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  #2  
3rd August 2015, 02:02 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: SAIL Sample Question Paper Management Trainee MT Exam

As you want to appear in Sail management trainee exam , so on your demand here I am providing sample question paper of this exam along with some additional information

Exam pattern
Aptitude Exam Test of 25 marks each.
Quantitative aptitude Math’s 25 marks
Verbal ability 25 marks
Reasoning 25 marks
General awareness on latest current affairs
Total 200 Marks

Sail management trainee sample question paper
1. Two coils in differential connection have self-inductance of 2 mH and 4 mH and a mutual inductance of 0.15 mH. The equivalent inductance of the combination is
A. 5.7 mH
B. 5.85 mH
C. 6 mH
D. 6.15 mH.
1.A. When two inductors are connected in series, the effective inductance is
Leff = L1 + L2± 2 m.
In this case, Leff = L1 + L2 - 2 M
= 2 + 4 - 2 × 0.15
= 5.7 mH.

2. Two point charges Q and -Q are located on two opposite corners of a square as shown in figure. If the potential at the corner A is taken as 1V, then the potential at B, the centre of the square will be

2.C. The plane midway between a and -a, i.e., the one passing through ABC and perpendicular to the plane of the paper is an equipotential plane. Hence the potential at B is the same as that of A or C, i.e., 1V.

3. Optocouplers combine
A. SITs and BJTs
B. IGBTs and MOSFETS
C. Power transformers and silicon transistor
D. Infrared light-emitting diode and a silicon phototransistor
3.D. In optocouplers the input signal is applied to the ILED and the output is takes from the phototransistor. These are used to isolate the gate signals from the power circuit.

4. The difference between the indicated value and the true value of a quantity is known as
A. Gross error
B. Absolute error
C. Dynamic error
D. Relative error
4.C. The difference between the indicated value and the true value of a quantity is known as dynamic error.

5. The principles of homogeneity and super-position are applied to :
A. linear time variant systems
B. non-linear time variant systems
C. linear time invariant systems
D. non-linear time invariant systems.
5.C. The Principles of homogeneity and superposition are applied to linear time invariant systems.

6. In a 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I / 0,
A. I / 0 devices have 8-bit addresses
B. I / 0 devices are accessed using IN and OUT instructions
C. there can be a maximum of 256 input devices and 256 output devices.
D. arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with the I / 0 data.
6.D. In an 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I / 0 arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with I / 0 data.

7. The transistor shown in figure below, is biased



1. at cut-off
2.at saturation
3.well into saturation
4.well into cut-off
7.B. Neglecting VBE, IB = 10 / 100 = 0.1 A.
IC = 100 × 0.1 = 10 A. Drop over RL = 10 v.
Hence, VCE = 0 which is the condition for saturation.


8. In any transmitting antenna system, efficiency primarily depends upon
A. ohmic losses of various conductors
B. radiation resistance
C. ground conductivity
D. atmospheric conditions.
8.B. whereRr is radiation resistance and Rd is the total loss resistance of the antenna.

9. An instruction used to set the carry Flag in a computer can be classified as
A. data transfer
B. arithmetic
C. logical
D. program control
9.B. Arithmetic

10. The binary representation of 5.375 is
A. 111.1011
B. 101.1101
C. 101.011
D. 111.001
10.C. 101.001 = (4 + 0 + 1)
(0 + 0.25 + 0.125)
= 5.375

11. Dislocations in materials are
A. point defect
B. line defect
C. planer defect
D. surface defects.
11.B. Dislocations in materials are line defects.

12. In TV system, vertical pulses are separated out from horizontal pulses by the use of
A. integrator
B. differentiator
C. sweep credit
D. sync separator.
12.A. Integrator.

13. Frequency in the UHF range propagate by means of
A. Ground waves
B. Sky waves
C. Surface waves
D. Space waves.
3.D. Frequency in the UHF Range propagate by means of space waves.

14. 200 MHz may be classified as
A. VHF
B. SHF
C. UHF
D. EHF
14.A. VHF.

