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  #1  
Old 12th November 2014, 12:39 PM
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Default JIPMER question papers

I am searching for the JIPMER question papers? Can you please tell me from where I can download the JIPMER question papers so I can do my exam preparation well?
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  #2  
Old 12th November 2014, 03:54 PM
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Default Re: JIPMER question papers

The Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research (JIPMER) considered as one among the top three medical institutes in the world.

You are looking for the JIPMER question papers. Here I am providing you the JIPMER question papers. This can helps you in preparation of your exam. This is as follows:


1. The aortic opening in the diaphragm is at the level of
A. T10
B. T12
C. T6
D. T8

Ans. B

2. Which of the following is not a content of the pudendal canal
A. Pudendal nerve
B. Internal pudendal artery
C. Internal pudendal vein
D. Nerve to obturator internus

Ans. D

3. All the following are general visceral efferent except
A. Nucleus ambiguous
B. Dorsal nucleus of vagus
C. Salivatory nucleus
D. Edinger Westphal nucleus

Ans. A

4. Angle formed by the shaft and the neck of the femur is ___ degrees
A. 115
B. 125
C. 135
D. 145

Ans. B

5. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ
A. Spleen
B. Lymphnode
C. Bonemarrow
D. Liver

Ans. C

6. Tongue is protruded by which of the following muscle
A. Hyoglossus
B. Palatoglossus
C. Myelohyoid
D. Genioglossus

Ans. D

7. All of the following are features of flat type of pelvis except
A. Narrow subpubic angle
B. Short concave sacrum
C. Divergent side walls
D. Wide sciatic notch

Ans. A

8. A lesion involving the C8 nerve root will affect
A. Extensors of fingers and wrist
B. Flexors of fingers and wrist
C. Small muscles of hand

Ans. B

9.Dorsal scapular nerve supplies
A. levator scapulae and rhomboids
B. supraspinatus and infra spinatus
C. lattismus dorsi
D. serratus anterior

Ans. A

10. With foot off the ground and knee flexed, medial rotation of tibia is brought about by
A. Popliteus
B. gastrocnemius
C. vastus medialis
D. adductor magnus

Ans.

PHYSIOLOGY

11. 90% of CO 2 in blood is transported as
A. Dissolved CO2
B. HCO3-
C. Carboxy haemoglobin
D. Carbamino haemoglobin

Ans. B

12. Hardy-Weinberg law is used to predict inheritance of which of the following type
A. autosomal dominant
B. autosomal recessive
C. x-linked dominant
D. x-linked recessive

Ans. B

13. Intercalating bridges in sarcomere are formed by
A. actin
B. myosin
C. tropomyosin
D. calmodulin

Ans. A

14. Blood flow changes are least during exercise in
A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Skin

Ans. A

15. The main fuel used during starvation by a healthy adult is
A. free fatty acids
B. amino acids
C. glucose
D. ketone body

Ans. C?

16. Which of the following sensations is not converging on hypothalamus
A. smell
B. fine touch
C. hearing
D. vision
Ans. C

17. If acid is added to a medium containing intact mitochondria which of the following is seen
A. uncoupling of phosphorylation
B. inhibition of Electron Transport Chain
C. inhibition of phosphorylation
D. generation of ATP
Ans.
18. Instrumental conditioning in learning was introduced and demonstrated by
A. Pavlov
B. Skinner
C. Freud
D. Watson

Ans. B?

19. Endothelium derived relaxation factor is supposed to be
A. Nitric oxide

Ans. A

20. The fine movements of voluntary muscles are controlled by
A. Anterior corticospinal tract
B. Lateral corticospinal tract
C. Tectospinal
D. Vestibulospinal

Ans.

BIOCHEMISTRY

21. Features of Vitamin C deficiency is due to defect of which enzyme
A. Lysyl hydroxylase
B. Lysyl oxidase
C. Procollagen peptidase

Ans. A

22. Okazaki pieces are seen in
A. DNA repair
B. DNA replication
C. Transcription
D. Translation

Ans. B

23. Major Histocompatibility Complex is located on
A. Long arm of chromosome 6
B. Short arm of chromosome 6
C. Long arm of chromosome 7
D. Short arm of chromosome 7

Ans. B

24.Which of the following ketone bodies is commonest following prolonged starvation
A. Aceto acetate
B. B-hydroxy buryrate
C. acetone
D. alpha ketoglutarate

Ans. B?

25. cAMP is degraded by
A. Phosphodiesterase
B. Phosphokinase
C. Phosphatase
D. Xanthine oxidase

Ans. A

MICROBIOLOGY

26. Bacterial adherence to epithelium is mediated through
A. pili
B. fimbriae
C. flagella
D. mesosomes

Ans. A

27. Which of the following organism is capsulated
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Candida albicans

Ans. B

28. Ova with lateral spines is a feature of
A. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Schistosoma haematobium
D. Schistosoma mekongi

Ans. B

29. Which of the following is an oncogenic retrovirus
A. HTLV-1
B. HPV
C. EBV
D. HBV

Ans. A

30. Which of the following activates the alternate complement pathway
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgD

Ans. A

31. Which of the following activates the classical complement pathway
A. Immune complex
B. Lipopolysaccharide
C. Exotoxin

Ans. A

32. Serum sickness is due to which type of hypersensitivity
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Ans. C

33. Most common site of infection with Cryptococcus neoformans is
A. Lung
B. Meninges

Ans. B

34. All are true about streptococcal infections except
A. throat infection more common in age group of 5-15years
B. skin infection more common in age <3yrs
C. 15-20% colonization of mucosal surfaces
D. scarlet fever more common <3yrs
Ans. D
PATHOLOGY

35. Which of the following is not a feature of anemia of chronic disease
A. increased TIBC
B. increased serum iron
C. increased serum ferritin
D. increased bone marrow iron

Ans. B

36. Which among the following does not secrete Interleukin 1 alpha
A. lymphocyte
B. fibroblast
C. macrophage
D. endothelium

Ans. A

37. Histological scoring' of chronic hepatitis does not include
A. periportal inflammation
B. portal fibrosis
C. bridging necrosis
D. cholestasis

Ans. D

38. Pulmonary surfactant is synthesized by
A. Type I pneumocytes
B. Type II pneumocytes
Ans. B

39. Regarding DIC all the following features are correct except
A. Increased fibrin degradation products
B. Decreased platelets
C. Increased fibrinogen

Ans. C

PHARMACOLOGY

40. Which of the following is the most beta-1 selective antagonist
A. Acebutolol
B. Atenolol
C.Metoprolol
D.Bisoprolol

Ans. D

41. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in all the following except
A. Bilateral renal artery stenosis
B. Elderly hypertensive
C. Diabetic microalbuminuria
D. Severe renal failure

Ans. C

42. Which of the following is a cardiotoxic anticancer drug
A. bleomycin
B. doxorubicin
C. 5 FU

Ans. B

43. Opiod induced respiratory depression can be reversed with
A. Naloxone
B. Theophylline
C. Artificial ventillation

Ans. A
44. Calcium channel blocker which is usually used in subarachnoid hemorrhage is
A. Nimodipine
B. Diltiazem
C. Verapamil

Ans. A

45. Drug induced cirrhosis is not seen with
A. alpha methyldopa
B. phenylbutazone
C. INH

Ans. B

46. Which of the following is not used in the prophylaxis of febrile seizures
A. sodium valproate
B. carbamazepine
C. phenobarbitone
D. diazepam

Ans. B

47. Which of the following drugs is tuberculostatic
A. Rifampicin
B. Ethambutol
C. Pyrazinamide
D. INH

Ans. B

48. Which of the following drugs will not cause hypothyroidism
A. Ethambutol
B. Lithium
C. Amiodarone
D. Pyrazinamide

Ans. D

49. Dopamine inhibits secretion of
A. Growth hormone
B. Prolactin

Ans. B

50. Which of the following is not an analeptic agent
A. Doxapram
B. Nikethamide
C. Doxacurium
D. Propylbutamide

Ans. C

51. Which of the following drugs is not used for the treatment of anaerobic infections
A. penicillin
B. clindamycin
C. chloramphenicol
D. gentamycin

Ans. D

52. Which of the following drugs is used to treat Chlamydia infection in pregnancy
A. Doxycyclin
B. Erythromycin
C. Mirepenam
D. Tetracyclin

Ans. B
53. Troglitazone is the drug used in the treatment of
A. petit mal epilepsy
B. type 2 diabetes mellitus
C. hyperlipidaemia

Ans. B

54. Which of the following is not an alpha-2 stimulant
A. guanabenz
B. guanadrel
C. clonidine
D. alpha methyl dopa

Ans. B

55. 99% of degradation of Iodine131 occurs in
A. 26days
B. 36days
C. 46days
D. 56days

