#1
9th October 2014, 09:37 AM
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KVS PRT exam question papers
Hi I am preparing for the KVS PRT exam so can you provide me the Previous year question papers of this exam?
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#2
9th October 2014, 10:44 AM
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Re: KVS PRT exam question papers
Kendriya Vidyalayas (Central Schools) have come to be known as centres of excellence in the field of secondary and senior secondary education promoting national integration, Since inception in 1965. Here I am providing you the question paper of Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) Primary Teacher (PRT) exam 2012 1. Absenteeism can be tackled by : (1) teaching (2) punishing the students (3) giving the sweets (4) contacting the parents 2. Discipline means: (1) strict‐behaviour (2) severe punishment (3) obedience (4) going by the rules 3. If any girl child does not corne to school regularly you will (1) no bother (2) struck off her name (3) complain to the Principal (4) meet the parents and en‐ courage them . 4. In co‐education you want't to : (1) make separate rows of boys and girls (2) you give preference to boys over girls (3) you. give preference to none (4) you deal according to need 5. One of the basic priniclples of socializing Individuals is : (1) religion (2) caste (3) educational (4) imitation Directions (6‐10) : Which of the' skills do you consider most essential for a teacher? 6. (1) Oration skills (2) Listening skills (3) Managerial skills, (4) Teaching skills 7. (1) encourage children to search for knowledge (2) have all the information for the children (3) ability to make children memorize materials (4) enable children to do well in tests 8. (1) identify gifted children (2) have an understanding of all children abilities (3) identify children with learning disabilities (4) none of the above 9. (1) _ ability to help children understand texts thoroughly (2) ability to help children do all the exercises (3) ability to raise possible actions from the texts (4) ability to help children from their own opinions on the text 10. (1) to communicate well {2) to use difficult language (3) to impress students (4) to read out the textbook 11. Success in developing values is mainly dependent upon: (1) government (2) society (3) family (4) teacher 12. Good reading aims at developing: (l) understanding (2) pronunciation (3) sensitivity (4) increasing factual knowledge 13. The primary duty of a teacher is to be responsible to his/her: (1) family (2) students (3) society (4) nation 14. Which of the following is not related to educational achievement? (1) Heredity (2) Experiences (3) Practice (4) Self learning 15. One of,the students of a class hardly talks in the class. How would you encourage him to express himself? (1) By orgariising discussions (2) By encouraging children to take part in classroom activities (3) By organizing educational games/ programmes in which ‐ children feel like speaking‐ (4) By giving good marks to those who express them'selves well Answers: 1.4, 2. 4, 3. 4, 4. 4, 5. 3, 5. 4, 7. 1, 8. 2, 9. 4, 10. 1, 11. 3, 12. 1, 13. 2, 14. 1, 15. 3 EVS‐Part 1. Which are air pollutants? (a) aerosols (b) sewage (c) DDT (d) fertilizers 2. Which of the following does not cause soil erosion? (a) wind (b) overgrazing (c) sun (d) water 3. Acid rain is due to: (a) combustion of fossil fuels (b) oil slick (c) oxides of sulphur (d) nuclear wars 4. Among the most harmful non-biodegradable waste is: (a) cow dung (b) plastics (c) garbage (d) radioactive waste 5. An example of a renewable resource is: (a) clay t (b) sand (c) water (d) fossil fuels 6. Which one of the following is a non-biodegradable waste? (a) manure ' (b) cow durig (c) plastics (d) garbage 7. The main source of water is: (a) rivers (b) rain (c) ponds (d) canals 8. Pollution is not caused by the use of: (a) solar energy (b) wood (c) petrol (d) unsaturated hydrocarbons 9. Ozone layer in the upper atmosphere is destroyed by: (a) HC1 (b) smog (c) chlorofluorocarbons (d) SO, 10. The gas associated with global warming is: (a) C02 (b) H2S (c) CH4 (d) S02 11. In water pollution, industries are said to be the: (a) line sources (b) point sources (c) area sources (d) none of these 12. Which of these is a non-renewable resource? (a) coal (c) water (b) forest (d) turtle 13. Which of these is biodegradable? (a) cow dung (c) coke cans (b) polythene (d) DDT Answers: 1. (a); 2. (c); 3. (c); 