SAIL Modal Papers

Hey there! I am looking for Modal papers of SAIL exam. Would you please provide me following modal papers ?

[Kiran Chandar]

Hi buddy, as per your query, here I am providing Sample question paper of SAIL exam:

Sample Exam Papers:

Electronics & Communication

Q.1.If the voltage applied across a capacitance is triangular in waveform then the waveform of the current is

Triangular
Trapezoidal
Sinusoidal
Rectangular

Q.2.One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is -

It is dimensionless
It is not equal to unity for vacuum
It’s value for all substances is less than one
None

Q.3.Pure metals generally have

high conductivity and low temperature coefficient
high conductivity and large temperature coefficient
low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
low conductivity and high temperature coefficient

Q.4.For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is

Air
Ferrite
Powdered ion
Steel

Q.5.For an abrupt junction Varactor diode,the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by

C a V1/3
C a V-1/3
C a V1/2
C a V-1/2

Q.6.A superconductor is a

A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
A conductor having zero resistance
A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility
A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

Q.7.When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of –2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a

Thermistor
Forward biased pn junction diode
Reverse biased pn junction diode
FET

Q.8.The location of lightning arrestor is -

Near the transformer
Near the circuit breaker
Away from the transformer
None

Q.9.Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is -

Increased
Decreased
Neither a nor b
Both a and b

Q.10.Intrinsic semiconductors are those which -

Are available locally
Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from
Have more electrons than holes
Have zero energy gaps

Q.11.The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by -

Channel resistance
Size of depletion regions
Voltage drop across channel
Gate reverse bias

Q.12.The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order of -

1010
105
10-4
10-6

Q.13.When biased correctly, a zener diode –

acts as a fixed resistance
has a constant voltage across it
has a constant current passing through it
never overheats

Q.14.The current amplification factor adc is given by –

IC/IE
IC/IB
IB/IC
IB/IC

Q.15.Compared to bipolars, FETs have

high input impedance
low input impedance
same input impedance
none

Q.16.The source-drain channel of JFET is -

ohmic
bilateral
unilateral
both a and b

Q.17.A diac is equivalent to a -

Pair of SCRs
Pair of four layer SCRs
Diode and two resistors
Triac width

Q.18.When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ´1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 ´ 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be –

106/cm3
103/ cm3
1010/ cm3
1012/ cm3

Q.19.When the two networks shown in fig. are equivalent with respect to the terminals 1 and 2 at all frequencies then the values of CA, LB, LC and CC will be –

0.5, 0.33, 6, 0.166
0.5, 3, 6, 0.66
0.5, 3, 3, 2
0.5, 3, 6, 0.166

Q.20.Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis.The network consists of elements –

R and C
L and C
R and L
R, L and C

Q.21.The statement 'In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf's reduced to zero’ represents -

Kirchhoff's law
Norton's theorem
Thevenin's theorem
Superposition theorem

Q.22.One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at icrowave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is –

TE1 mode
TM01 mode
TE01 mode
Higher order mode

Q.23.A two-port network is symmetrical if –

z11z22 – z12z21 = 1
h11h22 – h12h21 = 1
AD – BC = 1
y11y22 – y12y21 = 1

Q.24.For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies,it is best to use

a balun
a broad band directional coupler
a double stub
a single stub of adjustable position

Q.25.The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can be realised -

by an LC network
as an RC driving point impedance
as an RC driving point admittance
only by an RLC network

General knowledge:

Q.1.India has won the “World Cup Hockey” title:

Twice
Once
Thrice
Never

Q.2.Which pass was opened between India and China for trade?

Nathula
Khardungla
Chumbi
Solang

Q.3.The largest continent is:

South Africa
Europe
Africa
Asia

Q.4.The ball used in which of the games is usually oval in shape?

Rugby
Golf
Polo
Volleyball

Q.5.Who formulate s the monetary policy in India?

SEBI
RBI
Finance Ministry
Planning Commission

Q.6.In 1858 the first train from Howrah ran to

Hooghly
Bardhaman
Bandel
Chinsura

Q.7.Who was the Prime Minister of Britain when India got independence?