Ans. D

56. Atropine is added with diphenoxylate to
A. Increase effect
B. decrease side effects
C. decrease abuse
D. enhance absorption
Ans. C

57. Monitoring of drug level is not needed with which of the following drugs
A. Lithium
B. L-Dopa
C. Digoxin
D. Phenytoin

Ans. B

58. Which among the following have greatest affinity for pseudocholine esterase
A. Mivacurium
B. Atracurium

Ans. A

59. Selective decrease in IgA is seen with administration of
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Clonazepam
D. Phenobarbitone

Ans. A

60. Which of the following is prothrombotic
A. Thrombomodulin
B. PGI2
C. Heparin
D. ADP

Ans. D

61. Carbamazepine toxicity is precipitated by
A. Erythromycin
B. vitaminK
C. Theophyllin

Ans. A



FORENSIC MEDICINE

62. Which of the following is most useful for sex determination
A. Skull
B. femur
C. pelvis
D. tibia

Ans. C

63. Which of the following is diagnostic of drowning
A. froth in the nostrils
B. cutis anserina
C. water in the stomach
D. mud in the respiratory passages

Ans. A

64. Green colored urine is seen after ingestion of
A.copper sulphate
B.phenol
C.organophosphorus
D.cyanide

Ans. B

65. Leading questions are not permitted in
A.cross examination
B.examination in chief
C.questions by the judge

Ans. B

MEDICINE

66. Diagnosis of lung sequestration is by
A.CT
B.Angiography
C.MRI
D.X-ray

Ans. B

67. Bleeding in a case of obstructive jaundice is treated with
A.Fresh Frozen Plasma
B.Cryo precipitate
C.Whole blood
D.Buffy coat extract

Ans. A

68. Dichrotic pulse is seen in
A. Cardiac tamponade
B. Aortic regurgitation
C. dilated cardiomyopathy
D. restrictive cardiomyopathy

Ans. C

69. Which of the following ECG finding is diagnostic of cardiac ischaemia in treadmill test
A. flat ST depression
B. upsloping ST depression
C. ventricular tachycardia
D. T wave inversion

Ans. A




70. A child presents with a history of scorpion sting. He is having increased sweating. What is the best next step
A.lytic cocktail
B.atropine
C.antevenom

Ans. C

71. Transudative type of pleural effusion is a feature of
A.variceal sclerotherapy
B.coronary artery bypass
C.peritoneal dialysis
D.radiation

Ans.

72. The drug of choice for type 2 lepra reaction is
A.Clofazimine
B.Chloroquin
C.Thalidomide
D.Steroids

Ans. C

73. All are true about amyotropic lateral sclerosis except
A.Bowel and bladder involvement is present
B.LMN in upper limb
C.UMN in lower limb
D.no sensory involvement

Ans. A

74. Senile plaques in brain is a feature of
A.Multiple sclerosis
B.Parkinsonism
C.Alzheimer's disease

Ans. C

75. Primary unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is a feature of
A.Dubin Jhonson syndrome
B.Rotor syndrome
C.Gilbert's syndrome
D.primary biliary cirrhosis

Ans. C

76. Most common cause of ambiguous genitalia is
A.Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
B.Klinefelter's syndrome
C.Testicular feminization

Ans. A

77. Which of the following is not an ECG sign of hypokalemia
A.tall T waves
B.U waves
C.flat ST segment

Ans. A

78. Most common cause of myelophthisic anemia is
A.Multiple myeloma
B.NHL
C.Lukaemia
D.multiple secondaries

Ans. D?

79. Which of the following is most efficiently transmitted by needle stick injury
A.HIV
B.Hepatitis B
C.Hepatitis C
D.CMV

Ans. B

80. Benzene induced hemolytic anemia is seen with all except
A.Non Hodgkin's lymphoma
B.AML
C.ALL
D.Aplastic anemia

Ans. A?

81. Which of the following is best used in the diagnosis of congenital syphilis
A.FTA-ABS
B.TPHA
C.IgM-FTA ABS
D.TPI

Ans. C

82.Treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin is contraindicated in
A.X-linked agammaglobulinemia
B.Kawasaki's disease
C.Guillen Barrie syndrome
D.Selective IgA deficiency

Ans. D

83.Grade 1 lymphedema means
A.pitting edema up to the ankle
B.pitting edema up to the knee
C.non-pitting edema
D.edema disappearing after overnight rest

Ans. D

84. Cause of diarrhea in Diabetes mellitus is
A.defective absorption
B.abnormality in gastrointestinal motility
C.primary mucosal disease.

Ans. B

85. Parenteral nutrition is best given through
A.femoral vein
B.saphenous vein
C.subclavian vein

Ans. C

86. The precursor of amyloid Transthyretin is deposited in which of the following conditions
A.Alzheimer's disease
B.senile cardiac amyloidosis
C.medullary carcinoma thyroid
D.multiple myeloma

Ans. B

87. Egg shell calcification in hilar lymphnodes is a feature of
A.sarcoidosis
B.silicosis
C.lymphoma

Ans. B

88. Which of the following is not a tumor suppressor gene
A.N myc
B.Rb
C.p53
D.Mad-max

Ans. A

89. Which of the following is the best initial screening test for thrombocyto-penia
A.bleeding time
B.clotting time
C.platelet count

Ans. A

90. In Down's syndrome which of the following is true
A.the language defect progresses with age
b seen when mothers are aged between 30-39yrs in >50% of cases
C.the severity of facial changes denotes the severity of mental retardation
D.seizures are common

Ans. B


91. Macula cerulea is seen in
A.Pediculosis humanis corporis
B.Pediculosis capitis
C.Phthiris pubis

Ans. C

92. Lyonization occurs usually at
A.9th day
B.16th day
C.28th day
D.36th day

Ans. B


93. Localized tetanus is due to
A.large gaping wound
B.atypical strains of bacteria
C.abnormally long incubation period
D.partial immunity

Ans. A?

94. Sphenoid wing dysplasia is seen in
A.Von Hippel Lindau's disease
B.Neurofibromatosis
C.Sturge Weber syndrome
D.Bournville's disease

Ans. B

95. CMV does not cause
A.intracranial calcification
B.congenital heart disease
C.mental retardation
D.seizures

Ans. B






96. In cow's milk allergy all are seen except
A.Irondeficiency anemia
B.bloody diarrhea
C.pulmonary hemosiderosis
D.intestinal colic

Ans. A

97. Foster's test is used in the diagnosis of
A.spastic type of Cerbral Palsy
B.hypotonic CP
C.choreo athetotic CP
D.Myasthenia gravis

Ans.

98. Features of hypothyroidism due to TRH/TSH deficiency include all the following except
A.mental retardation
B.hypoglycemia
C.low hairline
D.micropenis

Ans.

99. Renal papillary necrosis is seen in all the following except
A.analgesic nephropathy
B.hydronephrosis
C.acute pyelonephritis
D.sickle cell disease

Ans. B

100. Rhinopharyngitis mutilans is not seen in
A.Yaws
B.Pinta
C.Leprosy
D.Kala azar

Ans. B

101. In acute myocardial infarction the best drug to cause thrombolysis and to start reperfusion is
A.streptokinase
B.urokinase
C.tissue plasminogen activator
D.anisoylated plasminogen streptokinase activator complex

Ans. C

102. Iliac horns are seen in
A.Nail patella syndrome
B.ankylossing spondylitis

Ans. A


103. Regarding lacunar infarcts a feature not seen is
A.multiple
B.pontine
C.severe symptoms

Ans. C

104. Diet therapy in a MI patient should start at what LDL cholesterol level
A.100mg/dl
B.130mg/dl
C.160mg/dl
D.190mg/dl

Ans. A
SURGERY

105. 'Flower vase' appearance in IVP is seen in
A.Poly cystic kidney disease
B.Horse Shoe Kidney
C.Hydronephrosis
D.Ectopic kidney

Ans. B

106. Comma shaped calcification in soft tissues is seen with
A.Armillifer
B.Loa Loa
C.Cysticercus cellulosae
D.Guinea worm

Ans. A

107. A T2 tumor of the oral cavity near the mandible is best treated with
A.Radiotherapy
B.Chemotherapy
C.Surgery
D.Laser ablation

Ans. C?
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  #3  
Old 12th November 2014, 03:54 PM
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Join Date: Apr 2013
Posts: 61,272
Default Re: JIPMER question papers

108. Commonest type of hypospadias is
A.glandular
B.penile
C.coronal
D.scrotal

Ans. A

109. Which of the following is not a feature of Thrombo Angitis Obliterans
A.it usually occurs before the age of 50 years
B.lower limbs are affected before upper limbs
C.there is associated phlebitis
D.femoral artery is involved