4. (d); 5. (c); 6. (c); 7. (b); 8. (a); 9. (c); 10. (a); 11. (a); 12. (a); 13. (a). Child Development and Pedagogy Question Paper 1. Most important work of teacher is— (A) to organize teaching work (B) to deliver lecture in class (C) to take care of children (D) to evaluate the students 2. A teacher should be— (A) Honest (B) Dilligent (C) Dutiful (D) Punctual 3. Environmental education should be taught in schools because— (A) it will affect environmental pollution (B) it is important part of life (C) it will provide job to teachers (D) we cannot escape from environment 4. Navodaya Schools have been established to— (A) increase number of school in rural areas (B) provide good education in rural areas (C) complete ‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan’ (D) check wastage of education in rural areas 5. At primary level, it is better to teach in mother language because— (A) it develops self-confidence in children (B) it makes learning easy (C) it is helpful in intellectual development (D) it helps children in learning in natural atmosphere 6. Women are better teacher at primary level because— (A) they behave more patiently with children (B) they are ready to work with low salary (C) higher qualification is not needed in this profession (D) they have less chances in other profession 7. You have been selected in all the four professions given below. Where would you like to go ? (A) Teacher (B) Police (C) Army (D) Bank 8. What is most important while writing on blackboard ? (A) Good writing (B) Clarity in writing (C) Writing in big letters (D) Writing in small letters 9. Some students send a greeting card to you on teacher’s day. What will you do ? You will— (A) do nothing (B) say thanks to them (C) ask them to not to waste money (D) reciprocate the good wishes to them 10. A student comes late in your class. Then you will— (A) inform to parents (B) punish him (C) try to know the reason (D) not pay attention there 11. When the students become failed, it can be understood that— (A) The system has failed (B) The teachers failure (C) The text-books failure (D) The individual student’s failure 12. It is advantage of giving home work that students— (A) remain busy at home (B) study at home (C) may be checked for their progress (D) may develop habit of self study 15. A teacher has serious defect is he/she— (A) is physically handicapped (B) belongs to low socio-economic status (C) has weak personality (D) has immature mental development 16. The success of teacher is— (A) high achievement of students (B) good traits of his/her personality (C) his/her good teaching (D) his/her good character 17. A Deepawali fair is being organized in your school. What would you like to do ? (A) only to visit the fair (B) to take part in function (C) to take a shop to sell something (D) to distribute free water to visitors 18. The most important trait of a student is— (A) sense of responsibility (B) to speak truth (C) co-operation (D) obedience 19. The purpose of basic education scheme is— (A) universalization of primary education (B) to vocationalise the eduction (C) to fulfil basic need of persons through education (D) to make education compulsory for all 20. You are teaching a topic in class and a student ask a question unrelated to the topic. What will you do ? (A) you will allow him to ask unrelated question (B) you will not allow him to ask unrealated question (C) you will consider it indiscipline and punish him (D) you will answer the question after the class 21. If you are unable to get a job of teacher, then you will— (A) start giving tuition at home (B) remain at home till you get a job (C) take some another job (D) continue applying for teaching 22. A teacher can motivate the students by— (A) giving suitable prizes (B) giving proper guidance (C) giving examples (D) delivering speech in class 23. If a student does not pay any respect to you, then you will— (A) ignore him (B) award less marks in examination (C) talk to his/her parents (D) rebuke him 25. The aim of National Council for teacher education is— (A) to open college of education (B) to promote research in education (C) to maintain standards in colleges of education (D) to provide grant to colleges of education 26. Kindergarten system of education was contributed by— (A) T. P. Nunn (B) Spencer (C) Froebel (D) Montessori 27. ‘National Council of Educational Research and Training’ was established in— (A) 1961 (B) 1962 (C) 1963 (D) 1964 Answers: 1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (D) 