15. A communication satellite is a repeater between
A. a transmitting station and a receiving station
B. a transmitting station and many receiving stations
C. many transmitting stations and many receiving stations
D. none of the above
15.C. a communication satellite is a repeater between many transmitting stations and many receiving stations.

16. The power in a series R-L-C circuit will be half of that at resonance when the magnitude of the current is equal to

A. V / 2R
B. V /
C. V /
16.C. V / Ö2 R
17. A point charge Q is located on the surface of a sphere of radius R as shown in the figure. The average electric field on the surface of the sphere will be


17.C. The point charge Q emanates a total electric displacement flux of Q. If a plane is passed through the point of location of charge and tangential to the sphere, half the flux is on one side and half on the other. The first half of flux is passing through the spherical surface. Thus the average displacement density has a direction opposite to that of n and the magnitude is

\ Average electric
field is :
Eav =

18. The efficiency of a chopper can be expected in the range

A. 50 to 55 percent
B. 65 to 72 percent
C. 82 to 87 percent
D. 92 to 99 percent
18.D. The efficiency of a practical chopper varies from 92 to 99 percent.

19. Which one out of the following instruments should be used to measure 600 kV a.c. voltages?
A. Hot wire instrument
B. Electrostatic voltmeter
C. Moving coil voltmeter
19.B. Electrostatic voltmeter should be used to measure 600 kV a.c. voltage. D. Moving iron voltmeter.

20

Which one of the following transfer functions represents the Bode plot shown in the above figure :
20.A. it can easily be checked that the corresponding function is
G (s) = (1 - s) / (1 + s)
It is seen immediately that | G (jw) |
= 1 and hence gain is db = 0.

21. The following programme is run on an 8085 microprocessor,
Memory address in Hex Instruction
2000 LXI SP, 1000
2003 PUSH H
2004 PUSH D
2005 CALL 2050
2008 POP 2050
2009 HIT
As the completion of execution of the program, the program the program counter of the 8085 contains ………, and the stack pointer contains ……..

2050, OFFC
2251, OFFC
1025, OCCF
1025, OCCF
21.A. Memory address in hex Instruction Remarks
2000 LXI SP 1000
2003 PUSH H
2004 PUSH D We do not
2005 CALL 2025 know the
contents of
subroutine
at 2050.
2006 50
2007 20
2008 POP H
2009 HALT
At the completion of the execution of the program, the program counter of the 8085 contains 2050 and the stack pointer contains OFFC.
22. With reference to figure, value of VCE is


0 V
5 V
-5V
none of the above


23. The smallest change in sound intensity that can be detected
A. 1 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 10 dB
D. 20 dB.
23.B. Increase = 10 log10 P2 / P1 = 10 log102 = 10 × 0.3 = 3dB.

24. In a generic microprocessor, instruction cycle time is
A. shorter than machine cycle time
B. larger than machine cycle time
C. exactly double the machine cycle time
D. exactly the same as the machine cycle time
24.D. Instruction cycle time is exactly the same as the machine cycle time.

25. The value of M in the end will be
Do 100 I = 1, 2
DO 200 J = 1, 2
M = M + I + J
200 CONTINUE
100 CONTINUE
STOP
END

10
11
12
14
25.C. Taking index of I = 1 and M = 0 computing the value of M with
J = 1, 2
J = 1
M = 0 + 1 + 1 = 2
J = 2
M = 2 + 1 + 2 = 4
Taking index of I = 2 and computing the value of M with J = 1, 2
J = 1
M = 5 + 2 + 1 = 8
J = 2

M = 1 + 2 + 2 = 12

26. Resistivity of electrical conductors is most affected by
A. temperature
B. pressure
C. composition
D. all of the above.
26.A. Resistivity of electrical conductors is most affected by temperature.

27. In CCIR B-system of TV, blanking pulse is placed during
A. equalizing pulse
B. retrace interval between each line
C. retrace period of vertical line
D. none of the above.
27.B. In CCIR B-system of TV, blanking pulse is placed during retrace interval between each line

28. The polarization required in ground wave propagation is
A. Horizontal (linear)
B. vertical (linear)
C. Circular
D. Elliptical
28.B. The polarization required in ground wave propagation is vertical (linear).