Ans. D

110. A 30 year old women is accidently found to have a wide mouthed Meckel's-diverticulum during laprotomy.What is the best method of treatment
A.Diverticulectomy
B.leave it alone
C.resection of diverticulum and invagination of stump
D.resection of diverticulum with a short segment of ileum and anastomosis

Ans. B

111. Radioopaque shadow seen immediately after trauma to the chest could be due to
A.pulmonary embolism
B.pulmonary contusion
C.hemothorax
D.pneumonia

Ans. C

112. Most common cause of bloody discharge from nipple is
A.Duct ectasia
B.Duct carcinoma
C.Duct papilloma

Ans. C

113. Compared with Crohn's disease Ulcerative colitis does not have more
A.malignant change
B.fistula formation
C.bleeding per rectum
D.cholangio carcinoma

Ans. B

114. All are true about deQuervain's thyroiditis except
A.Usually follows a viral infection
B.There is increased radio iodine uptake
C.Initial hyperthyroid state
D.Anti thyroids are of no use

Ans. B

115. Which of the following test is used to detect perforator incompetence in varicose veins
A. Trendelenberg test
B. Fegan's test
C. Morissey's test
D. Homan's test

Ans. B

116. Interruption of Inferior venacava is not indicated in
A.multiple septic emboli
B.multiple small peripheral emboli
C.when anticoagulation is contraindicated
D.Ileo femoral thrombosis

Ans. C

117. Which of the following salivary gland tumors shows perineural spread
A.Warthin's tumor
B.adenoid cystic carcinoma
C.carcinoma in pleomorphic adenoma
D.mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Ans. B
118. Prolonged intake of refined foods leads to which of the following carcinoma
A.stomach
B.gall bladder
C.colon
D.pancreas

Ans. C


119. The X-ray finding which helps to distinguish Hirschsprung's disease from congenital mega colon is
A.Delayed evacuation of barium
B.Air fluid levels
C.Presence of a transition zone
D.Dilated bowel loops

Ans. C

120. Which of the following is not a feature of a healthy healing ulcer
A.Sloping edge
B. Undermined edge
C. Serous discharge
D. Reddish base

Ans. B


121 What is the management of a low, straight, 2cm long peri anal fistula
A. fistulectomy
B. seton repair
C. proximal colostomy
D. anal dilatation

Ans. A

122. Graft used in infra inguinal bypass is
A. PTFE
B. Dacron
C. Autologous vein

Ans. C

123. Best treatment for external hemorrhage from an extremity is
A. elevation of the limb
B. proximal tourniquet
C. direct pressure
D. ligation of the bleeding vessel

Ans. C

124. Investigation of choice for Posterior urethral valve is
A. Retrograde cystourethrogram
B. MCU
C. IVP
D. USG

Ans. B

125. Most virus associated malignancy is
A. Carcinoma cervix
B. Burkitt's lymphoma
C. Carcinoma Breast

Ans. C

126. Most common age group of benign cystic teratoma is
A. <10yrs
B. 20-40yrs
C. 40-60yrs
D. >60yrs

Ans.

127. Burns involving head face and trunk constitutes how much percentage
A. 45%
B. 55%
C. 60%
D. 65%

Ans. A

PSM

128. Net Reproductive Rate of 1 implies a Couple Protection Rate of
A. 50
B. 60
C. 70
D. 80

Ans. B
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129. Vector of Japanese Encephalitis in South India is
A.Culex tritaneorhyncus
B.Anopheles
Ans. A
130. Minimum level of free chlorine in potable water is
A. 1mg
B. 0.5mg
C. 0.2 mg
D. 0.7mg

Ans. B

131. Which of the following is true about Cohort study
A.incidence can be calculated
B.it is from effect to cause
C.it is inexpensive
D.shorter time than case control

Ans. A

132. Which of the following diseases is not included in international health regulations
A. plague
B. yellow fever
C. cholera
D. polio

Ans. D

133. The size of sand particle in slow sand filter is
A. 0.1 -0.2 mm
B. 0.2-0.3 mm
C. 0.3-0.4 mm
D. 0.4-0.5 mm

Ans. B

134. What is the potassium concentration in WHO ORS solution
A. 10meq
B. 20meq
C. 30meq
D. 40meq

Ans. B

135. In the surveillance for Acute Flaccid Paralysis, the age group that is included is below
A. 5yrs
B. 12yrs
C. 8yrs
D. 16yrs

Ans. B?

136. Which of the following is not monitored in malaria surveillance now
A. ABER
B. Infant parasite rate
C. Annual parasite incidence
D. Slide positivity rate

Ans. B

137. Which of the following is true about Botulism
A.high fever
B.brisk reflexes
C.salivation
D.sore throat

Ans. D





138. What is the BMI(body mass index) of a male with weight 45kg and height 1.5m
A.19
B.20
C.21
D.18

Ans.B

139. Which of the following is used to destroy algae in water
A. Copper sulphate
B. Pottassium permanganate
C. Hypochlorite
D. Bleaching powder

Ans. A

140. Chikungunya virus is transmitted by all the following mosquitoes except
A. Culex
B. Anopheles
C. Aedes
D. Mansonoides

Ans. B

141. The WHO criteria for TB control means
A.Incidence of infection in cheldren less than 5yrs is <1%

Ans. A

142. Validity of a screening test includes all except
A.sensitivity
B.specificity
C.repeatability
D.accuracy

Ans. C

143.Which of the following is not sexually transmitted
A. Entameba histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Leishmania brasiliensis

Ans. D

144. According to WHO the minimum number of antenatal visits to prevent maternal mortality is
A.3
B.6
C.9
D.12

Ans. A

145. What is the definition of blindness according to WHO
A.vision less than 3/60

Ans. A

146. Which of the following is not a priority vaccine for the first year of life
A.Hib
B.Hepatitis B
C.DPT

Ans. B



147. What is the incubation period of vaccine strain of measles virus
A. 7days
B. 10days
C. 14days
D. 18days

Ans. A

148. PQLI does not include
A.Infant Mortality rate
B.Gross national Product
C.Litreacy rate
D.Life expectancy at 1 year of age.

Ans. B

149. Which of the following rates is not only an indicator of mortality but also of the living standard of a community
A.IMR
B.PNMR
C.MMR

Ans. A

150. Which of the following is a parametric test of significance
A. U test
B. t-test

Ans. B

151.All are components of Primary Health Care except
A.providing essential drugs
B.supplementary nutrition
C.treatment of locally endemic diseases and minor ailments
D.prevention of locally endemic diseases

Ans. B


152. Standard Normal deviate is given by the formula
A.x-`x/s
B.(x-`x)2/s

Ans. A

153. The minimum period of treatment for multibacillary leprosy is
A. 1yr
B. 2yrs
C. 6months
D. 9months

Ans. B

154. Relative risk is assessed on the basis of
A. Strength of association
B. Possibility
C. Dose response

Ans. A

155. Median incubation period means
A. Time for 50% cases to occur
B. Time between primary case and secondary case
C. Time between onset of infection and period of maximum infectivity

Ans. A



156. In census literacy rate is assessed by
A.attended literacy classes for one year
B.ability to write signature
C.ability to read and write

Ans. C

157. Ringer lactate does not contain
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Chloride
D. Bicarbonate

Ans. D

158. Sickness benefit in ESI is for how many days
A. 51
B. 61
C. 91
D. 71

Ans. C

ORTHOPEDICS

159. Rigid flat foot is not seen in
A. Osteo arthritis
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. peroneal spasm
D. congenital tarsal fusion

Ans. A

160. What is the diagnostic radiological finding in skeletal flurosis
A. sclerosis of sacroiliac joint
B. interroseous membrane ossification
C. osteosclerosis of vertebral body
D. osssification of ligaments of knee joint

Ans. D?

161.Which of the following childhood disorders is a common differential diagnosis of osteomyelitis
A.chondrosarcoma
B.Ewing's sarcoma
C.osteosarcoma

Ans. B

162. A segmental compound fracture of tibia with 1 cm skin wound is classified as
A.Type I
B.Type II
C.Type IIIA
D.Type IIIB

Ans. A?

163. Minimum intradiscal pressure in vertebral column is seen when a person is
A. standing
B. sitting
C. lying flat
D. lying on one side

Ans.