12. (D) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (D) 21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (A) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) Maths‐Number‐Reasoning 1. In a division sum, the divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder. If the remainder is 46, the dividend is: (1) 4236 (2) 4306 (3) 4336 (4) 5336 2. If 1.5 x= 0.04 y, then the value of (y‐x) (y+x) is: (1) 730/77 (2) 73/77 (3) 7.3/77 (4) 703/77 3. An employee may claim Rs. 7.00 for each km when he travels by taxi and Rs. 6.00 for each km if he drives his own car. If in one week he claimed Rs. 595 for traveling km. How many kms did he travel by taxi? (1) 55 (2) 65 (3) 62 (4) 70 4. The square root of 3 + “5 is : (1) “3 /2 + 1/”2 (2) “3 /2 ‐ 1/”2 (3) “5 /2 ‐ 1/”2 (4) “(5/2) + “(1/2) 5. The mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 370C and of Tuesday to Thursday was 340C, if the temperature on Thursday was 4/5th that of Monday, then what was the temperature on Thursday? (1) 36.50C (2) 360C (3) 35.50C (4) 340C 6. A certain number of two digits is three times the sum of its digits. If 45 be added to it, the digits are reversed. The number is: (1) 72 (2) 32 (3) 27 (4) 23 7. Three years ago the average age of A and B was 18 years. While C joining them now, the average becomes 22 years. How old (in years) is C now? (1) 24 (2) 27 (3) 28 (4) 30 8. If 2^(2x‐1) = 8^(3‐x), then the value of x is: (1) ‐1 (2) ‐2 (3) 2 (4) 3 9. A man’s basic pay for a 40 hours’ week is Rs. 200. Overtimes is paid at 25% above the basic rate. In a certain week, he worked overtime and his total was Rs. 300. He therefore, worked for a total of (in hours): (1) 52 (2) 56 (3) 58 (4) 62 10. On a Rs. 10, 000 payment order, a person has choice between 3 successive discounts of 10%, 10% and 30% and 3 successive discounts of 40%, 5% and 5%. By choosing the better one he can save (in Rupees): (1) 200 (2) 255 (3) 400 (4) 433 ANSWERS 1. (4), 2. (2), 3. (1), 4. (4), 5. (2) 6. (3), 7. (1), 8. (3), 9. (2), 10. (2) english comprehension Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain Words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Organic farming is either really expensive or really cheap, depending on where you live and whether or not you are certified. Not only are the ‘natural’ pesticides and fertilizers increasingly marketed by agribusiness as costly as or costlier than their chemical counterparts, but proving you are an organic farmer requires certification, which is time‐consuming and expensive. In the USA, converting to organic agriculture is a huge undertaking for commercial farmers, who have relied on chemical fertilizers and pesticides for many decades, but in India, the conversion is no less arduous and far more ironic. India’s farmers are still mostly practising organic methods, passed down for millennia. Organic fertilizer and natural pest control are the only tools available to most of these farmers, who have always lacked the financial resources to explore chemical solutions. But these farmers, whose produce is as organic as they come, cannot afford to pay the fees required to gain official certification. As the international community adopts standards for organic agriculture, the challenges faced by farmers in the USA versus farmers in India in order to adapt are very different indeed. The danger is that the wellintentioned global move towards organic standards will make small organic farmers in countries like India, who have never done anything but organic farming, no longer able to sell their crops. In response to the $ 26 billion global market for organic foods, the Indian Central Government set up a National Institute of Organic Farming in October 2003. The purpose of this institute is to formulate rules, regulations and certification of organic farm products in conformity with international standards. The institute has its offices across the country and has appointed certifying agencies for organic farm products for the domestic market. The certifying agencies are accountable for confirming that any product sold with the new ‘India Organic’ logo is in accordance with international criteria, and launch major awareness and marketing campaigns in India and abroad. Organic farming has been identified as a major thrust area of the 10th plan of the central government. 