Previous Year Questions of SBI PO

I want to fight the SBI PO entrance exam . Will you please provide the SBI PO entrance exam sample question paper for practice ?

[Quick Sam]

Here I am providing the list of few questions of SBI PO entrance exam sample question paper which you are looking for .

Directions : In each of the following questions, there are five letter groups or words in each question. Four of these letter groups or words are alike in some way, while one is different. Find the one which is different.
SBI PO entrance exam sample question paper
obtained are not genuine/valid, the Bank reserves the right to cancel his/her candidature.
4. English Language (Grammar, Vocabulary, 50 50
decided by the Bank.
Q.1. (1) black (2) red (3) green (4) paint (5) yellow
Of the five, ‘black, ‘red’, ‘green’ and ‘yellow’ form a group as they are names of colours. ‘paint’ is not the name of
a colour. Therefore, (4) is the answer.
Now try to solve the following questions.
Q.2. (1) BC (2) MN (3) PQ (4) XZ (5) ST
Q.3. (1) Mango (2) Apple (3) Orange (4) Guava (5) Rose
Directions : In each of the following questions, there is a question mark in which only one of the five alternatives
given under the question satisfies the same relationship as is found between the two terms to the left of the
sign :: given in the question. Find the correct answer.
Q.4. Foot : man : : hoof : ?
(1) leg (2) dog (3) horse (4) boy (5) shoe
In the above example, ‘hoof’ has the same relationship with ‘horse’ as ‘foot’ has to ‘man’. Hence the answer is (3).
Now study to solve the following questions.
Q.5. Day : Night : : Kind : ?
(1) Dark (2) Bright (3) Cruel (4) Generous (5) Gratitude
Q.6. Hut : Mansion : : Rabbit : ?
(1) Hole (2) Carrot (3) Elephant (4) Small (5) Rat
Now try the following questions.
Q.7. If the letters in the word TOPS can be rearranged to form a meaningful word beginning with O, the last
letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, M is the answer and if no
such word can be formed, X is the answer.
(1) T (2) P (3) M (4) S (5) X
Q.8. ‘Some leaders are dishonest. Satyapriya is a leader.’ Which of the following inferences definitely follows
from these statements ?
(1) Satyapriya is honest (2) Satyapriya is dishonest
(3) Some leaders are honest (4) Leaders are generally dishonest
(5) Satyapriya is sometimes dishonest
Q.9. If ‘A ” B’ means ‘add B to A’, ‘A ’ B’ means ‘subtract B from A’, ‘A # B’ means ‘divide A by B’ and ‘A V B’
means ‘multiply A by B; which of the following gives the average sales of two days where S1 and S2 are the
sales of the first and the second day respectively ?
(1) (S1 ’ S2) # 2 (2) 2 # (S1 ” S2) (3) (S1 ” S2 # 2)
(4) (S1 V S2) # (S1 ” S2) (5) Other than those given as options
Q.10. Every person above eighteen years of age who is registered as a voter, can vote. To find out whether
Madhu, who was born twenty years ago, can vote, which of the following further information is
needed ?
(I) Madhu’s date of birth (II) Whether Madhu is registered as a voter
(1) Only I (2) Only II (3) Either I or II
(4) Neither I nor II (5) Both I and II
Q.11. In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have
to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts, consider the two conclusions; together and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements : I.All machines are windows. All windows are clouds.
Conclusions : I. All machines are clouds.
II.All clouds are machines.
(1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Both I & II follow
(4) Only II follows (5) Either I or II follows
There may also be problems in the form of figures, designs and drawings. These may be of three types viz.
(1) analogies, (2) classification and (3) series.
1. Analogies (I) :
Try the following analogy type questions.
Directions : In these questions, there are two sets of figures. The Problem Figures and the Answer Figures. The
Problem Figures are presented in two units. The first unit contains two figures and the second unit contains one
figure and a question mark in place of the second figure. You have to find out which one of the Answer Figures
should be in place of the question mark.
Q.12.
Look at the first two Problem Figures. The second figure is related to the first figure in a certain way. The elements
in the second figure are double the elements in the first figure. The first figure is one square and the second figure
is two squares.
The third and fourth figures should have the same relationship as the first and the second have. That means the
fourth figure should be double the third figure. The third figure is a circle; so the fourth should be two circles.
Answer figure 5 has two circles. Therefore, the answer is 5.
Q.13.
Study the first and the second figures in the first unit of the Problem Figures. The first figure is made up of three
lines and the second figure is made up of four lines. That means the second figure has one line more than the first
figure.
The third figure in the second unit has four lines. Therefore, the fourth figure should have five lines. You will find
that figure 1 is made up of five lines. Therefore, the answer is 1.