164. What is the position of lower limb in anterior dislocation of hip
A.flexion adduction and internal rotation
B.flexion adduction and external rotation
C.flexion abduction and internal rotation
D.flexion abduction and external rotation

Ans. D

165.Which of the following is not a complication of Colle's fracture
A.Sudek's osteodystrophy
B.Non Union
C.Shoulder stiffness
D.Malunion

Ans. B

166. Median nerve involvement is most common with
A. elbow dislocation
B. supracondylar fracture
C. lateral condyle fractrue
D. olecranon fracture

Ans. B

167. Earliest bone to ossify is
A. Clavicle
B. Tibia
C. Sternum
D. Ribs

Ans. A

ENT

168.Bezold's abscess is seen at
A.petrous tip
B.Mastoid tip
C.digastric triangle
D.subdurally

Ans. B

169. Which of the following is not a feature of Rhinosporidiosis
A.Bleeding polyp
B.Russel bodies are seen
C.Oral Dapsone is useful in treatment
D.bleeding is present

Ans. B

170. In a patient with hypertrophied adenoids the voice abnormality that is seen is
A.rhinolalia clausa
B.rhinolalia aperta
C.hotpotato voice

Ans. A

171. Abductor of the vocal cord is
A.lateral cricoarytenoid
B.cricothyroid
C.posterior cricoarytenoid

Ans. C





172. Cottel's test is used to test the patency of the nares in
A.Atrophic rhinitis
B.Rhinosporidiosis
C.Deviated nasal septum
D.Hypertrophied inferior turbinate

Ans. C

173. Which of the following is not seen in Menier's disease
A.vertigo
B.tinnitus
C.conductive deafness

Ans. C

174. Which of the following ECG finding is associated with congenital deafness
A.delta wave
B.long QT
C.short PR interval

Ans. B

175. Which among the following is not true about otosclerosis
A.hearing better in louder conditions
B.Eustachian tube is always abnormal
C.tympanic membrane is normal
D.bilateral progressive conductive deafness

Ans. B

176. For Grommet tube insertion in serous otitis media, the incision on tympanic membrane is made on
A.anteroinferior quadrant
B.anterosuperior quadrant
C.posterosuperior quadrant
D.posteroinferior quadrant

Ans. A

177. What is the symptom of a person with unilateral abductor paralysis
A.dyspnea on exertion
B.transient hoarseness
C.husky voice
D.inspiratory stridor

Ans. B

178. Regarding acute vestibular neuronitis all are true except
A.tinnitus and vertigo developing over 1-2 weeks
B.high frequency sensory hearing loss
C.spontaneous nystagmus is present
D.usually follows an upper respiratory tract infection

Ans. B

179. Most common complication of tracheostomy is
A.pneumothorax
B.surgical emphysema
C.injury to the large vessels
D.injury to esophagus

Ans. B







EYE

180. Cherry red spot in retina is a feature of
A.Infantile Gaucher's disease
B.Niemann Pick disease
C.Fabry's disease

Ans. B

181. Preganglionic and post ganglionic Horner's syndrome are differentiated by application of
A.Atropine
B.Pilocarpine
C.Timolol
D.Hydroxy amphetamine

Ans. D

182. Axial proptosis is caused by
A. blow out fracture of the orbit
B. maxillary tumor invading the orbit
C. frontal mucocele
D. optic glioma

Ans. D

183. Which of the following is used for treatment of myopia
A. Nd YAG laser
B. Excimer laser
C. Argon laser
D. Hormium laser

Ans. B

184. Sun flower cataract is seen in
A.Blunt trauma
B.Diabetes
C.Chalcosis
D.Argyriosis

Ans. C

185. Steroid may be used in the treatment of which of the following type of herpes keratitis
A. Superficial punctate keratitis
B. Dendritic ulcer
C. Geographic ulcer
D. Disciform keratitis

Ans. D

186. Which of the following is the cause of blindness in partial retinal branch vein occlusion
A. Cystoid macular edema
B. Macular hemorrhage
C. Vitreous hemorrhage

Ans. A

187. Miotics are useful in which type of squint
A. Accomodative squint
B. Paralytic squint
C. Divergant squint
D. Congenital squint

Ans. A





188. Extra capsular extraction of lens is not possible in
A. hypermature cataract
B. immature cataract
C. lens subluxation
D. developmental cataract

Ans. C

189. KF ring in Wilson's disease is seen at the level of
A. Deschmet's membrane
B. epithelium
C. endothelium
D. stroma

Ans. A

190. Treatment of congenital dacryocystitis is
A.dacryocystectomy
B.hydrostaticmassage
C.probing and syringing with antibiotics
D.dacryocystorhinostomy

Ans. B

191.Cattle truck appearance on fundus examination is a feature of
A.CRVO
B.Incomplete CRAO
C.Incomplete CRVO
D.Hypertensive retinopathy

Ans. B

192.Whorled keratopathy is seen with the use of
A. Digoxin
B. Amiodarone
C. Ethambutol

Ans. B?

PSYCHIATRY

193. Reversible dementia is a feature of
A.Alzheimer's disease
B.Pick's disease
C.Multiinfarct dementia
D.Hypothyroidism

Ans. D

194. Which of the following is not a classical symptom of depression
A.altered sleep pattern
B.weight loss
C.guilt
D.decreased apettite

Ans. C?

195. Psychomotor symptoms are associated with which type of schizophrenia
A.hebephrenic
B.catatonic
C.paranoid
D.simple

Ans. B

196. Which of the following is a first rank symptom in Schizophrenia
A.perceptional delusions
B.thought insertion
C.perceptional hallucinations

Ans. B
A I P P G
197. Which of the following is not seen in Korsakoff's syndrome
A.clear consciousness
B.inabiliity to learn new things
C.hallucinations
D.confabulation
Ans. C

198. Wernicke Korsakoff's syndrome is due to the deficiency of which of the following
A.Pyridoxine
B.Thiamine
C.Vitamin B12
D.Riboflavin

Ans. B

199. The type of treatment which can be used for mental retardation is
A.Psychoanalysis
B.Family therapy
C.Transaction analysis
D.Rapid emotive treatment and response

Ans.

200. deJavu phenomenon means
A.feeling that familiar things look unfamiliar
B.individual feels that he knows the surroundings even though he is new to it

Ans. B


SKIN

201. Condyloma accuminatum is produced by which type of papilloma virus
A.HPV 6-16
B.HPV 6-11
C.HPV 16-18
D.HPV 11-18

Ans. B

202. Herald patch is seen in
A.pityriasis rosea
B.lichen planus
C.DLE

Ans. A

203. Which of the following is not a pyoderma
A.Furuncle
B.Ecthyma
C.Pyoderma gangrenosum
D.Carbuncle

Ans. C

204.Treatment of choice for disseminated gonococcal infection is
A.penicillin
B.ceftriaxone

Ans. B

205. Epidemic tenia capitis is caused by
A.Trichopyton mentagrophytes
B.Trichophyton rubrum
C.Microsporum audoni

Ans. C

206. Scabies in children differs from that in adults in that it affects
A.webspace
B.face
C.genitalia
D.axilla

Ans. B

207. A smear from a genital lesion shows Donovan bodies. The diagnosis is
A.Lymphogranuloma venerium
B.Chancroid
C.Granuloma inguanale

Ans. C

208. Photosensitivity is seen in all except
A. SLE
B. Xeroderma pigmentosa
C. Poephyria cutanea tarda
D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum

Ans. D

ANAESTHESIA

209. Which of the following induction agent is used to produce a 'street-fit' person following surgery
A.midazolam
B.propofol
C.alfentanyl
D.thiopentone

Ans. B

210. Which of the following reacts with Soda lime in anaesthetic circuits
A.trichloroethylene
B.isoflurane
C.halothane
D.methoxyflurane

Ans. A

211. Which of the following anesthetics sensitizes the heart to catecholamines
A.Halothane
B.Isoflurane
C.Enflurane

Ans. A

212. Thiopentone sodium has a short duration of action because
A.it is rapidly metabolized
B.it is rapidly redistributed

Ans. B


213. In emergency caesarian section rapid induction of anesthesia is done to
A.prevent gastric aspiration
B.prevent fetal depression
C.to decrease awareness

Ans. A

PEDIATRICS
all india pre pg inc (A I P P G)
214. In meconium aspiration syndrome all of the following are true except
A.there is always respiratory distress
B.steroids are not useful
C.ECMO may be useful

Ans. A

215. What is the percentage of steroid responders in a case of Minimal Change disease
A.65%
B.75%
C.85%
D.95%

Ans. D

216. At what age a child is able to state correctly his name and sex
A.24months
B.36months
C.30months
D.42months
Ans. A?

217. Which of the following reflexes is present at birth
A.knee jerk
B.ankle jerk
C.biceps jerk
D.triceps jerk

Ans.


