2023 2024 Student Forum Paramedical Exam Syllabus and Question Paper

#1
6th December 2014, 02:21 PM
 Super Moderator Join Date: Aug 2012
Paramedical Exam Syllabus and Question Paper

Can you provide me the Syllabus and Model Question Papers of Paramedical Exam conducted by Railway Recruitment Board or RRB?

As you want here I am giving bellow RRB Paramedical Exam Syllabus and Question Paper on your demand:

RRB Paramedical Exam question paper

RRB Paramedical Exam Syllabus
General Arithmetics:

In this section, a candidates ability to solve the question related to the quantitative aptitude are asked from the following topics.

Number systems
BODMAS
Decimals
Fractions
LCM and HCF
Ratio and Proportion
Percentages
Mensuration
Time and Work
Time and Distance
Simple and Compound Interest
Profit and Loss
Algebra
Geometry
Trigonometry
Elementary Statistics
Square Root
Age Calculations
Calendar & Clock
Pipes & Cistern

General Intelligence and Reasoning:
Candidates ability to solve logical and reasoning questions are tested in this section. The questions are asked from:

Analogies
Completion of Number and Alphabetical Series
Coding and Decoding,
Mathematical Operations
Similarities and Differences
Analytical Reasoning
Syllogism
Jumbling
Venn Diagrams
Data Interpretation and Sufficiency
Conclusions and Decision-Making
Classification, Directions
Statement Arguments and Assumptions etc.

General Awareness:
Candidates knowledge about the current affairs and general knowledge is tested in this section. The question will be pertaining to topics like:

Knowledge of Current affairs
Indian geography
Culture and History of India and Freedom Struggle
Indian Polity and Constitution
Indian Economy
Environmental issues concerning India and the World
Sports
General scientific and technological developments
#2
6th December 2014, 04:01 PM
 Super Moderator Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Paramedical Exam Syllabus and Question Paper

The Railway Recruitment Board, Ministry of Railways (Railway Board) is responsible to recruit the various posts in various branches of Railways.

Model Question Papers of RRB Paramedical

1. For education of measles, immunization coverage should be at least
(a) 80% (b) 85% (c) 96% (d) 100%
2. Period of maximum infectivity in mumps is during
(a) incubation period (b) onset of swelling (c) after swelling appears (d)
prodromal period
3. Major epidemics of influenza A occur at intervals of
(a) 1 year (b) 2-3 years (c) 10-15 years (d) 20-25 years
4. The most common source of infection for diphtheria is a
(a) case (b) sub clinical case (c) carrier (d) all of the above
5. Shick test is done in
(a) meningitis (b) diphtheria (c) pertussis (d) polimyelitis
6. Adjuvant present in DPT vaccine is
(a) aluminium phosphate (b) aluminium hydroxide (c) zinc phosphate (d) magnesium
phosphate
7. Recommended site of administration of DPT in infants is
(a) gluteal (b) deltoid (c) lateral aspect of thigh (d) forearm
8. The most severe complications following DPT are due to …….. component
(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) tetanus (d) adjuvant
9. The vaccine usually given to pilgrims to the Middle East is
(a) DPT (b) influenza (c) yellow fever (d) meningitis
10. Best index to estimate case load of T.B. in a community is
(a) incidence of infection (b) prevalence of infection (c) incidence of disease
(d) prevalence of disease
11. Prevalence of T.B. infection in a community is estimated by
(a) tuberculin test (b) sputum microscopy (c) culture (d) chest X-ray
12. The amount of PPD used in mantoux test in India is
(a) 1 TU (b) 5 TU (c) 25 TU (d) 250 TU
13. Result of mantoux test is read after
(a) 6 hours (b) 24 hours (c) 48 hours (d) 72 hours
14. Present day BCG vaccine is supplied as
(a) liquid vaccine (b) freeze dried vaccine (c) both (d) none of the above
15. The diluent used for reconstituting BCG vaccine is
(a) normal saline (b) distilled water (c) dextrose (d) none of the above