Winston Churchill
Clement Atlee
Wilson
None of these

Q.8.The highest railway line has been opened in July 2006 in which country?

India
Mongolia
China
Russia

Q.9.What is earlier name of the present ‘National Library in Kolkata’?

Imperial library
British library
Royal library
Albert library

Q.10.The capital of Mauritius is

Male
Kabul
Suva
Port Louis

Q.11.Jagan went to another town covering 240 km by car moving at 60 kmph. Then he covered 400km by train moving at 100 kmph and then rest 200 km he covered by a bus moving at 50 kmph. The average speed during the whole journey was:

80 kmph
70 kmph
75 kmph
72 kmph

Q.12.The area of a triangle is equal to the area of a square whose each side is 60 metres. The height of the triangle is 90 metres. The base of the triangle will be

75 m
85 m
65 m
80 m

Q.13.A horse is tied at the corner of a rectangular field, whose length is 20m and width is 16m with a rope whose length is 14m. Find the area which the horse can graze?

156 sq.m.
154 sq.m.
164 sq.m.
144 sq.m.

Q.14.Sam and Rita was sitting in a park in the evening looking at the sunset to the horizon. What is the direction of their right hand side?

East
West
North
South

Q.15.A shopkeeper buys 144 eggs at 90 paise each. In the way 20 eggs were broken. He sold the remaining eggs at Rs. 1.20 each. The percentage gain or loss is

14.8% gain
12.9% gain
8.5% gain
4.8% gain

Q.16.It takes 40 men eight days to earn Rs. 2000.How many men will earn Rs.200 in two days?

10
14
16
20

Q.17.A pipe of 2 inch diameter fills the water tank in one hour. If the diameter of the pipe is 4 inch in what time will the pipe fill the same tank?

10 minutes
15 minutes
30 minutes
45 minutes

Q.18.Ten men can finish construction of a wall in eight days. How much men are needed to finish the work in half-a-day?

80
100
120
160

Q.19.A shop gives 10% discount on the purchase of an item. If paid for in cash immediately, a further discount of 12% is given. If the original price of the item is Rs. 250, what is the price of the article if a cash purchase is made?

Rs. 200
Rs. 195
Rs. 198
Rs. 190

Q.20.It was Wednesday on July 15, 1964. What was the day on July 15, 1965?

Thursday
Tuesday
Friday
None of these

MODAL PAPERS:

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold
to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Once upon a time, there was a royal elephant which used to reside in the
premises of the king’s palace. The elephant was very dear to the king, so
he was well-fed and well-treated. There was also a Dog who lived near the
Elephant’s shed. He was very weak and skinny. He was always fascinated by
the smell of rich sweet rice being fed to the royal elephant.
One day, the Dog could no longer resist the aroma of the rice and somehow
managed to sneak into the Elephant’s shed. He ate the grains of sweet
rice that fell from the Elephant’s mouth. He liked the rice so much, that
he started going there daily to eat the rice. For days, the huge Elephant
didn’t notice the small dog as he was busy enjoying the delicious food.
Gradually, the Dog grew bigger and stronger eating such rich food.
Finally, the Elephant noticed him and allowed him access to the food.
The Elephant enjoyed the company of the Dog and started sharing his food
with him. They also started spending time with each other and soon became
good friends. They ate together, slept together and played together.
While playing, the Elephant would hold the Dog in his trunk and swing him
back and forth. Soon neither of them was happy without the other. They
became great friends and didn’t want to be separated from each other.
Then one day, a man saw the Dog and asked the Elephant-keeper, “I want to
buy this Dog. What price do you want for it ?” The Elephant-keeper didn’t
own the Dog but sold it and extracted a sum of money from this deal. The
man took the Dog to his home village, which was quite far away. The
King’s Elephant became very sad after this incident. He missed his friend
a lot and started neglecting everything. He didn’t want to do anything
without his dear friend, so he stopped eating, drinking and even bathing.
Finally, the Elephant-keeper reported this to the King; however he didn’t
mention anything about the Dog. The King had a wise minister, who was
known for his keen understanding of animals. The King ordered the
minister, “Go to the Elephant shed and find out the reason for the
Elephant's condition”. The intelligent minister went to the Elephant shed
and found the Elephant very sad. He examined the Elephant and asked the
Elephant-keeper. “There is nothing wrong with this Elephant’s body, then
why does he look so sad ? I think this Elephant is grief stricken,
possibly due to the loss of a dear friend. Do you know if this Elephant
shared a close friendship with anyone ?”
The Elephant-keeper said, “There was a Dog who used to eat, sleep and
play with the Elephant. He was taken by a stranger three days ago”. The
minister went back to the King and said, “Your majesty, in my opinion,
the royal Elephant is not sick, but he is lonesome without his dear
friend, the Dog”. The King said, “You’re right, friendship is one of the
most wonderful things of life. Do you know where that Dog is ?’

