Model Question Papers for NPCIL Exam

I want to give NPCIL Exam next year so please give me Model Question Papers for the preparation NPCIL Exam as soon as possible? Also tell me about this exam and selection?

[Kiran Chandar]

You want to give NPCIL Exam next year and for preparation of this exam you want Model Question Papers but you do not specify that for which stream you want to apply. NPCIL recruit Bachelor of Engineering candidate with min of 60% in following Streams.

1. Mechanical

2. Electrical

3. Electronics

4. Instrumentation

5. Chemical


NPCIL has two stages for selection:

• Written test
• Interview


NPCIL written exam consists of two papers of 50 marks each:


Management and General Aptitude test:
• English Language
• Quantitative Aptitude
• Logical reasoning
• Data Interpretation
• Analytical Ability


Functional knowledge Test
• Questions from the relevant professional qualification


Age limit: 26 year

Monthly Stipend - Rs.20, 000/-


Here I am attaching the sample papers of NPCIL exam of various branches:

Sample paper 1 of NPCIL exam
During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type of tool
motion will be
A) circular Interpolation — clockwise
B) circular Interpolation — counterclockwise
C) linear Interpolation
D) rapid feed
Answer : (A)
In an interchangeable assembly, shafts of size 25.000+0.040mm mate with holes of size
25.000+0.020 mm. The maximum possible clearance in the assembly will be
A) 10 microns
B) 20 microns
C) 30 microns
D) 60 microns
Answer : (D)
Stokes theorem connects
A) a line integral and a surface integral
B) a surface integral and a volume integral
C) a line integral and a volume integral
D) gradient of a function and its surface integral
Answer : (A)
When the temperature of a solid metal increases,
A) strength of the metal decreaes but ductility increases
B) both strength and ductility of the metal decrease
C) both strength and ductility of the metal increase
D) strength of the metal increases but ductility decreases
Answer : (A)
In a machining operation, doubling the cutting speed reduces the tool life to 1/8 of the original value.
The exponent n in Taylor
A) 1/8
B) 1/4
C) 1/3
D) 1/2
Answer : (C)
In PERT analysis a critical activity has
A) maximum Float
B) zero Float
C) maximum Cost
D) minimum Cost
Answer : (B)
Environment friendly refrigerant R134a is used in the new generation domestic refrigerators. Its
chemical formula is
A) CH C1 F2
B) C2 C13 F3
C) C2 C12 F4
D) C2 H2 F4
Answer : (D)
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
(A) Grashof s rule states that for a planar crank-rocker four bar mechanism, the
sum of the shortest and longest link lengths cannot be less than the sum of
the remaining two link lengths.
(B) Inversions of a mechanism are created by fixing different links one at a time.
(C) Geneva mechanism is an intermittent motion device
(D) Gruebler s criterion assumes mobility of a planar mechanism to be one.
For the stability of a floating body, under the influence of gravity alone, which of
the following is TRUE?
(A) Metacentre should be below centre of gravity
(B) Metacentre should be above centre of gravity
(C) Metacentre and centre of gravity must lie on the same horizontal line
(D) Metacentre and centre of gravity must lie on the same vertical line
The material property which depends only on the basic crystal structure is
(A) fatigue strength (B) work hardening
(C) fracture strength (D) elastic constant
Little s law is relationship between
(A) stock level and lead time in an inventory system
(B) waiting time and length of the queue in a queuing system
(C) number of machines and job due dates in a scheduling problem
(D) uncertainty in the activity time and project completion time
Vehicle manufacturing assembly line is an example of
(A) product layout (B) process layout (C) manual layout (D) fixed layout
Simplex method of solving linear programming problem uses
(A) all the points in the feasible region
(B) only the corner points of the feasible region
(C) intermediate points within the infeasible region
(D) only the interior points in the feasible region.