1 billion rupees have been allocated to the aforementioned National Institute of Organic Farming alone for the 10th five‐year plan. Despite this, most of India’s organic farms are not officially considered organic. Most of India’s farms are ‘organic by default’. The irony and difficulty of the new governmental push for organic agriculture is that 65% of the country’s cropped area is ‘organic by default’, according to a study. By this somewhat degrading term they mean that small farmers, located mostly in the Eastern and North‐Eastern regions of the country, have no choice except to farm without chemical fertilizers or pesticides. Though this is true in many cases, it is also true that a significant number of them have chosen to farm organically, as their forefathers have done for thousands of years. Many have seen for themselves the effects of chemical farmingsoil erosion and loss of soil nutrients, loss of nutrition in food and human diseases resulting from the chemicals that inevitably seep into the water table, all the reasons for the urgent demand for organic foods and farming. India currently has only 1,426 certified organic farms. This statistical discrepancy reveals that the weak link in the organic/economic chain is certification. Under current government policy, it takes four years for a farm to be certified as organic. The cost of preparing the report is a flat fee of Rs. 5,000 and the certificate itself costs another Rs. 5,000. While these costs are bearable for the new industrial organic greenhouses, they are equal to or more than an entire year’s income for the average small farmer, if the costs of travel and inspection are included. In the United States, an organic farm plan or organic handling plan must be submitted to a USDAaccredited private or state certification program. The plan must explain all current growing and handling methods, and any materials that will be used—in the present and any future plans must be included as well. Records for the last five years must be presented. Land must be chemical free for three years prior to harvest, so a conventional farmer cannot receive the organic label for the transitional years. This will generally mean a decrease in income— crops may be less plentiful than with conventional fertilizers and pesticides and yet the higher price for organic products won’t yet be possible. Many farmers cannot afford the transition, even if they want to. One solution to the small farmer’s dilemma of how to both certify and survive is that of community certification. In community certification, communities, on a nonprofit basis, take charge of the certification process themselves. They evaluate the farmer’s commitment to the stewardship of the soil and examine from many angles whether the food is being grown in an environmentally sensitive way or not, rather than technical standards. While community certification may be a viable solution on the local level, it is our opinion that, in the global market place, less than exact technical standards will never be enough for today’s consumer and in today’s largely poisoned environment, it shouldn’t be, either. Furthermore, such ‘soft’ guidelines can easily backfire on the farmers themselves, as a system not based on facts must be by definition subject to local politics, bribery, favoritism, etc. India must find a way to keep the strict international organic standards intact if it wants to compete in the international market for organic foods, but is there a way to do it without leaving small farmers out in the cold ? One obvious solution is for the government to subsidize these certification fees enough to make it a viable option for ordinary farmers, not just for neo‐organic factory farms and greenhouses. Banks also could provide a more level playing field for small farmers. Currently, almost all bank loans are for pure crop farmers. While many of these big‐business farmers use harmful chemicals and processes, small farmers fertilizing their soil with recycled organic wastes are usually ineligible for insurance, much less state subsidies. 1. What role does the National Institute of Organic Farming have to play in the organic farming area ? (A) To set standards for the import of material required for organic farming within India (B) To ensure that Indian farm products conform to the international standard for organic foods (C) To suggest methods to farmers for producing the best organic products (D) To import the best organic foods from international countries and harvest them in India (E) To set up agencies internationally for the marketing of Indian organic produce Ans : (C) 2. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage ? (A) Agribusiness in India (B) Organic Farming in India—An Irony (C) Inorganic Farming—A Health Hazard (D) Small and Marginal Farmers (E) Organic Farming in India and the US Ans : (B) 3. Why, according to the author, is the term ‘organic by default’ degrading ? (A) The Indian farmers are adopting incorrect methods of organic farming, thereby rendering the crop useless (B) As the crop cultivated out of organic farming is rejected by most international agencies (C) As all the farmers in India do not have any access to chemical fertilizers and pesticides to carry out inorganic farming (D) As the Govt. has issued a directive to farmers in India to carry out organic farming alone (E) As it means that the farmers in India cannot afford to use anything but organic methods of farming Ans : (C) 4. Which of the following are reasons for the increasing demand for organic foods and organic farming ? 1. Consumption of inorganic food has given rise to illnesses. 2. Excessive use of pesticides has caused soil erosion. 3. There has been a loss in soil nutrient value of soil due to chemical farming. (A) Only 2 (B) Only 1 and 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 2 and 3 (E) All 1, 2 and 3 are true Ans : (D) 5. Why according to the author, will the idea of community certification not work ? (A) As there may not be enough people in the community to work on a non‐profit basis (B) As the farmers may not be forthcoming in providing information about their cultivation practices and thus lead to the failure of this system (C) As the certification granted through this scheme will not be authentic at all (D) As certification sought in this manner may give rise to vested interests and also not meet the stringent criteria laid down globally (E) None of these Ans : (E) 6. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ? 1. The Indian Govt. is not in favour of acquiring certification to meet global standards. 2. The process of certification is quite time‐consuming and expensive. 3. The farmer does not earn much during the three‐four years that it takes to get certification. (A) Only 1 and 3 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) Only 1 and 2 (E) All 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (B) 7. What, according to the author, is a major problem with Organic Farming in India ? (A) Despite their organic nature most farms in India are not perceived as organic because of mere paperwork (B) The Govt. has not paid attention to organic farming in India thereby promoting inorganic farming to a great extent (C) Only recycled organic waste is available to Indian farmers for the purpose of organic farming (D) Indian farmers are accustomed to the usage of chemicals and their farms have now started losing their fertility (E) Large number of farmers in India is averse to the idea of organic farming as it is not profitable Ans : (D) 8. Which of the following, according to the author, are factors that can help in acquiring organic farming certification in India ? 1. Providing more bank loans to small farmers. 2. Reducing the quantum of loans being provided to pure crop farmers. 3. Lowering the cost of certification. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 3 (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) Only 2 and 3 (E) All 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (B) Directions—(Q. 9–12) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/ group of words printed in bold as used in the passage. 9. ARDUOUS : (A) Pleasurable (B) Different (C) Difficult (D) Hazardous (E) Threatening Ans : (C) 10. FORMULATE : (A) Regularize (B) Contemplate (C) Apply (D) Frame (E) Mix Ans : (D) 11. DEGRADING : (A) Corrupting (B) Minimizing (C) Lowering (D) Demeaning (E) Worrying Ans : (C) 12. TRANSITIONAL : (A) Extreme (B) Intermediate (C) Revolutionary (D) Base (E) Changed Ans : (B) Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage. 13. VIABLE : (A) Impossible (B) Negative (C) Deadly (D) Practical (E) Rudimentary Ans : (A) 14. INEVITABLY : (A) Avoidably (B) Mostly (C) Certainly (D) Expectedly (E) Predictably Ans : (A) 15. ACCORDANCE : (A) Division (B) Quarrel (C) Tune (D) Enmity (E) Conflict Ans : (E) |
#3
30th May 2015, 10:26 AM
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Re: KVS PRT exam question papers
I am searching for the KVS PRT exam question papers? Can you please tell me from where I can download the KVS PRT exam question papers?