The Minister replied, “Elephantkeeper has informed me that a stranger
took him away and he doesn’t know his whereabouts”. The King asked, “How
can we bring back my Elephant’s friend and make him happy again ?” The
Minister suggested, “Your Majesty, make a declaration, that whoever has
the dog that used to live at the royal Elephant’s shed will be
penalized”. The King did the same and the man who had taken the dog,
instantly turned him loose when he heard the proclamation.
As soon as he was freed, the Dog ran back as fast as he could to the
Elephant’s shed. The Elephant was so delighted to see the Dog that he
picked his friend up with his trunk and swung him back and forth. The Dog
wagged his tail, while the Elephant’s eyes sparkled with happiness. The
King was content to see the Elephant happy once again and rewarded the
minister for his wise judgement.
1. What was the Minister’s diagnosis of the Elephant’s condition ?
(A) The Elephant hated his keeper
(B) The Elephant was lonely
(C) The Elephant was starving
(D) The Elephant had hurt his leg and was in pain
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
2. What method did the Minister suggest to the King to get back the Dog ?
(A) To declare that whoever had that particular Dog would be punished
(B) To keep a bowl of rice for the Dog in the Elephant’s shed so that he
could be lured back to the palace
(C) To command the Elephant keeper to look for the Dog in the village
(D) To persuade the Elephant to call out to the Dog
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
3. Why had the Elephant become very sad ?
(A) He no longer got his daily bowl of rice
(B) He was unhappy with the King for having sold the Dog
(C) He missed his friend the Dog
(D) He was sold to an unknown man by his keeper
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
4. What did the Elephant-keeper do to the Dog ?
(A) He sold the Dog to an unknown man for a price
(B) He hit the Dog as the Dog was eating the Elephant’s food
(C) He killed the Dog
(D) He complained to the King about the Dog
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
5. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the
passage ?
(A) Friends and Enemies
(B) The Playful Dog
(C) The King and the Minister

(D) The Elephant-keeper
(E) The Bond of Friendship
Ans : (E)
6. Why was the Elephant taken care of ?
(A) He was a very special Elephant as he could talk to Dogs
(B) He was a very loyal Elephant
(C) He was the strongest Elephant in the Kingdom
(D) He was weak and the King had a lot of sympathy for him
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
7. Why did the Dog start going to the Elephant’s shed everyday ?
(A) He liked the Elephant a lot and wanted to become friends with him
(B) He was being fed by the King everyday
(C) He was fond of the Elephant’s shed
(D) He liked the taste of the rice being fed to the Elephant
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
8. What did the Dog do once he was set free ?
(A) He ate rice to his heart’s content
(B) He thanked the King for his kindness
(C) He ran away from the Kingdom to a place far away
(D) He ran back to his friend the Elephant
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. What of the following can definitely be said about the Elephantkeeper
?
(1) He was greedy
(2) He was insensitive
(3) He was brave
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (A)
10. Which of the following can definitely be said about the King ?
(1) He was compassionate.
(2) He was deceitful.
(3) He loved animals.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 2
(E) All the three 1, 2, and 3
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word/group of words which is most
similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in
the passage.