16. Reconstituted BCG vaccine should be used with in
(a) 3 hours (b) 6 hours (c) 18 hours (d) 24 hours
17. The age for BCG vaccination is recommended at
(a) birth or at 6th week (b) only 6th week (c) 6-8 weeks (d) within 1 year
18. At the village level sputum for AFB is collected and fixed by
(a) anganwadi worker (b) village health guide (c) health worker male (d) health
worker female
19. Source of most polio infections are
(a) clinical cases (b) sub clinical cases (c) carrier (d) both (b)&(c)
20. Risk factors for development of paralytic polio include
(a) 1/M injections (b) Tonsillectomy (c) DPT (d) all of the above
21. Major route of transmission of Hepatitis A is
(a) Facco oral route (b) parentral route (c) sexual transmission (d) perinatal
transmission
22. Vaccine vial monitor is present on which of these vaccines
(a) BCG (b) DPT (c) OPV (d) Measles
23. Immunity after Hepatitis A lasts for
(a) 6 months (b) 1 year (c) 6 years (d) life long
24. Following methods destroy vibrio cholerae except
(a) boiling (b) drying (c) bleaching powder 1 mg/L (d) cresol
25. Best method of collecting choleric stools for diagnosis is by
(a) rectal catheter (b) rectal swab (c) disinfected stool (d) all of the above
26. All are vaccines included under the Universal Immunization Programme
except
(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) measles (d) MMR
27. The MTP act was passed in the year
(a) 1975 (b) 1971 (c) 1986 (d) 2000
28. All are Anti Rabies vaccine currently used in Kerala except
(a) chick embryo cell vaccine (b) human diploid cell vaccine (c) vero cell
vaccine (d) neural tissue vaccine
29. Annual Parasitic incidence is used to measure the problem of
(a) Filariasis (b) Dengue fever (c) Malaria (d) Japanese encephalitis
30. The causative organism of plague is
(a) Y pestis (b) R. Prowazeki (c) Coryne bacterium (d) Arbovirus
31. Which of these is a Conventional Contraceptive
(a) Combined pill (b) IUD (c) Condom (d) Mini pill
32. Which of these insecticides is used as a space spray
(a) paris green (b) abate (c) pyrethrum (d) mineral oil
33. Chemical ideally used for disinfecting sputum is
(a) cresol (b) dettol (c) savlon (d) phenol
34. Census is carried out at regular intervals of
(a) 5 years (b) 10 years (c) 7 years (d) 15 years
35. Vaccine carrier should ideally have number of ice packs
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
36. The dose of elemental iron in Folifer tablet given to pregnant women
under the RCH programme is
(a) 60 mg (b) 80 mg (c) 50 mg (d) 100 mg
37. Sanitary latrine should be located at least …. feet from source of
contamination
(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) 75
38. For calculating Bacterial index in Leprosy a minimum of ….. sites
should be examined
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9
39. Number of Tetanus toxoid doses to be given to an antenatal mother with
last child birth 2 years back is
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) none
40. As per the Birth and Deaths Registration Act all births are to be
registered with in a period of
(a) 7 days (b) 14 days (c) 21 days (d) 1 month
41. Dengue fever is transmitted by the bite of ……. mosquito
(a) anopheles (b) aedes (c) mansonia (d) culex
42. Route of administration of BCG vaccine is
(a) intramuscular (b) intradermal (c) subcutaneous (d) intrathecal
43. Pasteurisation of milk kills all organisms except
(a) Anthrax (b) M. Tuberculosis (c) Streptococcus (d) Brucella
44. Prevalence of hook worm infection in a community is assessed by
(a) pearl index (b) breteaux index (c) chandler index (d) none of the above
45. The level of iodisation of iodised salt at the consumer level as
specified under the IDD control programme is
(a) 40 ppm (b) 30 ppm (c) 15 ppm (d) 50 ppm
46. All are steps in Primary Prevention of diseases except
(a) promotion of healthy life styles (b) good nutrition (c) immunization (d)
treatment
47. Communicability of measles declines
(a) after onset of fever (b) during prodromal period (c) at the time of eruption
(d) after appearance of rash
48. After effective chlorination of water free residual chlorine should
not be less than
(a) 0.5 mg/L (b) 1 mg/L (c) 50 mg/L (d) 200 mg/L
49. All are side effects of oral contraceptives except
(a) hypertension (b) cervical cancer risk (c) gall bladder disease (d) iron
deficiency anameia
50. World AIDS day is observed on
(a) December 1st (b) January 31st (c) May 1st (d) October 1st
51. Highest source of vitamin A is seen in
(a) Cod liver oil (b) green leafy vegetables (c) papaya (d) carrot
52. Which is a live vaccine
(a) Hepatitis B vaccine (b) Hepatitis A vaccine (c) Oral polio vaccine (d) DPT
vaccine
53. Scurvy is a deficiency disease due to
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin B12
54. Number of sputum smears to be taken for confirmation of tuberculosis
under the Revised National Tuberculosis control
programme is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
55. The target population under the Universal Immunization Programme is
(a) infants and antenatal mothers (b) infants (c) under fives (d) under fives
and antenatal mothers
56. RCH programme was launched in the year
(a) 1997 (b) 1992 (c) 1990 (d) 1998
57. Additional energy requirement to be supplemented for a lactating
mother is
(a) 200 calories (b) 550 calories (c) 350 calories (d) 100 calories
58. Dental caries is caused due to deficiency of
(a) Iodine (b) Iron (c) Fluorine (d) Copper
59. Most ideal equipment for vaccine storage in a PHC is
(a) domestic refrigerator (b) ice lined refrigerator (c) cold box (d) vaccine
carrier
60. Village Health Guide is present in all these states except