Sample paper 2 of NPCIL exam

Sample paper 3 of NPCIL exam
1) Special soft are to create a job queue is called
a) driver
b) spooler
c) interpreter
d) linkage editer
2)When a process is rolled back as a result of deadlock the difficulty
arises is
a) Starvation
b) System throughput
c) low device utilization
d) cycle stealing
3)On recieving an interrupt from an I/O device the CPU
a) Halts for a predefined time.
b) Branches off the interrupt service routine after completion off the
current instruction.
c) Branches off to the interrupt service routine immediately.
d) hands over the control of address bus and data bus to the
interrupting service.
4) Which of the following is true of the auto increment addressing
mode?
1. It is useful in creating sef relocating code.
2)If it is induced in an instruction set architecture , than an additional
ALU is required for effective address calculation.
3) The amount of increment depends on the size of the data item
accessed.
a) 1 only.
b)2 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
5) Theprimary purpose of an operating system is
a) To make the most efficient use of the computer hardware.
b) to allow people to use the computer.
c) To make the system programmers employed.
d) to make computers easy to use.
6)consider the cpu intensive processes which require 10,20,30 time
units and arrive at time 0,2,6 respectively.how many context switches
are needed if the operating system impements a shortest remaining
time first sceduling algorithm?Do not count the context switches at the
time 0 and end.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
7) consider a system having n resources of the same type.These
resources are shared by 3 processes A,B,C .These have peak
demands of 3,4,6 respectively.For what value of n deadlock won’t
occour.
a) 15
b) 9
c) 10
d) 13
In which addressing mode the effective address of the operand is
computed by adding a constant value to the content of the register?
a) absolute mode.
b) indirect mode
c) immediate mode
d) index mode
9)the process of organizing the memory into two banks to allow 16 bit
and 8 bit data operation is called
a) bank switching
b) indexed mapping
c) two way memory interleaving
d) memory segmentation
10)a one dimensional array A has indices 1-75.Each element is a string
and takes up three memory words. The array is stored in location 1120
decimal. The starting address of A[49] is
a) 1267
b) 1164
c) 1264
d) 1169
11) The microsystems stored in the control memory of a processor have
a width of 26 bits. Each microinstruction is divided into three fields : a
microoperation field of 13 bits, a next address field(X), and a MUX select
field(Y). There are 8 status bits in the inputs of the MUX.How many bits
are there in the X and Y fields and what is the size of the control
memory in number of words?
a) 10,3,1024
b) 8,5,256
c) 5,8,2048
d) 10,3,512
12)The use of multiple register windows with overlap causes a reduction
in the number of memory accesses for
1.function locals and parameters
2. register saves and restores.
3. instruction fetches.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1,2,and 3
13)Which of the following about relative addressing mode is false?
a) it enables reduced instruction size.
b) it allows indexing of array element with same instruction.
c) it enabkles easy relocation of data.
d) it enables faster address calculation than absulute addressing.
14)Substitution of values for names (whose values are constants) is
done in ‘
a) local optimization
b) loop optimization
c) constant folding
d) strength reduction
15)A root a of eq f(x)=0 can be computed to any degree of accuracy if a
good initial approximation x0
is chosen for which
a) f(x0)>0
b) f(x0)f”(x0)>0
c) f(x0)f”(x0)<0
d) f”(x0)>0