218. Swollen cherry red lip with strawberry tongue is a feature of
A.Kawasaki disease
B.Scarlet fever

Ans. A

219. Which of the following will not lead to decrease in cell mediated immunity
A.protein energy malnutrition
B.zinc deficiency
C.selenium deficiency
D.iron deficiency

Ans. C

220. In Phenylketonuria all are true except
A.EEG abnormality in 50% of cases
B.convulsion in 25% of cases
C.Blood is drawn for testing immediately after birth
D.profuse vomiting

Ans. C

221. A 15 month old child is able to do all the following except
A.crawl upstairs
B.make a tower of 5 cubes
C.name familiar objects
D.point to familiar things

Ans. B

GYNAE & OBST.

222. Which of the following is the commonest cause of urethritis with leucorrhea
A.Chlamydia trachomatis
B.H.vaginalis
C.Trichomonas
D.Candida

Ans. A

223. A pregnant women presents with a placenta praevia of a major degree. The fetus is malformeD. Which of the following will be the best line on management
A.cesarian section
B.oxytocin drip
C.rupture of membranes
D.instillation of PG E2

Ans. A

224. Transverse lie is most likely to occur in
A.subseptate uterus
B.uterus didelphys
C.hypoplastic uterus
D.unicornuate uterus

Ans. A
all india medical pre pg entrance,PLAB, aiims,PG courses coaching,manipal pg books medical USMLE MCQ downloads
225. Osiander's sign means
A. Pulsation in the lateral vaginal fornix
B. Bluish colour change in the vagina
C.Softening of the cervix
D.On bimanual palpation the fingers can be approximated as if nothing is in between

Ans. A


226. Which of the following does not cross placenta
A.heparin
B.propranolol
C.warfarin

Ans. A

227. Magnesium sulfate as an uterine relaxant is contraindicated in following except
A.premature rupture of membrane
B.intrauterine infection
C.myasthenia gravis
D.renal failure

Ans. B

228. Anti epileptic agent given in pregnancy is
A.phenytoin
B.sodium valproate
C.carbamazepine
D.lamotrigene

Ans. D

229. A pregnant woman with Mitral stenosis is most likely to undergo failure in which period
A.16wks
B.24wks
C.20wks
D.28wks

Ans. D

230. CA-125 is the tumor marker for
A.colon
B.ovary

Ans. B

231. Incidence of scar rupture in a pregnant lady with previous LSCS is
A. 0.2
B. 0.5
C. 0.7
D. 0.9

Ans.

232. Karyotype of Turner's syndrome is
A. XO
B. XX
C. XXY
D. XY

Ans. A

233. What is true about shoulder presentation
A. Ccord prolapse is common
B. 3rd degree perineal tear is common
C. Deep transverse arrest can occur
D. More common in primi

Ans.

234. Variable deceleration indicates
A.head compression
B.cord compression
C.fetal hypoxaemia
D.maternal sedation
Ans. B


235. Regarding monozygotic twins which of the following is not true
A. USG is more useful in the first half of pregnancy
B. sex discordance can occur rarely
C. always monochorionic
D. more common following ovulation induction

Ans. C

236. The placenta is formed from
A.decidua basalis
B.decidua vera
C.chorion levae
D.decidua capsularis

Ans. A

237. The level of hCG is maximum during which day of pregnancy
A.50-60
B.60-70
C.70-80
D.80-90

Ans. B

238. Failure rate of tubal sterilization is one in
A. 100
B. 200
C. 500
D. 1000

Ans. B
239. Which cervical fibroid is most likely to cause urinary retention
A.Anterior
B.Posterior
C.Submucous
D.Subserous

Ans. A

240. Fetal lung maturity is assessed by all the following except
A. Lecithin sphingomyelin ratio
B. Nile blue sulfate test
C. Nitrazine paper test
D. Creatinine estimation of amniotic fluid

Ans. C

241. If a patient comes with complaints of post dated pregnancy what is the first thing that you will do
A. USG
B. NST
C. Review the menstrual history once more
D. X-ray abdomen

Ans. C

242. First trimester USG is not indicated in
A.Hydramnios
B.Hyper emesis gravidarum

Ans. A

243. Parkland formula for burns is for
A.Ringer lactate
B.glucose saline
C.Normal saline

Ans. A

244. Paracusis willisi is seen in
A.stapedial fixation
B.ASOM

Ans. A

245. Mesonephric duct remnant seen in anterolateral vaginal wall is
A.Gartner's cyst
B.endometriotic cyst
C.Inclusion cyst

Ans. A

RADIOLOGY

246. Which among the following is least likely to be affected by radiation
A.skin
B.muscle
C.bone marrow
D.intestine

Ans. B

247. Bull's eye lesion in ultrasonography is seen in
A. Candidiasis
B. Aspergillosis
C. Sporotrichosis
D. Cryptococcosis

Ans. A
248. Unit of absorbed dose of radiation is
A.Becqueral
B.Gray
C.Stewart
D.Roentgen

Ans. B

249. Which of the following is a characteristic radiological finding in neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis
A. Gas in the portal system
B. Gas in the intestinal wall
C. Pneumoperitoneum
D. Air fluid levels

Ans. B

250. Sign of contour is seen in
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. duedonal atrisia
C. Chron's disease


Here I am also uploading a file that contains the complete JIPMER question paper. you can download it from here. This is as follows:
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  #4  
Old 26th November 2014, 05:09 PM
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Default JIPMER Question papers

Tell me from where I can get JIPMER exam model question paper, would you like to provide here???
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  #5  
Old 27th November 2014, 12:12 PM
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Join Date: Apr 2013
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Default Re: JIPMER Question papers

You are looking for JIPMER exam model question paper, I am giving here:

Physics
1. A car of mass 1000 kg moves on a circular track of radius 40 m. If the coefficient of friction is 1.28. The maximum velocity with which the car can be moved, is
(a) 22.4 rn/s
(b) 112 m/s
(c) (0.64 * 40)/ (1000 * 100) m/s
(d) 1000 m/s
2. The escape velocity for the earth is 11.2 km/s. The mass of another planet 100 times mass of earth and its radius is 4 times radius of the earth. The escape velocity for the planet is
(a) 280 km/s
(b) 56.0 km/s
(c) 112 km/s
(d) 56 km/s
3. Light travels faster in air than that in glass. This is accordance with
(a) wave theory of light
(b) corpuscular theory of light
(c) neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
4. The speed of air flow on the upper and lower surfaces of a wing of an aeroplane are v1 and v2 respectively. If A is the cross section area of the wing and p is the density of air, then the upward life is
(a) 1/2ρA(v2 —v2)
(b) 1/2ρA(v1 + v2)
(c) 1/2ρA(v12 — v22)
(d) 1/2ρA(v12 + v22)
5. A body is thrown with a velocity of 9.8 m/s making an angle of 30° with the horizontal. It will hit the ground after a time
(a) 1.5s
(b) 1s
(c) 3s
(d) 2s
6. A radioactive element 90X238 decays into 83Y222The number of β-particles emitted are
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6
7. Minimum excitation potential of Bohr’s first orbit in hydrogen atom is
(a) 3.6V
(b) 10.2 V
(c) 13.6 V
(d) 3.4V
8. A gas expands 0.25 m3 at constant pressure 103 N/m2, the work done is
(a) 250 N
(b) 250W
(c) 250 J
(d) 2.5 erg
9. The work done in increasing the size of a soap film for 10 cm x 6m to 10 cm x 11cm is 3 x 10-4 J. The surface tension of the film is
(a) 1.0 x 10-2 N/m
(b) 6.0 x 10-2 N/m
(c) 3.0 x 10-2 N/m
(d) 1.5 x 10-2 N/m
10. A parallel palte condenser is filled with two dielectrics as shown in figure. Area of each pate is A m2 and the separation is d metre.
The dielectric constants are K1 and K2 respectively. Its capacitance in farad will be
JIPMER MBBS 2013 Solved Question Paper jipmer Image
JIPMER MBBS 2013 Solved Question Paper jipmer Image
11. A luminous object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the convex lens of focal length 20 cm. On the other side of the lens, at what distance from the lens a convex mirror of radius of curvature 10 cm be placed in order to have an upright image of the object coincident with it
(a) 30 cm
(b) 60 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 12 cm
12. A battery of emf 10 V and internal resistance of 0.5 ohm is connected across a variable resistance R. The maximum value of R is given by
(a) 0.5Ω
(b) 1.00Ω
(c) 2.0Ω
(d) 0.25Ω
13. For a R/Cv gas = 0.67. This gas is made up of cv molecules which are
(a) mono atomic
(b) poly atomic
(c) mixture of diatomic and poly atomic molecules
(d) diatomic
14. A point source of light is placed 4 m below the surface of water of refractive index 5/3.
The minimum diameter of a disc which should be placed over the source on the surface of water to cut-off all light coming out of water is
(a) 6 m
(b) 3 m
(c) 4 m
(d) 2 m
15. A moving body of mass m and velocity 3 km/h collides with a rest body of mass 2 m and stick to it. Now the combined mass starts to move. What will be the combined velocity?
(a) 4 km/h
(b) 1 km/h
(c) 2 km/h
(d) 3 km/h
16. A transverse wave is represented by the equation
y = y0 sin (2π/λ) – 27c (vt – k)
For what value of X is the particle velocity equal to two times the wave velocity
(a) λ = πy0
(b) λ = (πy0/2)
(c) λ = (πy0/3)
(d) λ = 2π/y0
17. Ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atom on the ground state rarely excited by monochromatic radiation of photon 12.1 eV. The special line emitted by a hydrogen atom according to Bohr’s theory will be
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
18. The internal resistance of a primary cell is 4Ω. It generates a current of 0.2 A in an external resistance of 21Ω The rate at which chemical energy to consumed in providing current is
(a) 1 J/s
(b) 5 J/s
(c) 0.42 J/s
(d) 0.8 J/s
19. The binding energy per nucleon is maximum in the case
JIPMER MBBS 2013 Solved Question Paper jipmer Image
20. Two rigid bodies A and B rotate with rotational kinetic energies EA and EB respectively. The moments of inertia of A and B about the axis of rotation are IA and IB respectively.
If IA = IB and EA = 100 = EB the ratio of 4 angular momentum (LA) of A to the angular momentum (LB) of B is
(a) 25
(b) 5/4
(c) 5
(d) 1/4
21. The working principle of a ball point pen is
(a) Bernoulli’s theorem
(b) surface tension
(c) gravity
(d) viscosity
22. Progressive waves are represented by the equation
y1 = a sin (ωt – x)
and y2 = b cos (ωt — x)
The phase difference between waves is
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°
23. Two simple pendulums of length 0.5 m and 20 m respectively are given small linear displacement in one direction at the same time. They will again be in the phase when the pendulum of shorter length has completed x oscillations, where k is
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 5
24. A balloon contains 500 m3 of helium at 27°C and 1 atmosphere pressure. The volume of the helium at —3° C temperature and 0.5 atmosphere pressure will be
(a) 1000 m3
(b) 900 m3
(c) 700 m3
(d) 500 m3
25. 220 V, 50 Hz, AC source is connected to an inductance of 0.2 H and a resistance of 20 Ω in series. What is the current in the circuit?
(a) 3.33 A
(b) 33.3 A
(c) 5A
(d) 10 A
26. In 0.2 s, the current in a coil increases from 2.0 A to 3.0 A. If inductance of coil is 60 mH, then induced current in external resistance
of 3 Ω will be
(a) 1 A
(b) 0.5 A
(c) 0.2 A
(d) 0.1 A
27. Two coherent light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed. The maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are
(a) 5 / and /
(b) 5 / and 3/
(c) 9 / and /
(d) 9 / and 3/
28. A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter should have
(a) low resistance in series with its coil
(b) low resistance in parallel with its coil
(c) high resistance in series with its coil
(d) high resistance in parallel with its coil
29. The equivalent resistance across A and B is A
JIPMER MBBS 2013 Solved Question Paper jipmer Image
(a) 2 Ω
(b) 3 Ω
(c) 4 Ω
(d) 5 Ω
30. A black body has a wavelength of k at temperature 2000 K. Its corresponding wavelength at temperature 3000 K will be
(a) 2λ/3
(b) 3λ/2
(c) 4λ/9
(d) 9λ/4
31. At room temperature, copper has free electron density of 8.4 x 1028 m-3. The electron drift velocity in a copper conductor of cross-sectional area of 10-6m2 and carrying a current of 5.4 A, will be
(a) 4 ms-1
(b) 0.4 ms-1
(c) 4 cm s-1
(d) 0.4 mm s-1
32. A uniform wire of resistance R and length L is cut into four equal parts, each of length L/4 which are then connected in parallel combination.
The effective resistance of the combination will be
(a) R
(b) 4R
(c) R/4
(d) R/16
33. The half-life of radio isotope is 4 h. If initial mass of the isotope was 200 g, then mass remaining after 24 h will be
(a) 1.042 g
(b) 2.084 g
(c) 3.125g
(d) 4.167g
34. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?
JIPMER MBBS 2013 Solved Question Paper jipmer Image
(a) OR
(b) NOR
(c) AND
(d) NAND
35. The work function for metals A, B and C are respectively 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5eV.
According to Einstein’s equation the metals which will emit photo, electrons for a radiation of wavelength 4100 Å is/are
(a) none
(b) A only
(c) A and B only
(d) All the three metals
36. Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a ground, where AB = a. The boy at B starts running in a direction perpendicular to AB with velocity v1. The boy at A starts running simultaneously with velocity u and catches the other boy in a time t, where t is
JIPMER MBBS 2013 Solved Question Paper jipmer Image
37. A 5 amp fuse wire can withstand a maximum power of 1 W in circuit. The resistance of the fuse wire is
(a) 0.2 Ω
(b) 5 Ω
(c) 0.4 Ω
(d) 0.04 Ω
38. A force F is given F = at + bt2 , where, t is time. What are the dimensions of a and b?
(a) [MLT -1] and [MLT0 ]
(b) [MLT -3] and [ML2T4]
(c) [MLT -4] and [MLT1]
(d) [MLT -3] and [MLT -4]
39. Two equal negative charges – q are fixed at the point (0, a) and (0, – a) on the y-axis. A positive charge Q is released from rest at the point (2a, 0) on the x-axis. The charge will
(a) execute SHM about the origin
(b) move to the origin and remain at rest
(c) move to infinity
(d) execute oscillatory but not SHM
40. An ice-cube of density 900 kg/m3 is floating in water of density 1000 kg/m3. The percentage of volume of ice-cube outside the water is
(a) 20%
(b) 35%
(c) 10%
(d) 25%
Chemistry
JIPMER MBBS 2013 Solved Question Paper jipmer Image
(a) aromatisation
(b) pyrolysis
(c) isomerisation
(d) oxidation
2. Number of hydrogen-bonded water molecules associated in CuSO4 – 5H0O is
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) All the five
3. Which of the following species do not show disproportionation on reaction?
ClO-, ClO2- ,ClO3- and ClO4-
(a) ClO4-
(b) ClO3-
(c) ClO-
(d) None of these
4. Which one of the following acts as a nucleophile?
JIPMER MBBS 2013 Solved Question Paper jipmer Image
5. During estimation of nitrogen in the organic compound by Kjeldahl’s method, the ammonia evolved from 0.5 g of the compound in Kjeldahl’s estimation of nitrogen, neutralised 10 mL of 1M H2SO4.
Find out the percentage of nitrogen in the compound.
(a) 14%
(b) 28%
(c) 56%
(d) 68%
6. Which of the following compounds have highest melting point?
JIPMER MBBS 2013 Solved Question Paper jipmer Image
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) I and II
(d) II and III
7. Identify the major product ‘X’ obtained in the following reaction.
JIPMER MBBS 2013 Solved Question Paper jipmer Image
8. Addition of water to alkynes occurs in acidic medium and in the presence of Hg2+ ions as a catalyst. Which of the following products will be formed on addition of water to but-l-yne under these conditions?
(a) CH3CH2CH2CHO
(b) CH3CH2COCH3
(c) CH3CH2COOH + CO2
(d) CH3COOH + HCHO
9. The correct order of increasing acidic strength is
(a) phenol< ethanol < chloroacetic acid < acetic acid
(b) ethanol< phenol < chloroacetic acid < acetic acid