Now attempt the following question.
Q.14.
Analogies (II) :
In each of the following problems a related pair of figures is followed by five numbured pairs of figures. Select the
pair that has a relationship similar to that in the original pair. The best answer is to be selected from a group of
fairly close choices.
Now study the following problems.
Q.15.
In the problem figure, the right hand element of the figure is related to the left hand element of the figure in a certain
way. The right hand element has one side more than the left hand element. The pair in the Answer figure No. 5
has the same relationship i.e. the right hand element of the figure has one side more than the left hand element
of the figure. Therefore, ‘5’ is the answer.
Q.16.
In the problem figure, the right hand element of the figure is related to the left hand element of the figure in a certain
way. Both the elements are rectangles, but the right hand element is horizontal while the left hand element is
vertical.
In the answer figure 2, both the elements of the figure are straight lines. The right hand element is horizontal while
the left hand element is vertical. Therefore, (2) is the correct answer.
Now attempt the following question :
Q.17.
Problem Figures Answer Figures
Problem Figures Answer Figures
Problem Figures Answer Figures
Problem Figures Answer Figures
Problem Figures Answer Figures
Problem Figures Answer Figures
2. Classification :
Study the following questions based on classification.
Q.18.
In classification, the Problem Figures themselves are also the Answer Figures. Out of the five figures, four are
similar in a certain way. One figure is not like the other four. That means four figures form a group. The question is
which one of the figures does not belong to this group ?
For example, look at the Q. No. 18. Of the five figures, four are straight lines whereas one is a circle. The four
lines form a group. The circle does not belong to this group. Therefore, the answer is the circle which is figure 1.
Q.19.
Study the five figures. The first four figures form a group as they represent living beings while the fifth figure, the
triangle, does not represent a living being. Therefore the answer is 5.
Now attempt the following question.
Q.20.
3. Series (l)
Study the following problems based on series.
Q.21.
Note that the five figures given first at the left are called Problem Figures. The five figures given next are called
Answer Figures. They are indicated by numbers 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
The five Problem Figures make a series. That means they change from left to right in a specific order. The
question is ‘If the figures continue to change in the same order, what should the sixth figure be ? In the example
above, as you go from left to right, you find that the line across the Problem Figures is inclining towards left.
The question is, ‘if the line continues to incline further, what will be its next, i.e. sixth position ?’ The answer would
be it would fall further and be lying flat, ie. it will be horizontal.
Answer Figure 4 has a line lying horizontal. Therefore, the answer is 4.
Q.22.
Study the position of the dot in all the Problem Figures. Note that it keeps moving around the square in the
clockwise directions. Where would it be next in the sixth position ? It would come back to the upper left corner.
Therefore, the answer is 2.
Now solve the following questions.
Q.23.
Q.24.
Problem Figures
Problem Figures
Problem Figures
Problem Figures Answer Figures
Problem Figures Answer Figures
Problem Figures Answer Figures
Problem Figures Answer Figures
3. Series (ll)
In each of the following problems, a series is established if the positions of the two out of five numbered figures are
interchanged. The position of the first unnumbered figure remains the same. It is the beginnng of the series. The
earlier of the two numbered figures whose positions are interchanged is the Answer. If it is not necessary to
interchange the positions of figures to establish the series, write 5 as your answer. Remember that when the
series is established, the figures change from left to right (i.e. from the unnumbered figure to the last figure), in a
specific order.
Now study the following problems :
Q.25.
In this problem, a series is already established. It is not necessary to interchange the positions of any two
numbered figures. Therefore, mark (5) as the correct Answer.
Q.26.
In this problem a series is established by interchanging the positions of figures (4) and (5). Therefore, Mark (4) as
the correct Answer.
Data Analysis and Interpretation
This test is designed to measure how fast and accurate you are in dealing with numbers, viz. computation,
quantitative reasoning, interpretation of tables and graphs etc.
Q.27-29. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below ––––
Distribution of 1000 candidates as regards their marks in written examination
out of 300 and interview out of 100 in a selection examination
Written INTERVIEW MARKS
Examination Below 30 30-39 40-49 50-59 60-69 70 & above
Marks
260 & above 8 18 26 18 26 4
210 to 259 5 4 30 22 10 9
160 to 209 16 10 45 56 18 9
110 to 159 28 42 100 190 15 5
60 to 109 35 115 20 8 7 5
Below 60 32 32 20 4 6 2
Q.27. How many candidates did obtain more than 69 percent marks and above in both written examination and
interview ?
(1) 22 (2) 49 (3) 13 (4) 9 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.28. if approximately 325 candidates were to be qualified in the written examination, what should be the
percentage of the qualifying marks ?