29. Multicavity Klystron
A. is not a microwave device
B. is not a good low level amplifier because of noise
C. is not suitable to pulse operation
D. has a high repeller voltage to insure small transit time
29.A. Multicavity Klystron is not a good low level amplifier because of noise.

30. Transponder comprises of
A. Transmitter
B. Receiver
C. Antenna
D. a, b, c combined
30.D. Transponder comprises of transmitter, receiver and antenna.

31. Consider the following statements regarding the circuit shown in the given figure :

1. If the switch K is closed at a proper instant there will be no transient
2. The instant at which K is closed such that the transient is zero depends on the frequency of the supply
3. The instant at which K is closed such that the transient is zero depends on the circuit elements
4. There will always be a non-zero transient after the switch K is closed.

Of these statements :

1 alone is correct.
1 and 2 are correct.
1 and 3 are correct
4 alone is correct.
31.C. If the switch is closed at instant t = to, the complete expression for current will be

32. A circular ring carrying a uniformly distributed charge Q and a point charges -Q on the axis of the ring are shown in the fig. The magnitude of the dipole moment of the charge system is



Qd
Q R2 / d
Q
QR.
32.A. For points far away, the charge on the ring may be considered to be located be at the centre of the ring. Hence, the dipole moment becomes Qd.

33. Which of the following regulator provides output voltage polarity reversal without a transformer
A. Buck regulator
B. Boost regulator
C. Buck-boost regulator
D. Cuk regulator
33.C. a puck-boost regulator provides on output voltage which may be less than or greater than the input voltage. The output voltage polarity is opposite to that of the input voltage. It has high efficiency.

34. The deflection of hot wire instrument depends on
A. RMS value of alternating current
B. voltage
C. average value of a.c. current
D. instantaneous value of a.c. current.
34.A. The deflection of hot wire instrument depends on RMS value of alternating current.

35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :

List-I List-II
(Response to a unit step input) (Location of poles in the s-plane)

1.One at the origin

B. 2.Two identical roots on the negative real axis.
C. 3.Two on the imaginary axis
D. 4.One on the position real axis.
Codes:
A B C D
A. 4 3 2 1
B. 3 4 1 2
C. 3 4 2 1
D. 4 3 2 1

36. Dual slope integration type Analog-to-Digital converters provide

A. higher speeds compared to all other types of A / D converters
B. very good accuracy without putting extreme requirements on component stability
C. poor rejection of power supply hums
D. better resolution compared to all other types of A / D converters for the same number of bits.
36.B. Dual slope integration type A to D converters are of slow speed and require more number of bits, than successive approximation ADC

37. In the figure given below, the collector current is


2 mA
200 mA
Almost zero
0.02 mA
37.C. Since emitter and base have same polarity and same potential, EBJ is not biased property. Hence, IB is zero and so is IC
.
38. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly
A. 250 - 300 MHz
B. 150 - 200 MHz
C. 90 - 105 MHz
D. 30 - 70 MHz
38.C. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly 90 - 105 MHz.

39. A 32 bit microprocessor has the word length equal to
A. 2 bytes
B. 1 byte
C. 4 bytes
D. 8 bytes
39.C. 4 bytes.

40. In electronic microcircuits, a resistor may be fabricated from constant-thickness layer of semiconductor material with conductor connections at the edges as shown below. If the resistor shown has resistance R, then a similar resistor 0.2 millimeter has a resistance of


4 R
2 R
R
R / 2
40.C. Resistance will be directly proportional to length and inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area. Let t mm be the thickness of semi-conductor material so that the cross-sectional area for R ohm resistor is 0.1 × t sq. mm and length of semi - conductor material 0.1 mm.
For a 0.2 mm × 0.2 mm section, cross - sectional area = 0.2 × t sq. mm. Length = 0.2 mm
Hence, resistance,

41. Line imperfection in a crystal is called
A. Schottky defect
B. Frenkel defect
C. edge dislocation
D. Miller defect.
41.C. Line imperfection in a crystal is called edge dislocation.