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Orissa (d) Kerala
61. Route of transmission of pneumonic plague is
(a) Vector (b) Droplet (c) Formite (d) Food
62. Most simple way of data presentation to a common man is
(a) Bar chart (b) Line diagram (c) Pictogram (d) Histogram
63. The best method for operation theatre disinfection is
(a) dettol (b) phenol (c) lysol (d) fromaldehyde
64. Primary schedule of hepatitis B immunization is
(a) 0,1,6 months (b) 1,3,6 months (c) 1,2,12 months (d) 0,1,5 years
65. The control of ….. has led to the eradication of guinea worm disease
(a) mosquito (b) rat flea (c) sand fly (d) cyclops
66. The confirmatory test for paralytic poliomyelitis is a
(a) stool examination (b) CSF examination (c) blood examination (d) nerve
examination
67. The drug given to peripheral health worker under the Actute
Respiratory infection Control Programme is
(a) Tetracycline (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Doxy cycline (d) Chloroquine
68. The fitration technique in modern water treatment plant is
(a) slow sand filter (b) rapid sand filter (c) activated sludge process (d)
double pot method
69. World Health Day is observed every year on
(a) May 9th (b) July 11th (c) April 7th (d) July 1st
70. Health education technique most suited for introducing the correct use
of O.R.S. among Rural mothers is
(a) group discussion (b) flash card (c) demonstration (d) flannel graph
71. All are anti scabies preparations except
(a) BHC (b) permethrin (c) benzyl benzoate (d) malathion
72. All are tests used for bacteriological quality testing of drinking water
except
(a) multiple tube method (b) membrane filtration technique (c) colony count (d)
biological oxygen demand
73. During an epidemic of cholera, wells should be disinfected ideally
(a) Every day (b) 2 days (c) 3 days (d) 1 week
74. All are components of under five clinic except
(a) immunization (b) growth monitoring (c) oral rehydration (d) referral
treatment
75. All are true of prevention of Food Adulteration Act except
(a) prescribes minimum standards (b) is not mandatory
(c) punishment includes imprisonment (d) latest amendment was in the year 1986
76. Physical quality of life index includes all except
(a) infant mortality (b) life expectancy at age one (c) per capita GNP (d)
literacy
77. Incubation period is less than 3 days in all the following except
(a) influenza (b) cholera (c) mumps (d) staphylococcal food poisoning
78. The type of influenza virus causing epidemics every year is
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Any one of the above
79. The incubation period of Rabies in men is determined by
(a) Site of bite (b) Severity of bite (c) Number of wounds (d) All of the above
80. Noso comial infection means
(a) infection of nose (b) hospital acquired infection (c) notifiable disease (d)
new disease
81. All of the following are mosquito borne diseases except
(a) Malaria (b) Filaria (c) Kysanur forest disease (d) Dengue fever
82. Which is not true of small pox
(a) No animal reservoir (b) No carrier stage (c) No sub-clinical infection (d)
No air borne transmission
83. ORS contains all except
(a) sodium chloride (b) potassium sulphate (c) trisodium citrate (d) glucose
84. The danger zone for bacterial growth in food is
(a) 10-49 degree C (b) 20-49 degree C (c) 10-60 degree C (d) 20-60 degree C
85. Aldehyde test is used for the diagnosis of
(a) Malaria (b) Kala Azar (c) Japanese encephalitis (d) Typhus fever
86. The period from disease initiation to disease detection in chronic
disease is called
(a) incubation period (b) serial interval (c) latent period (d) median period
87. Herd immunity does not protect an individual in
(a) Diphtheria (b) Poliomyelitis (c) Small pox (d) Tetanus
88. Vaccines which should not be frozen include
(a) Typhoid (b) DPT (c) TT (d) All of the above
89. ILR stands for
(a) Income Literacy Ratio (b) Illiteracy- Literacy Ratio
(c) Ice Lined Refrigerator (d) Infant Living Rate
90. Cold chain equipment used at out reach sites is
(a) cold box (b) vaccine carrier (c) ice pack (d) freezer
91. Most heat sensitive vaccine is
(a) BCG (b) Polio (c) Measles (d) DPT
92. Zero dose of polio vaccine means
(a) no vaccination (b) dose before first dose (c) no antibody response (d)
vaccination at mobile camps
93. Pasteurisation of milk is an example disinfection
(a) Pre current (b) Con current (c) Terminal (d) Absolute
94. Boiling for 5-10 minutes kills
(a) bacteria (b) spores (c) virus (d) none of the above
95. All of the following can be sterilized by Auto claving except
(a) gloves (b) culture media (c) plastics (d) linen
96. All are suitable for disinfection of faces and urine except
(a) 8% bleaching powder (b) 1% crude phenol (c) 5% cresol (d) 1-2% formalin
97. Ideally bed pans and urinals are sterilized using
(a) 1% cresol (b) bleaching powder (c) steam (d) all of the above
98. Sputum is best disposed by
(a) burning (b) boiling (c) 5% cresol (d) any of the above
99. Immunity conferred by an attack of small pox is for
(a) 10 years (b) 15 years (c) 20 years (d) life long
100. Which is not true regarding measles
(a) source of infection is a case (b) secondary attack rate is 80%
(c) carries do not occur (d) sub clinical measles not known
1 B 11 A 21 A 31 C 41 B 51 A 61 B 71 D 81 C 91 B
2 A 12 A 22 B 32 C 42 A 52 C 62 C 72 D 82 C 92 B
3 D 13 C 23 A 33 A 43 B 53 C 63 D 73 A 83 B 93 A
4 B 14 B 24 D 34 B 44 C 54 C 64 A 74 D 84 C 94 D
5 A 15 A 25 A 35 D 45 C 55 C 65 D 75 B 85 B 95 C
6 C 16 B 26 C 36 C 46 D 56 B 66 A 76 D 86 A 96 D
7 C 17 A 27 B 37 D 47 D 57 B 67 B 77 C 87 B 97 B
8 D 18 A 28 C 38 C 48 A 58 C 68 A 78 B 88 D 98 C
9 C 19 C 29 A 39 C 49 A 59 B 69 C 79 D 89 C 99 D
10C 20 D 30 A 40 C 50 A 60 C 70 C 80 D 90 B 100B