(1) above 20 (2) above 70 (3) above 36 (4) above 63 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.29. About 42 percent of the candidates fall in which of the following ranges of the interview marks ?
(1) 110-159 (2) 110 & below (3) 50 to 70 (4) 50 & above (5) Other than those given as options
Some of the questions may require arithmetical reasoning. For example :
Q.30. At 10 paise each, how many paise will 6 lemons cost ?
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 60 (4) 610 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.31. Which of the following can be exact multiple of 4 ?
(1) 27114 (2) 58204 (3) 48402 (4) 32286 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.32. If the profit made by selling a pen for Rs.10 is as much as its cost, what is the cost price of the pen ?
(1) Rs.3/- (2) Rs.5/- (3) Rs.10/- (4) Rs.20/- (5) Other than those given as options
Problem Figures
Problem Figures
Also, there may be some questions based on graphs and tables.
Q.33-35. Directions : Given below is a table showing percentages out of a total of 700 employees ranking six
attributes that help promotion. Rank I is the highest. Study the table carefully and answer the questions that
follow :
Attribute Percent of Employees Giving Different Ranks
I II III IV V VI
Seniority 32 17 22 19 5 5
Perseverance 14 19 17 9 27 14
Efficiency 15 19 21 14 14 17
Intelligence 10 14 10 14 17 35
Honesty 24 17 7 9 27 16
Sociability 5 14 23 35 10 13
Q.33. Which attribute for promotion has received the highest rank ?
(1) Perseverance (2) Seniority (3) Honesty (4) Sociability (5) Efficiency
Notice the percentage for rank I given in the table. You observe that seniority is the attribute with the highest
percentage. So your answer is “Seniority”, which is answer No. (2)
Q.34. How many employees gave rank III to intelligence ?
(1) 119 (2) 98 (3) 77 (4) 70 (5) 10
Look at the intersection of the column giving percentage for rank III and the row giving percentage for intelligence.
You find that 10 percent of the 700 employees have given rank III to this attribute. 10% of 700 is 70. So your
answer should be (4).
Q.35. Which attribute is considered the least important for promotion ?
(1) Honesty (2) Intelligence (3) Perseverance (4) Efficiency (5) Sociability
Referring to the percentage for VI rank, you find that intelligence is the attribute which receives the highest
percentage. In other words, a majority of people consider it as the least important and give it the last rank.
Therefore your answer is (2).
General Awareness, Marketing and Computers
This test is intended to give an index of your awareness of people and events past and present in different walks
of life.
Q.36. To combat the menace of money laundering, which of the following financial institutions has introduced the
‘Know Your Customer’ Scheme ?
(1) IDBI (2) RBI (3) NABARD (4) SIDBI (5) Other than those given as options
Q.37. Which of the following sectors contributes maximum in deciding the growth in income of the states in India ?
(1) Energy (2) Tourism (3) Service (4) Transport (5) Agriculture
Q.38. Which of the following is the state where the number of people living below poverty line is maximum ?
(1) Bihar (2) Andhra Pradesh (3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Rajasthan (5) Orissa
Q.39. Who is the person closely associated with operation flood programmes and was honoured by Padma
Vibhushan recently ?
(1) Dr. V. Kurien (2) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan (3) Dr. Amartya Sen
(4) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (5) Other than those given as options
Q.40. Which of the following factors influences buyer’s behaviour ?
(1) Cultural and Social factors (2) Economical and external factors
(3) Personal and Psychological factors (4) both (1) & (2) (5) both (1) & (3)
Q.41. Marketing for promotion of business in Banks involves :
(1) Better Customer Service (2) Customer need identification
(3) Customised products (4) both (1) & (3) (5) All (1), (2) & (3).
Q.42. 1010, 0101, 1100, 0011, 11100 ––– what is next ?
(1) 00100 (2) 00111 (3) 11100 (4) 10111 (5) 01010
Q.43. The function of CPU is –––
(1) to provide external storage of text (2) to create a hard copy
(3) to create a new software (4) to read, interpret and process the information and instruction
(5) Other than those given as options
Q.44. Pick the odd man out.
(1) Monitor (2) Keyboard (3) Floppy drive (4) Windows (5) Hard-disk drive
Q.45. The full form of LAN is –––
(1) Local Access Network (2) Local Area Network (3) Long Area Node
(4) Local Area Node (5) Other than those given as options
English Language
This is a test to see how well you know English. Your English language ability would be tested through questions
on grammar, vocabulary, sentence completion, synonyms, antonyms, comprehension of a passage, etc. Study
and answer the sample questions given below :
Directions : Pick out the most appropriate word from amongst the words given below each sentence to complete
it meaningfully.