42. The function of diplexer bridge in a TV transmitter is
A. to prevent the loading of several transmitters by video transmitter
B. to increase the bandwidth
C. to increase the power output
D. to increase the efficiency of transmission.
42.A. The function of diplexer bridge in a TV transmitter is to prevent the loading of several transmitters by video transmitter.

43. Sometimes microwave signals follow the earth’s curvature. This due to
A. Ionospheric reflection
B. Faraday rotation
C. Ducting
D. Ionospheric scatter.
43.C. Sometimes microwave signals follow the earth’s curvature. This is due to ducting.

44. The modes in a reflex Klystron
A. give the same frequency but different transit time
B. result from excessive transit time across the resonator gap
C. are caused by spurious frequency modulation
D. are just for theoretical considerations.
44.A. The modes in a reflex Klystron give the same frequency but different transit time.

45. The capacity of a channel is
A. number of digits used in coding
B. volume of information it can take
C. maximum rate of information transmission
D. bandwidth required for information
45.C. The capacity of a channel is maximum rate of information transmission

Fill in the Blanks with appropriate Words
1. ‘Please’ and ‘Thank you’ are the little courtesies by which we keep the…….. of life oiled and running smoothly.
(a) river
(b) garden
(c) path
(d) machine-Answer
2. The bright colour of this shirt has………. away.
(a) gone
(b) disappeared
(c) faded-Answer
(d) paled
3. One major ……….between the Election Commission and the Union Government is related to the powers of the former in respect of the deployment of central police forces at places where an election isheld.
(a) conflict-Answer
(b) pain
(c) irritant
(d) culprit
4.Even a ………glance will reveal the mystery
(a)crude
(b)cursory-Answer
(c) critical
(d) curious
5. His standard of living has……. since his son joined service.
(a) lifted
(b) increased
(c) risen-Answer
(d) heightened
6. The passengers were afraid but the captain …….them that there was no danger.
(a) instructed
(b) advised
(c) promised
(d) assured-Answer
7. His first failure did not…… him from making another attempt.
(a) interfere
(b) forbid
(c) frighten
(d) deter-Answer
8. No one will ……….. you for having been rude to your teacher.
(a) exclaim
(b) admire-Answer
(c) advise
(d) recommend
9.The doctor …….. the patient from taking certain medicines.
(a) banned
(b) prohibited-Answer
(c) prescribed
(d) proscribed
10.I ……..a car to be absolutely necessary these days.
(a) think
(b)regard
(c) consider-Answer
(d) agree

11. He didn’t have the……….. idea of villager’s problems.
(a) smallest
(b)finest
(c) faintest-Answer
(d) feeblest
12. This is a………… translation of the speech.
(a) verbatim
(b)verbal
(c) literal-Answer
(d) literary
13.The news of the secret deal soon despite official silence.
(a) discovered
(b) disclosed
(c)leaked out-Answer
(d) divulged
14. No man had a more ………..love for literature, or a higher respect for it, than
Samuel Johnson.
(a)arduous
(b) ardent-Answer
(c) animated
(d) adroit
15.I have often ………why he went to live abroad.
(a) puzzled
(b) wondered-Answer
(c) thought
(d) surprised
16.He lives near ……………a lonely of countryside.
(a) piece
(b) length
(c) stretch-Answer
(d) section
17. To nobody else did the story seem ………
(a) contingent
(b) credible-Answer
(c) credulous
(d) creditable
18. The transfer of territories could not take place because one state ……………..the findings
of the Commission.
(a) objected
(b) questioned
(c)rejected
(d) disputed-Answer
19.Anticipating renewed rioting, the authorities erected …………….to block off the
streets.
(a) dykes
(b) barrages
(c) barricades-Answer
(d) barracks
20.When their examinations were over, the children gleefully……. the books they
had been reading.
(a) despised
(b) neglected-Answer
(c) shelve
(d)overthrow
  #3  
27th November 2015, 03:16 PM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Re: SAIL Sample Question Paper Management Trainee MT Exam

Hello sir I am appearing in SAIL Management Trainee MT Exam so please provide me sample question papers of this exam.
  #4  
27th November 2015, 03:18 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: SAIL Sample Question Paper Management Trainee MT Exam

SAIL stands for Steel Authority of India Limited is inviting the applications for requiting the management trainee posts in technical and administration department.