11. EXTRACTED
(A) pulled
(B) inserted
(C) wring
(D) dug out
(E) received
Ans : (E)
12. DECLARATION
(A) pact
(B) praise
(C) announcement
(D) writ
(E) resolve
Ans : (C)
13. KEEN
(A) shallow
(B) urgent
(C) concentrated
(D) deep
(E) eager
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word/group of words which is most
opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in
the passage.
14. RESIST
(A) give in
(B) please
(C) struggle
(D) try out
(E) defy
Ans : (A)
15. SEPARATED
(A) stuck
(B) united
(C) estranged
(D) bound
(E) joined
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given
below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the
sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as
it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
16. Trisha could not solve the problem at all and was at her wit’s
ending.
(A) her wit’s end
(B) the wit ends

(C) her witty end
(D) the wit end
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)
17. It’s a small theatre and the seats are uncomfortable, but the saving
grace is that the air conditioning is good.
(A) grace to save
(B) gracing save
(C) saver grace
(D) save to grace
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)
18. Tarun had to prepare the document for his meeting urgently but he was
hardly pressed for time.(A) hard pressed for timely
(B) hard pressed for time
(C) hardly press to time
(D) hard pressing to timely
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)
19. Suraj lied from his teeth to get out of the tense situation with his
boss.
(A) lies for his teeth
(B) lie to his teeth
(C) lied through his teeth
(D) lied from his tooth
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
20. Satish lay in bed wide awaken as he was worried about his exams
starting the next day.
(A) widen awakening
(B) widely awake
(C) wide and awake
(D) wide awake
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below, a sentence with four words
printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (A), (B), (C) and
(D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt
or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which
is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is
your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and
also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All
correct’ as your answer.
21. People went crazy (A) when the musician along with his friend, (B)
took to the staging (C) and belted out popular (D) tracks. All correct
(E)
Ans : (C)

22. For a growing number of coupals, (A) adoption is not a helpless
compulsion (B) but a deliberate, (C) vand often noble, (D) choice. All
correct (E)
Ans : (A)
23. On two consecutive (A) nights the two greatest icones (B) of showbusiness
were honoured with unprecedented (C) affection. (D) All correct
(E)
Ans : (B)
24. We are so busy looking at mediocrity (A) that when a truly
outstanding achievement (B) stares us in the face we resort (C) to the
same terms of praise. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)
25. The unlikely migration (A) was officially (B) explained as a move to
meet expanding (C) business oportunities. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2),
(3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.
(1) He immediately acknowledged Mohan’s good work and invited him to his
home for dinner.
(2) One day a wealthy merchant sent his son’s bicycle to the shop for
repair.
(3) The next day the merchant came to claim the bicycle and noticed that
it was shiny.
(4) After repairing the bicycle, Mohan cleaned it up and made it look
new.
(5) Once upon a time, there was a boy named Mohan who worked as an
apprentice in a bicycle shop.
(6) Other apprentices in the shop laughed at Mohan for doing unnecessary
work.
26. Which of the following should be the second sentence after
rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (B)
27. Which of the following should be the third sentence after
rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

28. Which of the following should be the first sentence after
rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)
29. Which of the following should be the last (sixth) sentence after
rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (A)
30. Which of the following should be the fourth sentence after
rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there
is ‘No error’, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
31. In about five minutes, they would (A) / cover the distance from the
road to the point (B) / where the waves would v/ begin lick their feet.
(D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
32. The devastating experiences (A) / of many wars taught some countries
(B) / the necessary of pursuing peace (C) / at the expense of nationalist
egos. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
33. The former superstar recently (A) / visit an orphanage (B) / fuelling
speculation that (C) / she is planning to adopt a child. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
34. Accordance to a new study (A) / taking steps to remain healthy any
young (B) / may help delay (C) / the onset of Alzheimer’s disease. (D) No
error (E)
Ans : (A)
35. A day after he was diagnosed with (A) / swine flu, preventive
measures were put in place (B) / to ensure that others were not v/
affected by the dreaded virus. vNo error (E)