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#4
30th May 2015, 10:30 AM
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Re: KVS PRT exam question papers
You are looking for the KVS PRT exam question papers. Here I am providing you the KVS PRT exam question papers. This is given below: KVS PRT exam question papers 1. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? a) Kalinga Award - Popularization of Science b) Barlong Award - Agriculture c) David-Cohen Award - Literature d) Pulitzer Prize - Progress in Religion 2. Which of the following characters was not a part of Shakespearian plays? a) Julius b) Brutus c) Potter d) Ariel 3. Which of the following international organizations is dedicated to the cause of wildlife conservation? a) UNFPA b) UNDP c) UNESCO d) WHO 4. Human Rights Day is observed on : a) 10 October b) 9 May c) 10 December d) 18 February 5. Railway coaches are made in the largest number at Integral coach factory, situated in: a) Kapurthala b) Perambur c) Varanasi d) Moradabad 6. Which of the following is not a necessary qualification for a state to become a member of United Nationas Organization? It should : a) be a sovereign state b) be a peace loving state c) be a willing to discharge responsibilities under the UNO charter d) guarantee human rights and freedom to its citizens 7. The imaginary line on the earth’s surface which closely follows 180o meridian, is called : a) International date time b) Tropic of Cancer c) Equator d) Prime Meridian 8. ‘Loti’ is the currency of : a) Burundi b) Libya c) Sudan d) Lesotho 9. Which type of rocks are mainly found in the Himalayan ranges? a) Sedimentary b) Metamorphic c) Igneous d) Granite 10. Water Lily is the national emblem of : a) Denmark b) Bangladesh c) Italy d) Luxemberg 11. Who is a famous ‘Sarangi’ player? a) Vilayat Khan b) Ustad Zakir Husian c) Alauddin Khan d) Ustad Binda Khan 12. Which of the following is not a dance/dance-drama associated with the state ‘Maharashtra’?: a) Lezim b) Lavani c) Kathi d) Dahi Kala 13. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below : I. Simon Commission 1. 1885 II. Quit India Movement 2. 1942 III. Formation of Indian National Congress 3. 1927 IV.Minto-Morley Reforms 4. 1909 Codes : I II III IV a) 3 2 1 4 b) 1 3 4 2 c) 4 3 2 1 d) 1 2 3 4 14.Commonwealth games in 2014 will be held in : a) Edinburgh, Scotland b) Ontario, Canada c) Glasgow, Scotland d) Abuja, Nigeria 15. United Kingdom’s Prime Minister since May, 2010 is : a) Tony Blair b) David Cameron c) Gordon Brown d) Edward Health 16. Which of the following two IIT’s started functioning in 2009? a) Gandhinagar, Jodhpur b) Ropar, Patna c) Indore, Mandi d) Bhubaneshwar, Hyderabad 17. Banking of cureves is done to provide : a) Centripetal force b) Centrifugal force c) Centrifugal acceleration d) Angular velocity 18. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below : I. Calomel 1. Copper sulphate II. Blue vitriol 2. Calcium sulphate III. Gypsum 3. Mercurous chloride IV. Normal salt 4. Sodium chloride Codes : I II III IV a) 1 2 3 4 b) 4 3 2 1 c) 3 2 1 4 d) 3 1 2 4 19. Which of the following have maximum calrofic value? a) Carbohydrates b) Fats c) Protiens d) Vitamins 20. How many Fundamental Rights are there now guaranteed under the Constitution of India? a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9 21. The reduction of voting age from 21 years to 18 years for the Lok Sabha as well as Assemblies is in : a) Sixty-First Amendment 1989 b) Seventy-Third Amendment 1992 c) Sixty-Fourth Amendment 1990 d) Fifty-Ninth Amendment 1988 22. Jute is mainly grown in : a) Tamil Nadu b) West Bengal c) Kerala d) Himachal Pardesh 23. Delhi became the capital of India in : a) 1910 b) 1911 c) 1916 d) 1923 24. Who amonst the following is the author