(c) ethanol< phenol < acetic acid < chloroacetic acid
(d) chloroacetic acid < acetic acid < phenol < ethanol
10. KF has ccp structure. How many F- ions and octahedral voids are there in this unit cell respectively?
(a) 4 and 4
(b) 4 and 8
(c) 8 and 4
(d) 6 and 6
11. The osmotic pressure of blood is 8.21 atm at 37°C. How much glucose would be used for an injection that is at the same osmotic pressure as blood?
(a) 22.17 gL-1
(b) 58.14 gL-1
(c) 61.26 gL-1
(d) 75.43 gL-1
12. At equilibrium, the rate of dissolution of a solid solute in a volatile liquid solvent is
(a) less than the rate of crystallisation
(b) greater than the rate of crystallisation
(c) equal to the rate of crytallisation
(d) zero
13. A chelating agent has two or more than two donor atoms to bind a single metal ion.
Which of the following is not a chelating agent?
(a) Thiosulphato
(b) Glycinato
(c) Oxalato
(d) Ethane-1, 2-diamine
14. On addition of small amount of KMn04 to conc. H2SO4, a green oily compound is obtained which is highly explosive in nature. Identify the compound from the following.
(a) Mn2O7
(b) MnO2
(c) MnSO4
(d) Mn2O3
15. The magnetic nature of elements depends on the presence of unpaired electrons.
Identify the configuration of transition element, which shows highest magnetic moment.
(a) 3d7
(b) 3d5
(c) 3d8
(d) 3d2
16. Which of the following elements can be involved in pπ — dπ bonding?
(a) Carbon
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Boron
17. On addition of conc. H2SO4 to a chloride salt, colourless fumes are evolved but in case of iodide salt, violet fumes come out. This is because.
(a) H2SO4 reduces HI to I2
(b) HI is of violet colour
(c) HI gets oxidised to I2
(d) HI changes to HIO3
18. Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from fluorine to iodine. Which of the halogen acids should have highest bond dissociation enthalpy?
(a) HF
(b) HCl
(c) HBr
(d) Hl
19. Which of the following statement is not correct about an inert electrode in a cell?
(a) It does not participate in the cell reaction.
(b) It provides surface either for oxidation or for reduction reaction.
(c) It provides surface for conduction of electrons.
(d) It provides surface for redox reaction
20. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) E cell and Δr G of cell reaction both are extensive properties.
(b) E cell and Δr G of cell reaction both are intensive properties.
(C) E cell in the intensive property while Δr G of cell reaction is an extensive property.
(d) E cell is an extensive property while Δr G of cell reaction is an intensive property.
21. Which of the following curves is in accordance with Freundlich adsorption isotherm?
JIPMER MBBS 2013 Solved Question Paper jipmer Image
22. A number of elements available in earth’s crust but most abundant elements are
(a) Al and Fe
(b) Al and Cu
(c) Fe and Cu
(d) Cu and Ag
23. The element which forms oxides in all oxidation states + 1 to + 5 is
(a) nitrogen
(b) phosphorus
(c) arsenic
(d) antimony
24. Which of the following is the increasing order of enthalpy of vaporization?
(a) NH3, PH3, AsH3
(b) AsH3, PH3, NH3
(c) NH3, AsH3, PH3
(d) PH3, AsH3, NH3
25. When Br2 is treated with aqueous solutions of NaF, NaC1, NaI separately
(a) F2, Cl2 and l2are liberated
(b) only F2 and Cl2 are liberated
(c) only l2 is liberated
(d) onlyCl2 is liberated
26. In the presence of a catalyst, the heat evolved or absorbed during the reaction
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unchanged
(d) may increase or decrease
27. The rate of a gaseous reaction is given by the expression k[A][B]. If the volume of the reaction vessel is suddenly reduced to 1/4 th of the initial volume, the reaction rate relating to original rate will be
(a) 1/10
(b) 1/8
(c) 8
(d) 16
28. Which of the following is 3° amine?
(a) 1-methylcyclohexylamine
(b) Triethylamine
(c) Tert-butylamine
(d) N-methyl aniline
29. Which of the following enhances lathering property of soap?
(a) Sodium carbonate
(b) Sodium rosinate
(c) Sodium stearate
(d) Trisodium phosphate
30. The deficiency of vitamin C causes
(a) scurvy
(b) rickets
(c) pyrrohea
(d) perniciousanaemia
31. Excess fluoride (over 10 ppm) in drinking water can cause
(a) harmful effect of bones and teeth
(b) methemoglobinemia
(c) kidney damage
(d) laxative effect
32. For the process to occur under adiabatic conditions, the correct condition is
(a) ΔT = 0
(b) Δp = 0
(c) q = 0
(d) W = 0
33. (3/2O2(g)) → O3(g); Kp for this reaction is 2.47 x 10-29. At 298 K, ΔrG° for conversion of oxygen to ozone will be
(a) 100 kJ mol-l
(b) 150 kJ mol-l
(c) 163 kJ mol-l
(d) 2303 kJ mol-l
34. Which one of the following statements about C2 molecule is wrong?
(a) The bond order of C2 is 2.
(b) In vapour phase, C2 molecule is diamagnetic.
(c) Double bond in C2 molecule consists of both π- bonds because of the presence of 4e-s; in two π- molecular orbitals.
(d) double bond in C2 molecule consists of one a – bond and on It-bond.
35. The type of hybridisation in SF6 molecule is
(a) sp3d
(b) dsp3
(c) sp3d3
(d) d3sp3
36. Among LiCl, BeCl2, BCl3 and CCl4 , the covalent bond character follows the order
(a) LiCl< BeCl2< BCl3< CCl2
(b) BCl3< CCl4< BeCl2<LiCl
(c) BeCl2< LiCl< CCl4< BCl3
(d) CCl4< BCl3< BeCl2< LiCl
37. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom determined by the following?
(a) 4/+ 2
(b) 2n2
(c) 4/- 2
(d) 2/+ 1
38. The average kinetic energy of an ideal gas per molecule in SI units at 25°C will be
(a) 6.17 x 1021 JK-1
(b) 6.17 x 10-21kJK-1
(c) 6.17 x 1020 JK-1
(d) 7.16 x 10-21 JK-1
39. pka of acetic acid and pKb of ammonium hydroxide are 4.76 and 4.75 respectively.
Calculate the pH of ammonium acetate solution.
(a) 6.02
(b) 7.005
(c) 8
(d) 5.602
40. The value of Ke for the reaction, 2A ⇔ B + C is 2 x 10-3. At a given time, if the composition of reaction mixture is [A] = [B]=[C]= 3 x 10-3 M. Which is true?
(a) The reaction will proceed in forward direction
(b) The reaction will proceed in backward direction
(c) The reaction will proceed in any direction
(d) None of the above
Zoology
1. Pellagra is caused by deficiency of vitamins
(a) B5
(b) B5
(C) B5
(d) B5
2. Notochord originates from
(a) mesoderm
(b) ectoderm
(c) endoderm
(d) None of these
3. Parthenogenesis is a term of
(a) budding
(b) asexual reproduction
(c) sexual reproduction
(d) regeneration
4. Bartholin’s gland is found in
(a) penis
(b) stomach
(c) liver
(d) vagina
5. Which one of the following statements best characterise the testis?
(a) The seminiferous epithelium contains only proliferative cells
(b) Functional compartmentalisation of the seminiferous epithelium depends on tight junctions
(c) The interstitial tissue contains few capillaries
(d) The seminiferous epithelium contains numerous capillaries
6. Drugs that cause malformation in developing embryo during pregancy are called
(a) teratogens
(b) nicotine
(c) tranquillisers
(d) alcoholic beverages
7. Which set is similar?
(a) Corpus luteum – Graafian follicles
(b) Sebum – Sweat
(c) Vitamin-B7 – Niacin
(d) Bundle of His – Pacemaker
8. Which one out of (a) to (d) given below correctly represents the structural formula of the basic amino acid?
JIPMER MBBS 2013 Solved Question Paper jipmer Image
9. Given below is a schematic break-up of the phases/stages of cell cycle. Which one of the following is the correct indication of the stage/ phase in the cell cycle?
JIPMER MBBS 2013 Solved Question Paper jipmer Image
(a) C-karyokinesis
(b) S-synthetic phase
(c) A-cytokinesis
(d) B-metaphase
10. Which one of the following structural formula of two organic compounds is correctly identified along with its related function?
JIPMER MBBS 2013 Solved Question Paper jipmer Image
(a) B-uracil – a component of DNA
(b) A-triglyceride – major source of energy
(c) A-lecithin – a component of cell membrane
(d) B-adenine – a nucleotide that makes up nucleic
11. Which is substitution of mitochondria in E. colt?
(a) Golgi body
(b) Mesosome
(c) Ribosome
(d) Glyoxysomes
12. Animal cell differ from plant cell in possessing
(a) vacuoles
(b) centrosomes
(c) pastids
(d) mitochondria
13. Which of the following organelles does not contain RNA?
(a) Plasmalemma
(b) Ribosome
(c) Chromosome
(d) Nucleolus
14. Dutrochet has given the concept about cell in
(a) 1834
(b) 1814
(c) 1822
(d) 1824
15. The scientific name of gharial is
(a) Naja bun garus
(b) Gay/ails gangeticus
(c) Hemidactylusflavivridis
(d) None of the above
16. Which of the given option is correct regarding the statments?
Statement ICephalochordata bears notochord all along the body throughout life.
Statements IIUrochordate bears vertebral column only in tail region throughout the life.
(a) I wrong, II correct
(b) I correct, II wrong
(c) Both I and II are wrong
(d) Both are correct
17. In which of the following haemocyanin pigment is found?
(a) Lower invertebrates
(b) Echinodermata
(c) Insecta
(d) Annelida
18. Which of the following cells in earthworm play a role similar to liver in vertebrates?
(a) Amoebocytes
(b) Mucocytes
(c) Chloragogen cells
(d) Epidermal cells
19. Match the following and select the correct option.
List I List II
A. Cyclostomes 1. Hemichordata
B. Ayes 2. Urochordata
C. Tunicates 3. Agantha
D. Balanoglossus 4. Pisces
E. Osteichthyes 5. Tetrapod
codes
A B C D E
(a) 3 5 2 1 4
(b) 3 1 5 2 4
(c ) 1 2 3 4 5
(d) 2 3 4 1 5
20. Chondrichthyes is characterised by
(a) placoid scale
(b) placoid scale and ventral mouth
(c) ventral mouth
(d) ctenoid scale and ventral mouth
21. Ichthyology is study of
(a) aves
(b) amphibians
(c) reptiles
(d) fishes
22. What will happen if ligaments are torn?
(a) Bone will become unfixed
(b) Bone will become fixed
(c) Bone less movable at joint and pain
(d) Bone will move freely at joint and no pain
23. Achondroplasia is a disease related with the defect in the formation of
(a) membrane
(b) mucosa
(c) bone
(d) cartilage
24. Yellow bone marrow is found specially in the medullary cavity
(a) long bones
(b) spongy bones
(c) short bones
(d) All of the above
25. Match the items of column I with column II and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
A. Neuron 1. Ossein
B. Bone-matrix 2. Nissl’s bodies
C. RBCs of man 3. Antibodies
D. Lymphocytes 4. Non-nucleated