Selection procedure

Written test
Group Discussion
Personal Interview

Final Merit List will be announced after considering performance in the written test and GD Interview Sessions.

SAIL exam pattern

The SAIL exam consist of 5 Sections they are

Section I of 45 Marks based on Reasoning.
Section II of 35 Marks consists of Quantitative Aptitude.
Section III is of 35 Marks again which consists of General Awareness.
Section IV is of 35 marks of English & Lastly
Section V is of 100 marks which is Technical Paper of your Branch

There are not fixed the total number of questions,

Time duration-2 hours 30 minutes

Sample Question Paper of SAIL Management Trainee MT Exam

Direction (1 – 5) : In the following passage, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6.
The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named, P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their
proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct
answer and blacken the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.
Q.1) 1. Making ourselves
P. our language
Q. part of growing into
R. masters of
S. is an important
6. full manhood or womanhood
(1) PSRQ (2) SQPR
(3) RPSQ (4) PRSQ
Q.2) 1. The very first battle they fought
P. and they had to fall back
Q. cross the border
R. was lost
S. letting the enemy
6. an enter the country
(1) RQSP (2) RPSQ
(3) QRPS (4) QPRS
Q.3) 1. A nation
P. the material assets it possesses
Q. is not made by
R. and collective determination
S. but by the will
6. of the people
(1) PQRS (2) QPSR
(3) RSPQ (4) SRPQ
Q.4) 1. When the Governor
P. the bell had rung
Q. justice should be immediately
R. he ordered that
S. found out why
6. done to the horse
(1) RSPQ (2) PQSR
(3) SPRQ (4) SQRP
Q.5) 1. When you ponder over
P. that the only hope
Q. you will realize
R. of world peace lies
S. the question deeply
6. in the United Nations