of the book ‘My Country My Life’? a) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam b) Atal Behari Vajpayee c) L.K.Advani d) Shashi Tharoor 25. One-rupee currency notes bear the signature of : a) The President of India b) Prime Minister of India c) Governor of Reserve bank d) Indian Finance Secretary 26. Which of the following country won the FIFA World Cup, 2010? a) Germany b) South Africa c) Brazil d) Spain 27. Who among the following is Chairman of the Rajya Sabha? a) President b) Vice President c) Prime Minister d) Home Minister 28. B.C. Roy Award is given in the field of : a) Journalism b) Medicine c) Music d) Environment 29. Who among the following has been declared as Businessman of the decade? a) Mukesh Ambani b) Anil Amabani c) Ratan Tata d) Azim Premji 30. Who amongst the following has been named UNESCO’s National Ambassador? a) Aishwarya Rai b) Priyanka Chopra c) Sharmila Tagore d) Kajol 31. People have eyes of different colours, e.g. brown, black or blue, depending upon the particular Pigment present in the : a) Iris b) Corena c) Pupil d) Choroid 32. Which of the following is known as the ‘red planet’ ? a) Mercury b) Mars c) Jupiter d) Saturn 33. The special Constitution position of Jammu & Kashmir is that : a) It is not one of the States of the Indian Union b) It is beyond the purview of the Indian Constituion c) Indian laws do not apply to it d) It has its own Constitution 34. The fundamental right which has been described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as ” The heart and soul of the Constitution” is the right to : a) Equlaity b) Property c) Freedom of religion d) Constituional remedies 35. Fourth Estate is referred to : a) Public Opinion b) Chamber of Commerce c) The Newspaper d) Political Parties Biology 1. Which of the following is a ‘club moss’ ? (A) Selaginella (B) Equisetum (C) Lycopodium (D) None of these Ans : (C) 2. Raphe in Marsilea is present in— (A) Female gametophyte (B) Sporocarp (C) Sporophyte (D) Male gametophyte Ans : (B) 3. The stele type occurring in Marsilea is— (A) Solenostele (B) Protostele (C) Amphiphloic Siphonostele (D) All of these Ans : (C) 4. The morphological nature of rhizophore of Selaginella is— (A) Root like (B) Stem like (C) Both root and stem like (D) Rhizoid like Ans : (C) 5. The Selaginella shows— (A) Large and small leaves arranged spirally (B) All leaves large (C) All leaves small (D) All of these Ans : (A) 6. The anatomy of Pinus needle reflects the features of a— (A) Mesophyte (B) Xerophyte (C) Hydrophyte (D) Epiphyte Ans : (B) 7. Girdling leaf traces are the characteristic feature of the stem of— (A) Cycas (B) Pinus (C) Ephedra (D) Gnetum Ans : (A) 8. Pinus is a— (A) Tree (B) Shrub (C) Herb (D) None of these Ans : (A) 9. The recent era is— (A) Cenozoic (B) Mesozoic (C) Proterozoic (D) Archeozoic Ans : (A) 10. Fossils are found in— (A) Igneous rocks (B) Quartz (C) Soil (D) Sedimentary rocks Ans : (D) 11. Reserve food material in fungi is— (A) Glycogen (B) Starch (C) Sucrose (D) Maltose Ans : (A) 12. Which is rootless fern ? (A) Pteris (B) Dryopteris (C) Salvinia (D) Adiantum Ans : (C) 13. Which is common between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration ? (A) Similar substrate (B) Glycolysis (C) Pyruvic acid (D) All of these Ans : (B) 14. Turpentine oil is obtained from— (A) Coal (B) Petroleum (C) Cedarwood (D) Pinus Ans : (D) 15. Which alga was used by Calvin and his co-workers in their experiments of photosynthesis ? (A) Chlamydomonas (B) Chlorella (C) Chara (D) Volvox Ans : (B) 16. Which is an oilseed crop ? (A) Marigold (B) Chrysanthemum (C) Rose (D) Sunflower Ans : (D) 17. The first transgenic plant used for commercial production was— (A) Cotton (B) Tomato (C) Tobacco (D) Rice Ans : (B) 18. Rare hybrid plants