Ans : (A)
36. The administration has conclusive (A) / that it is retailers who are
(B) / responsible for upsetting (C) / the city’s household budget. (D) No
error (E)
Ans : (A)
37. The assurances, unfortunately, (A) / remained on paper, as (B) /
neither the Centre or the state initiated steps (C) / for the development
of the backward region. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
38. Sediment deposit along the coast (A) / may be the primary reason for
(B) / the change in conditions, (C) / but a lot more remains to be
understand. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
39. A committee will be set-up (A) / to explore pros and cons by (B) / a
common fee structure, and will (C) / take a final decision on it within a
week. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
40. The infection which causes (A) / gums to bleed and teeth to fall out
v/ results from the build-up of (C) / a particular bacteria that is
common to most mouths. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of
which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and
against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Once upon a time there was a prince who wanted to marry a princess; but
she would have to be a real princess. He …(41)… all over the world to
find one, but nowhere could he get what he wanted. One evening during a
terrible storm; there was thunder and lightning and the rain poured down
in torrents. Suddenly a knocking was …(42)… at the palace door and the
old king went to open it. It was a princess standing out there. But, good
gracious ! What a sight the rain and the wind had made her look. The
water ran down her hair and clothes; into the toes of her shoes and out
again at the heels. And yet she insisted that she was a real princess.
Well, we’ll soon …(43)… out, thought the old queen. But she said nothing,
went into the bedroom, took all the bedding off the bedstead and …(44)… a
pea on the bottom, then she took twenty mattresses and laid them on the
pea, and then twenty quilts on …(45)… of the mattresses. On this the
princess had to lie all night. In the …(46)… she was asked how she had
slept. “Oh, very badly !” said she. “I scarcely closed my eyes all night.
Heaven only knows what was in the bed, but I was lying on something hard,
as a …(47)… I am black and blue all over my body. It’s horrible !” Now
they knew that she was a real princess because she had …(48)… the pea
right through the twenty mattresses and the twenty quilts. Nobody but a
real princess could be as …(49)… as that. So, the prince took her for his
wife, for now he …(50)… that he had a real princess.

41. (A) called
(B) tour
(C) sent
(D) saw
(E) travelled
Ans : (E)
42. (A) made
(B) felt
(C) heard
(D) seen
(E) sounded
Ans : (C)
43. (A) assure
(B) find
(C) judge
(D) mark
(E) try
Ans : (B)
44. (A) drew
(B) flung
(C) placed
(D) cooked
(E) stitch
Ans : (B)
45. (A) top
(B) head
(C) bottom
(D) between
(E) middle
Ans : (A)
46. (A) morning
(B) dinner
(C) room
(D) fields
(E) dark
Ans : (A)
47. (A) vengeance
(B) price
(C) cause
(D) result
(E) time
Ans : (D)
48. (A) slept
(B) felt
(C) located
(D) carried
(E) found

Ans : (B)
49. (A) worried
(B) rough
(C) irritable
(D) sensitive
(E) pretty
Ans : (D)
50. (A) trust
(B) assured
(C) wanted
(D) think
(E) knew
Ans : (E)



If you want to get Modal papers, download this PDF file:

Hi I am preparing for the placement of the SAIL so can you please provide me the previous year placement paper of SAIL?

[Arun Vats]

Ok, as you want the placement paper of SAIL so here I am providing you.

SAIL placement paper

General Awareness

1. Which of the following figures represents the target for PSU disinvestment for the fiscal 2012-13 as set out in the Union Budget 2012-13 (BE)?
a) Rs.20,000/- crore
b) Rs.25,000/- crore
c) Rs.30,000/- crore
d) Rs.40,000/- crore
e) None of the above

2. The Government of India (GOI) has fixed the target of Agriculture Credit flow in the year 2011-12 at____________.
a) Rs.3,75,000/- crore
b) Rs.4,25,000/- crore
c) Rs.4,65,000/- crore
d) Rs.4,75,000/- crore
e) None of the above

3. National Investment and Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs) should have a minimum area of ___________ in size.
a) 4000 hectares
b) 5000 hectares
c) 6500 hectares
d) 7500 hectares
e) None of the above