(1) QRSP (2) SPQR
(3) SQPR (4) RSPQ
Direction (6 – 15) : In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over
and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your
answer in the Answer Sheet.
The language problem is not solved by deciding the medium of instruction in the education institutions. The
problem is 81.
between State Governments still 82. At present, each State Government is 83 the process of 84 the 85 language
as the medium for 86 purposes. Then the need for a stable language for 87 communication 88. Moreover, the
Central Government shall 89 adopt a particular language for 90 own official work.
Q.6)
(1) communication (2) information
(3) intimation (4) decision
Q.7)
(1) stays (2) remains
(3) resides (4) rests
Q.8)
(1) into (2) through
(3) with (4) in
Q.9)
(1) adapting (2) imposing
(3) thrusting (4) adopting
Q.10)
(1) local (2) mother
(3) regional (4) foreign
Q.11)
(1) governmental (2) officious
(3) administrative (4) religious
Q.12)
(1) inter-state (2) regional
(3) international (4) intra-state
Q.13)
(1) come up (2) rises
(3) crops up (4) persists
Q.14)
(1) having to (2) have to
(3) had been (4) have been
Q.15)
(1) its (2) their
(3) our (4) his
Direction (16 – 25) : In the following passage, you have two brief passage with 5 questions following each
passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives
and blacken the appropriate rectangles in the Answer-sheet.
Passage - I
“The Law is an ass’, declared Mr. Bumble in “Oliver Twist”, and it often seems he was right. For punishment
does not always fit the crime and it rarely happens that a prison term reforms a criminal.”
Consider the following tow cases. The first one had happened in a village in Madural District. One Gopal One
Gopal Yadhav, a hard-core criminal undergoing life sentence in the Madural Prison came out on ball for two
days to perform the last rites of his mother. But he was rearrested on the same evening on the charges of
murdering his neighbour’s son the settle old scores.
The second case too came to Madural Court recently. Deserted by her husband a drunkard, his grief-stricken
wife mixed rate poison in the food and gave it to her four children aged between 1 ½ and 9 years. Before she
could swallow the same food she was unable to bear the pritiable sight of her children writhing in pain. She
rushed them to hospital where she disclosed everything. She was able to save the lives of the first three
children, but the law of the country awarded her tow years imprisonment (later commuted to one year) on the
charges of plotting to kill her children. Would you say women like here are a danger to the society? Would you
call them criminal? It is high time that we found other ways of registering our disapproval of wrong doing. To
imprison the bad is expedient – when they are dangerous. To imprison the mad and the merely sad, as we do, is
not only unnecessary, it is uncivilized.
Q.16) The writer says ‘The Law is an ass’ because
(1) it is as patient as an ass
(2) it does not punish the criminals severely
(3) punishments do not help to reform criminals
(4) criminals can escape punishment.
Q.17) Gopal Yadhav came out on ball
(1) in order to murder his enemy
(2) to cremate his mother
(3) so that he could be rearrested
(4) to see his four children undergoing treatment in the hospital
Q.18) The mother in the second case cannot be called a criminal because she
(1) rushed her children to the hospital
(2) mixed an ineffective poison in the food
(3) was able to save three out of four children
(4) was deserted by her husband.
Q.19) The writer argues that punishments for people like the woman in the second case are not necessary
because they
(1) don’t commit crimes frequently
(2) are less dangerous than other criminals
(3) represent poor society
(4) should not be clubbed with other criminals
Q.20) The main difference between the two case is
(1) the first is about a man and the other is about a woman
(2) the woman regrets what she has done, but not the man
(3) the man is a lifer but the woman is not
(4) the man and the woman belong to different communities
Passage - II
The United Nations Fourth World Women’s Conference had a colourful start at Beijing on September 4th. This
is the century’s most crucial conference which aimed at changing the status quo of women’s lives
characterized by inequality.
In a preliminary session, Ms. Aung Suu Kyi, the Nobel Peace Prize winner said that expanding women’s
power will bring greater peace and tolerance to the world.
“It is not the prerogative of men alone to bring light to this world. Women with their capacity for compassion
and self-sacrifice, with their courage and perseverance have done much to dissipate the darkness of intolerance
and hate”, said Ms. Suu Kyi.
In the afternoon session Ms. Ayako
In the afternoon session Ms. Ayako Yamaguchi, a Japanese delegate, launched a petition against beauty
pageants. “What right do men have to evaluate women in a few minutes? All women are beautiful. Beauty is
something different for everyone”, Ms Ayako Yamaguchi said.
“Beauty contests are used as trade and exploitation. The training is very vigorous but it is the organizers, not
the women, who get the full benefit”, said Ms Ranjana Bhargava. “After the competition, the women become
trapped and the abuse and the bad things begin. The women are tainted no one else will accept them”.
Q.21) The Women’s World Conference was very important because
(1) Ms Aung Suu Kyi has just been awarded the prestigious Nobel Peace Prize
(2) Ms Aung Suu Kyi was taking part in the Conference
(3) its main purpose was to change inequalities between men and women
(4) it was to protest against beauty contests
Q.22) Which of the following arguments of Ms Aung Suu Kyi is not true?
(1) Women also can bring greater peace to the world.
(2) Men cannot claim they have done more for peace.
(3) Women have the capacity for compassion and sacrifice.
(4) Men have done nothing to dissipate ignorance.
Q.23) The main emphasis in Ms. Ayako Yamaguchi’s argument is
(1) men have no right to judge women.
(2) men should be given more time to evaluate women.
(3) all women are beautiful in a way.
(4) beauty contests are not necessary.
Q.24) “Beauty is something different for everyone”.
This statement means
(1) beauty is certainly different from ugliness.
(2) beautiful women do not mingle with other women.
(3) beauty cannot be defined adequately.
(4) each woman is beautiful.
Q.25) “Colourful start” in the first sentence refers to
(1) participants who were all beautiful
(2) a lot of excitement and cheerfulness in the conference hall
(3) absence of black coloured girls
(4) flags of various colours outside the conference hall

ANSWERS
1. (3)2. (2)3. (2)4. (3)5. (3)6. (1)7. (2)8. (4)9. (4)10. (3)11. (3)12. (1)13. (1)14. (2)15. (1)16. (3)17. (2)18. (1)19. (2)20. (2)21. (3)22. (4)23. (1)24. (3)25. (2)


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