Sample paper 4 of NPCIL exam
1.If sampling frequency doubles then
a) Quantization noise decreases
b) Quantization density decreases
c) Quantization noise increases
d) Quantization density increases
2. Two signals of 2GHz and 4GHz are frequency modulated on same carrier 10 GHz. Find the ratio of
frequency deviation if band widths of both are equal.
a) 1:2 b)2:1 c) 1:1 d) 1:4
3. Gray code of 111 is
4. 3X512+7X64+5X8+3 then value in binary form contains _______ number of 1’s.
a) 7 b) 6 c) 9 d) none
5. The 2’s compliment of decimal number 19 in 8-bit system is
a) 11101101
6) The high gain codes are
a) Turbo codes b) BCH codes c) R-S codes
7) BCH codes are of the type________
a) Convolutional type b) c)
Time constant of LC circuit is
a) L/R b) L/R2 c) RL
9) If R is doubled and C is halved then frequency of series RLC circuit is
10) The solution for the equation (D2+4) y=sin2x is
11) Laplace Tramsform of sin3x is
12) The Z-transform for the series is
X [n] = { 7; n= -1
{5 n=0
{ 1 n=1
{0 else
13) The magic Tee is a
a) 4 port tee b) c)
14) The register which holds the address of the next instruction is
a) Program counter b) c)
15) The antenna gain is given by……………?
16) The satellite is in 630km orbit and transmitting at a frequency 5 MHz, when satellite is on your
head the Doppler shift is——–
a) b) c) 0 d)
17) The impedance of a lossless transmission line is
a) √(L/C)
18) A 50Ώline with load impedance 100Ώ the VSWR is
19) In a waveguide measurement, the forward power is 10mW, the reverse power is 1mW then
VSWR is _____________
20) Transmitted power is 100W, gain of the transmitter antenna is 30 dB and the path loss is 50 dB
then received power is
21) When transmitted power is 100mW and the path loss 100 dBm then received power is
a) -80 dBm
22) When a em wave is incident normally on a perfect conductor then
a) Totally reflected b) partially reflected
c) Totally transmitted d) none.
23) Zsc =100Ώ Zoc =1Ώ then Zo is
a) 1Ώ b) 10Ώ c)___d)__
24) When the operating wavelength of line is /4< < /2, the impedance is
a) Capacitive b) inductive c) ____ D) none
25) The value of L if source is 50V AC of 10 KHz frequency and current is 7.96 A.
a) ____
26) The resonant frequency is 50MHz bandwidth 100 KHz then Q factor is
a) ______ b)_______ c)…..
27)The Q factor of a series RLC circuit is
a)……b)……
28) Q value of a parallel RLC circuit is ________
a)……b)….
29) If the lines x+y+3=0, x-2y+7=0, 2x+ky+5=0 are required to be concurrent then the value of k
is___ a) ___ b)…..
30) The vectors i-2j+k, 2i+3j-k,R are the complete, then r is given by ______
31) If a satellite revolving with angular velocity w and the velocity is v then
Curl v is _______
a) w b) 2w c) w 2 d) …..
32) If each stage amplifier contains 10dB gain the figure of merit of 2-stages is
Given by ……
33) The maximum rate possible in kbps if F=15 and bandwidth is 4 KHz is…….
34) The maximum time allowed for each flip flop for a ripple counter of mod-1024 , if clock given to it
is 1MHz is ……..
35) The maximum time allowed time for each flip flop for a mod 10 synchronous counter if each flip
flop delay is 25ns.
a) 25 ns b) 50 ns c) 100 ns d) none
36) The high speed for CML gate is due to operating it in ——— region.
a) non saturation
37)In a micro processor the wait states are inserted to
a) make the processor to wait during DMA operation
b) make the processor to wait during an interrupt processing
c) make the processor wait during a power shutdown.
d) interface the slow peripherals to the processor.
38) In a digital voltmeter the ADC’s used are of type
1. successive 2.flash type 3. Dual slope
in ascending order of time is
1. a) 2,1,3 b) 1,2,3 c) 3,1,2 d) none
39) The number of NAND gates are required to implement A B (XOR), assuming compliments not
available ………….
40) The resolution for a DAC is given by 0.4% then no. of bits of DAC is
a) 8- bits
41) The chip capacity is 256 bits, then the no.of chips required to build 1024 B memory
Is……….
1. a) 32 b) 16 c) 15)
42) Which of the following are correct?
1. A flip-flop is used to store 1-bit of information
2. Race around condition occurs in JK flip flop when both the inputs are 1
3. Master slave flip flop is used to store 2 bits of information
4. A transparent latch consists of a D- flip flop
a) 1, 2,3 b) 1,3,4 (ANS) c)1,2,4 d) 2,3,4
43) The bit rate of a QPSK compared to BPSK is
a)half b) double c) same
44) There are 5 red balls and 5 black balls in a box. The probability to select 2 balls one after other
without reputting is,
a) 2/9 b) 1/90 c) 11/90 d) none
45) The rms voltage is obtained by multiplying peak by a factor
a) 1/√2