Information about RBB Paramedical Staff Exam Syllabus
Subjects:-
General Intelligence/ Reasoning
General Awareness
Arithmetic
General Science (Physic, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology)
#3
2nd February 2015, 11:16 AM
 Junior Member Join Date: Feb 2015
question papers

plz send me ap paramedical syllabus and old and new model papers of cardialogy technician
#4
16th February 2015, 03:38 PM
 Unregistered Guest
Re: Paramedical Exam Syllabus and Question Paper

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#5
4th December 2016, 02:58 PM
 Unregistered Guest
Re: Paramedical Exam Syllabus and Question Paper

I want paramedical resipiratory therapy previous question papers..
#6
24th July 2017, 10:47 PM
 imran lone Guest

plz send me a paramedical syllabus and old and new model papers of cardialogy technician
#7
29th April 2019, 12:57 PM
 Naziyakhatoon98@gamil.com Guest

Dear sir
Plz send me a paramedical syllabus Nd old new model question papers of lab technician
#8
18th September 2019, 09:36 AM
 Unregistered Guest
Re: Paramedical Exam Syllabus and Question Paper

Hi buddy I am going to appear in RRB Paramedical Exam, and for its preparation looking for Paramedical Exam Syllabus and Question Paper , so will you plz provide me same here ?

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