4. Who has been nominated for the first Tagore Award, instituted by the government tocommemorate the 150th birth anniversary of Nobel Laureate Rabindranath Tagore, for promoting values of universal brotherhood?
a) Zakir Hussain
b) Shovana Narayan
c) Pandit Ravishankar
d) Pandit Birju Maharaj
e) Ustad Bismillah Khan

5. The Pratyush Sinha committee was set up on May 31, 2011 to examine
a) Antrix – Devas deal
b) Tatra Trucks deal
c) Vodafone – Essar deal
d) Cairn –Vedanta deal
e) None of the above

6. Who became the brand ambassador of the rural development ministry’s programmecalled ‘Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan’ to spread awareness about sanitation and cleanliness in the country?
a) Sushil Kumar
b) Amir Khan
c) Vidya Balan
d) Priyanka Chopra
e) Mahendra Singh Dhoni

7. e-Panchayat Award for the year 2012 was jointly shared by
a) Maharashtra and Gujarat
b) Maharashtra and Tripura
c) Rajasthan and Haryana
d) Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
e) None of the above

8. In which of the following cities, India hosted the BRICS summit for the first time on29 March 2012?
a) Chennai
b) Hyderabad
c) Banglore
d) Mumbai
e) New Delhi

9. Which of the following States have won the Best State Award for strengthening itspanchayati raj institutions in 2011-12?
a) Tripura
b) Sikkim
c) Gujarat
d) Rajasthan
e) Maharashtra

10. Who is the first female American ambassador to India?
a) Nancy Powell
b) April Glaspie
c) Kristie Kenney
d) Kathleen Stephens
e) None of the above

11. Which High Court quashed the appointment of Shankar Bidari as state DGP andIG on 31 March 2012?
a) Gujarat High Court
b) Bombay High Court
c) Allahabad High Court
d) Karanatka High Court
e) Chandigarh High Court

12. Which movie was adjudged as the ‘Best Hindi Film’ at 59th National Film Awardsceremony held in New Delhi recently?
a) I Am
b) Deool and Pyaari
c) The Dirty Picture
d) Chillar Party
e) Zindagi Na Milegi Dobara

13. Who won the French presidential election held in April of 2012?
a) Alain Juppe
b) Nicolas Sarkozy
c) Gerard Longuet
d) Francois Hollande
e) None of the above

14. Why was the name of city ‘Bannu’ recently in news?
a) 381 prisoners escaped from the District Jail in Bannu.
b) 120 people were killed as boat capsizes in lake near Bannu.
c) A powerful 8.6-magnitude earthquake hit off the city Bannu.
d) Pakistan test-fired an “improved version” of Hatf-4 missile at Bannu.
e) None of the above

15. India is set to elect its 13th President in July, 2012. Consider the following statements about the Presidential election in India:
1. President is elected by a direct vote of all members elected and nominated, of VidhanSabhas, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
2. President is elected by the elected members of the Vidhan Sabhas, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha.
3. President is indirectly elected by means of the single transferable vote.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Only 1 & 3

d) Only 1 & 2

e) Only 2 & 3

16. The Election Commission is responsible for the conduct of elections to:
a) Parliament
b) State legislatures
c) the offices of the President and Vice-President
d) Both (a) & (b)
e) All (a), (b) & (c)

17. Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only by :
a) The President
b) The Prime Minister
c) The Chief Justice of India
d) Parliamentary impeachment
e) None of the above

18. The incumbent President, Pratibha Patil, will retire on
a) July 1, 2012
b) July 7, 2012
c) July 25, 2012
d) July 31, 2012
e) None of the above

19. Which is the name of TV channel for the disabled that was launched by The Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI) in October 2007?
a) Navshikhar
b) Navyug
c) Navjeevan
d) Navjyoti
e) None of the above

20. Match the following:Festival Names States
A. Vishu 1. Manipur
B. Bihu 2. Assam
C. Chumpha 3. Kerala
D. Baisakhi 4. Punjab
A B C D
a) 4 1 2 3
b) 3 2 1 4
c) 4 3 2 1
d) 1 2 3 4