Q.46. He quickly glanced .............................. the book to find what it said about the Indian economy.
(1) at (2) through (3) in (4) to (5) over
The correct answer is “through” which is answer No. 2.
Q.47. The counsel urged the court to ........................... down the obnoxious law.
(1) enact (2) enforce (3) cancel (4) strike (5) declare
Q.48. The local official ........................... the Minister of the situation.
(1) explained (2) warned (3) apprised (4) told (5) intimated
Directions : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be
in one part of the sentence. The number of that part of the sentence is your answer. If there is no error, the answer
is (5).
Q.49. I am twenty / two years old / when I first / joined the bank. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
The error is in (1). Therefore the answer is ‘1’.
Q.50. To the Hindus / the Ganga is / holier than / any other river. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
In this question, there is no error; therefore the right answer to this question is ‘5’.
Q.51. Of all the teachers / in our school / our class teacher / were very strict. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Directions : In each of the following questions, select from amongst the five alternatives, the word nearest in
meaning to the word given in capitals.
Q.52. LETHAL
(1) light (2) dangerous (3) deadly (4) cruel (5) thoughtless
Q.53. CENTENARY
(1) a guard (2) a hundred years (3) a very old man (4) hundred runs (5) hundredth anniversary
Q.54. TRIUMPH
(1) conquer (2) smash (3) earn (4) brave (5) capture
Directions : In each of the following questions, select from amongst the five alternatives, the word most opposite
in meaning of the word given in capitals.
Q.55. LIVELY
(1) simple (2) weak (3) dull (4) angry (5) moron
Q.56. INADVERTENT
(1) adequate (2) available (3) sluggish (4) negligent (5) intentional
Q.57. INEPT
(1) accurate (2) skilful (3) sensible (4) artistic (5) apt
In addition, there will be questions based on passage, to test your comprehension.
The correct answers to all these 57 questions are as follows –
III. Details about On-line Test Pattern :
1. A login screen will be displayed to the candidate. The candidate has to log in using his/her User ID and Password
which will be provided in the examination hall.
2. After logging in Candidate’s profile (Name, Roll No. & photograph etc.) will be displayed and the candidate has to
confirm the same by clicked on the ‘I confirm’ button confirming the profile is correct.
3. Thereafter the instructions will be dispalyed on the screen.
4. A candidate should read the instructions carefully and indicate that he has done so by ‘checking’ (click) the box
at the bottom of the screen, after which the ‘I am ready to begin’ button is activated.
5. After clicking on the ‘I am ready to begin’ button the actual test time will begin.
6. There are 200 questions and each question is followed by 5 alternatives/options.
7. The total marks for the test are 200.
8. The questions except those on English Language will be available in Hindi and in English. In order to view a given
question in the other language, a candidate can click on the ‘view in’ drop down box and select the desired language.
9. Only one question will be displayed at a time.
10. In order to answer a question, the candidate has to ‘mouse click’ the option he/she thinks is appropriate/ correct.
The alternative which has been clicked on will be highlighted and shall be treated as the answer given
by the candidate for the question.
11. After selecting an answer for a question the candidate should click on the ‘SAVE & NEXT’ button to save his
answer and proceed to the next question. Note that without clicking on ‘Save & Next’ button the answer
selected for a question will not be saved.
12. In case a candidate does not wish to attempt the question then he/ she should not click on any option for that
question. A candidate can choose to deselect his/her answer for a particular question by clicking on the
‘CLEAR RESPONSE’ button provided against each question.
13. In case a candidate wants to skip a particular question and return to it later before submitting his/her test or a
candidate ‘clicks’ (selects) an answer for a particular question but wishes to review it later, he/she may note down
the question number on the sheet provided.
In such cases the candidate may also click on the ‘MARK FOR REVIEW & NEXT’ button. In case an answer has
been selected for a particular question which has been marked as ‘MARK FOR REVIEW & NEXT’, the answer
marked will be taken for final evaluation.
Questions Answers Questions Answers Questions Answers Questions Answers Questions Answers
1 4 13 1 25 5 37 3 49 1
2 4 14 1 26 4 38 5 50 5
3 5 15 5 27 3 39 1 51 4
4 3 16 2 28 5 40 5 52 3
5 3 17 4 29 4 41 5 53 5
6 3 18 1 30 3 42 5 54 1
7 4 19 5 31 2 43 5 55 5
8 3 20 3 32 2 44 1 56 5
9 5 21 4 33 2 45 2 57 2
10 4 22 2 34 2 46 2
11 2 23 1 35 2 47 4
12 5 24 3 36 2 48 3