can be saved by— (A) Pollen culture (B) Embryo culture (C) Protoplast culture (D) None of these Ans : (C) 19. Which is not a category ? (A) Ecotype (B) Species (C) Genus (D) Order Ans : (A) 20. Linnaeus published his concept of binomial nomenclature first in— (A) Systema Naturae (B) Species Plantarum (C) Genera Plantarum (D) Philosophia Botanica Ans : (B) 21. When chlorophyll is burnt which element is obtained ? (A) Ca (B) Na (C) Mg (D) Mn Ans : (C) 22. Iron deficiency results in— (A) Leaf tip necrosis (B) Small leaves disease (C) Decreased protein synthesis (D) Intervenal chlorosis appearing first in young leaves Ans : (D) 23. A phytohormone is— (A) Naturally produced (B) Synthetic substance (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these Ans : (A) 24. During the seismonastic movement in Mimosa pudica turgor changes occur in— (A) Leaflets (B) Stipules (C) Pulvinus leaf base (D) Petiole and stem Ans : (C) 25. Evergeen trees remain green through the year on account of— (A) Cold climate (B) Absence of leaf fall (C) Leaves falling in small number interval (D) Supply of moisture throughout year Ans : (C) 26. Phenotypic ratio of dihybrid test cross is— (A) 15 : 1 (B) 3 : 1 (C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (D) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 Ans : (C) 27. The damaged ozone layer is situated in— (A) Ionosphere (B) Mesosphere (C) Stratosphere (D) Troposphere Ans : (C) 28. Which one of the following is ordinarily not an air pollutant ? (A) CO2 (B) CO (C) SO2 (D) Hydrocarbon Ans : (A) 29. Genes are made by— (A) Histones (B) Lipoproteins (C) Hydrocarbons (D) Polynucleotides Ans : (D) 30. The term ‘ecosystem’ was proposed by— (A) Odum (B) Tansley (C) Whitker (D) Goli Ans : (B) 31. The first juvenile larva of Ascaris is known as— (A) Filiform larva (B) Rhabditiform larva (C) Miracidium larva (D) Microfilariae Ans : (B) 32. Chromosomes contain— (A) Protein only (B) DNA and protein (C) DNA, RNA and histone (D) DNA, RNA, histone and non-histone proteins Ans : (B) 33. Which are phagocytes in liver ? (A) Kupffer cells (B) Aciner cells (C) Diter cells (D) Hensen's cells Ans : (A) 34. Termites digest wood with the help of an enzyme secreted by the— (A) Salivary glands (B) Cells in the midgut (C) Symbiotic protozoa (D) Bacteria and fungi outside the body Ans : (C) 35. In honeybee colony the drones are produced by— (A) Fertilized eggs (B) Unfertilized eggs (C) Larvae fed upon leaves (D) Fasting larvae Ans : (B) 36. Jacobson's organ is concerned with— (A) Smell (B) Burrowing (C) Touch (D) Vision Ans : (A) 37. Body organisation in Hydra is of— (A) Tissue grade (B) Organ grade (C) Cellular grade (D) Organ system grade Ans : (A) 38. Leech obtains continuous blood flow from its victim by pouring in it— (A) Heparin (B) Hirudin (C) Insulin (D) Pepsin Ans : (B) 39. Spicules of Sponges are formed by— (A) Procytes (B) Pinacocytes (C) Scleroblasts (D) Thesocytes Ans : (B) 40. Heterocoelous centrum is a characteristics of— (A) Amphibia (B) Reptilia (C) Birds (D) Mammalia Ans : (C) 41. The exclusively sedentary protochordate animals are found in the class— (A) Pterobranchia (B) Larvacea (C) Ascidiacea (D) Thaliacea Ans : (A) 42. Cytopyge is found in— (A) Paramecium (B) Entamoeba (C) Amoeba (D) Trypanosoma Ans : (A) 43. Littoral form of animals is found— (A) In fresh water (B) In sea water near the shore (C) In deep sea (D) At the bottom of the sea Ans : (D) 44. Bladder worm is a larva of— (A) Obelia (B) Silkmoth (C) Taenia (D) Nereis Ans : (C) 45. Which of the following secretions associated with digestion does not have enzymes ? (A) Bile (B) Gastric juice (C) Saliva (D) Pancreatic juice Ans : (A) more paper detail to attached in a word file; |
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