. The President has the power to
nominate some members to the
Executive Committee or the
Board of Management of the
University.
4. The President occasionally
presides over the meetings of the
Executive Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

44. Which one of the following is
considered a sign of motivated teaching ?
(A) Students asking questions
(B) Maximum attendance of the
students
(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom
(D) Students taking notes
45. Which one of the following is the best
method of teaching ?
(A) Lecture
(B) Discussion
(C) Demonstration
(D) Narration
46. Dyslexia is associated with
(A) mental disorder
(B) behavioural disorder
(C) reading disorder
(D) writing disorder
47. The e-content generation for undergraduate
courses has been assigned by
the Ministry of Human Resource
Development to
(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium for Educational
Communication
(C) National Knowledge Commission
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open
University
48. Classroom communication is normally
considered as
(A) effective
(B) cognitive
(C) affective
(D) selective

49. Who among the following,
propounded the concept of paradigm ?
(A) Peter Haggett
(B) Von Thunen
(C) Thomas Kuhn
(D) John K. Wright
50. In a thesis, figures and tables are
included in
(A) the appendix
(B) a separate chapter
(C) the concluding chapter
(D) the text itself
51. A thesis statement is
(A) an observation
(B) a fact
(C) an assertion
(D) a discussion
52. The research approach of Max Weber to
understand how people create meanings
in natural settings is identified as
(A) positive paradigm
(B) critical paradigm
(C) natural paradigm
(D) interpretative paradigm
53. Which one of the following is a nonprobability
sampling ?
(A) Simple random
(B) Purposive
(C) Systematic
(D) Stratified ü
54. Identify the category of evaluation
that assesses the learning progress to
provide continuous feedback to the
students during instruction.
(A) Placement (B) Diagnostic
(C) Formative (D) Summative
55. The research stream of immediate
application is
(A) Conceptual research
(B) Action research
(C) Fundamental research
(D) Empirical research

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 56 to 60 :
Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from
that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common
system of leadership which we call the ‘State’. The Indian ‘State’s’ special feature is the
peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical
provenances which mutually adhere in a geographical, economic, and political sense, without
ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern
Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon
the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the
litigants as members of a regional group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law,
though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word ‘State’
above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the
State, atleast before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of
state ‘sovereignty’ or of any church-and-state dichotomy.
Modern Indian ‘secularism’ has an admittedly peculiar feature : It requires the state to make
a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of India’s
famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the
rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the
sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one
remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas More’s Utopia. There is little about modern India
that strikes one at once as Utopian : but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the
absence of bigotry and institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very
different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all
Utopians.
56. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian State ?
(A) Peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
(B) Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to
each other in a geographical, economic and political sense
(C) Social integration of all groups
(D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups.
57. The author uses the word ‘State’ to highlight
(A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of
history.
(B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.
(C) The concept of state sovereignty.
(D) Dependence on religion.
58. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian ‘Secularism’ ?
(A) No discrimination on religious considerations
(B) Total indifference to religion
(C) No space for social identity
(D) Disregard for social law
59. The basic construction of Thomas More’s Utopia was inspired by
(A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance.
(B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers.
(C) Social inequality in India.
(D) European perception of Indian State.
60. What is the striking feature of modern India ?
(A) A replica of Utopian State (B) Uniform laws
(C) Adherence to traditional values (D) Absence of Bigotry

Will you please provide the information regarding dates of UGC NET Entrance Exam ?

[Quick Sam]

UGC conducted by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) CBSE NET used for determining the eligibility of Indian nationals for eligibility as Assistant Professor only or Junior Research Fellowship & Eligibility for Assistant Professor both in Indian universities and colleges.

Important Dates :
Online Form Submission - 15th October, 2014 to 15th November, 2014

Last date for Applying Online & generation of filled Bank Challan for Fee. - 15th November, 2014

Last date of submission of Fee through online generated Bank Challan, at any branch of (SYNDICATE/CANARA/ICICI BANK) - 18th November, 2014

Last date of taking printout of Application Form, Attendance Slip and Admit Card from website - 19th November, 2014

Last date for receiving the printout of online Application Form (one copy) and Attendance Slip (one copy) at the respective Coordinating Institution opted by the candidate (with fee receipt & category certificate(s) - 25th November, 2014
UGC NET Entrance Exam Details
For detailed information , here is the attachment

Hey Buddy, I want to apply for University Grants Commission
UGC NET exam so tell me the dates of this exam?

[Kiran Chandar]

UGC NET is a national level eligibility test for the post of Assistant Professors and Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) in Indian universities and colleges.

UGC NET 2015 important dates –

Application Forms online registration starting date – 13.02.2015
Closing date of fee deposit – 25.03.2015
Application form online registration last date – 26.03.2015
Application forms hard copy submission last date – 17.03.2015
Last date for receipt of hard copy application form from remote areas: 07.04.2015
Last Date for receipt of written request for change of Examination Centre only on merit basis: 20.04.2015
Single MCQ Examination Date – 21.06.2015

Paper Pattern

The Test will consist of three papers.

Session:- First

•Paper:- I
•Marks:- 100
•Number of Question:- 60 out of which 50 question to be attempted
•Duration:- 1¼ Hours (09.30 A.M. to 10.45 A.M.)

Session:- First

•Paper:- II
•Marks:- 100
•Number of Question:- 50 questions all are compulsory
•Duration:- 1¼ Hours (10.45 A.M. to 12.00 NOON)

Session:- Second

•Paper:- III
•Marks:- 150
•Number of Question:- 75 questions all are compulsory
•Duration:- 2½ Hours (01.30 P.M. to 4.00 P.M.)

Paper-III will consist of 75 objective type compulsory questions from the subject selected by the candidate.
Each question will carry 2 marks.

All questions of Paper-II and Paper-III will be compulsory, covering entire syllabus

Contact details

University Grants Commission
Bahadur Shah Zafar Marg,
New Delhi, Delhi 110002 ‎
011 2338 2091 ‎

Map location

[MAP]University Grants Commission New Delhi, Delhi[/MAP]