A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 3 4 1
26. Space in the jaw bone unoccupied by teeth is called
(a) dentine
(b) diastema
(c) enamel
(d) crown
27. Identify the correct set, which shows the name of the enzyme from where it is secreted and substrate upon which it acts.
(a) Ptyalin – Intestine – Maltose
(b)Ptyalin – Pancreas – Lipid
(c) Pepsin – Stomach wall – Caesin
(d) Chymotrypsin – Salivary gland – Lactose
28. Endemic goitre is a state of
(a) normal thyroid function
(b) moderate thyroid function
(c) increased thyroid function
(d) decreased thyroid function
29. Hormone responsible for the secretion of milk after parturition is
(a) ACTH
(b) LH
(c) ICSH
(d) Prolactin
30. What is another name for the wind pipe?
(a) Trachea
(b) Larynx
(c) Oesophagus
(d) Lungs
31. Soil salinity is measured by
(a) Porometer
(b) Calorimeter
(c) Conductivity meter
(d) Potometer
32. Predation and parasitism are which type of interactions.
(a) (+, +)
(b) (+, 0 )
(c) ( -)
(d) (+, -)
33. The ultimate source of energy for living being is
(a) sunlight
(b) ATP
(c) fats
(d) carbohydrates
34. Which of the following species are restricted to an area?
(a) Sympatric species
(b) Sibling species
(c) Allopatric species
(d) Endemic species
35. Select the incorrect statement.
(a) Stellar’s sea cow and passenger pigeon got extinct due to over exploitation by men
(b) The mitotic convention on biological diversity was held in 1992
(c) Species diversity increase as we move away from the equator towards the poles
(d) Lantana and Eichhomia are invasive weed species in India
36. The effect of cigarette smoking and radon in combination on lungs is
(a) fatal
(b) synergistic
(c) mutualistic
(d) antagonistic
37. The thermostable enzymes, Taq and Pfu, isolated from thermophilic bacteria are
(a) RNA polymerases
(b) DNA ligases
(c) DNA polymerases
(d) restriction endonucleases
38. Biolistic technique is used in
(a) gene transfer process
(b) tissue culture process
(c) hybridisation process
(d) germplasm conservation process
39. The largest gene in man is
(a) insulin gene
(b) tumour suppressor gene
(c) beta globin gene of haemoglobin
(d) dystrophin
40. Herbicide resistant gene in plant is
(a) Mt
(b) Gt
(c) Ct
(d) Bt
Botany
1. In photosynthesis carbon dioxide is converted to carbohydrates. It is a process.
(a) reductive
(b) oxidative
(c) catabolic and exergonic
(d) None of the above
2. Which of the following is not an auxin?
(a) IM
(b) IBA
(c) Zeatin
(d) NM
3. Which of the following properties is shown by cytokinins?
(a) Delay leaf senescence
(b) Cause leaf abscission
(c) Promote seed dormancy
(d) Promote stornatal closing
4. Which of the following characteristics is are exhibited by C4 -plants?
I. Kranz anatomy.
II. The first product of photosynthesis is oxaloacetic acid.
III. Both PEP carboxylates and ribulosebiphosphate carboxylate act as carboxylating enzymes.
The correct option is
(a) I and III, but not ll
(b) I and II, but not III
(c) II and III, but not I
(d) ll and III
5. Which of the following plant keeps its stomata open during night and closed during the day?
(a) Orchid
(b) Cactus
(c) Tea
(d) Wheat
6. Genetic dwarfism can be overcome by
(a) gibberellin
(b) ethylene
(c) auxin
(d) ABA
7. Hormone inducing fruit ripening is
(a) cytokinin
(b) ethylene
(c) abscissic acid
(d) gibberellic acid
8. The year 1900 AD is highly significant for geneticists due to
(a) discovery of genes
(b) principle of linkage
(c) chromosome theory of heredity
(d) rediscovery of Mendelism
9. F1-generation means
(a) first filial generation
(b) first seed generation
(c) first flowering generation
(d) first fertile generation
10. Skin colour is controlled by
(a) single gene
(b) 3 pairs of genes
(c) 2 pairs of genes
(d) 2 pairs of genes with an intragene
11. Which of the following cross will produce terminal flower in garden pea?
(a) AA x Aa
(b) AA x aa
(c) Aa x Aa
(d) Aa x AA
12. Which one of the following pairs of plants are not seed producers?
(a) Funaria and Ficus
(b) Fern and Funaria
(c) Funada and Pinus
(d) Ficus and Chlamydomonas
13. Which one of the following is heterosporous?
(a) Equisetum
(b) Dryopteris
(c) Salvinia
(d) Adianturn
14. Gyms revoluta is popularly known as
(a) sago palm
(b) royal palm
(c) date palm
(d) sea palm
15. Match the following with correct combination.
Column I Column II
A. Cuscuta 1. Saprophyte
B. Eichhornia 2. Pneumatophare
C. Monotropa 3. Insectivorous plant
D. Rhizophora 4. Parasite
E. Utricularia 5. Root pocket
Codes
A B C D E
(a) 3 1 5 4 2
(b) 2 3 1 5 4
(c) 4 3 1 5 2
(d) 4 5 1 2 3
16. Bacterial endotoxin is
(a) a toxic protein that stays inside the bacterial cell
(b) a toxic protein that is excreted into the medium
(c) lipopolysaccharide located on the surface of the bacteria
(d) None of the above
17. Endosperm of gymnosperms is
(a) haploid
(b) tetraploid
(c) diploid
(d) None of these
18. First vascular plant is
(a) thallophyta
(b) pteridophyta
(c) bryophyta
(d) spermatophyta
19. Diatomaceous earth is obtained from
(a) Bacillarophyceae
(b) Xanthophyceae
(c) Rhodophyceae
(d) Chrysophyceae
20. Which of the following is an epidermal cell containing chloroplast?
(a) Stomata
(b) Hydathode
(c) Guard cell
(d) None of these
21. The structures present in the roots to absorb water and minerals is
(a) epidermal extensions
(b) hypodermis
(c) endodermis
(d) epidermal appendages
22. Lady finger belongs to family
(a) Malvaceae
(b) Cucurbitaceae
(c) Brassicaceae
(d) Liliaceae
23. The interxylary phloem is found in the stem of
(a) Cucurbita
(b) Salvia
(c) Calotropis
(d) None of these
24. Wound healing is due to
(a) ventral meristem
(b) secondary meristem
(c) primary meristem
(d) All of these
25. Angular collenchyma occurs in
(a) Salvia
(b) Helianthus
(c) Althaea
(d) Cucurbita
26. In pteridophytes, phloem is without
(a) bast fibers
(b) sieve tubes
(c) companion cells
(d) sieve cells
27. Match the following entities of column I with their respective orders of column II and choose the correct combination form the option.
Column I Column II
A. Wheat 1. Primate
B. Mango 2. Diptera
C. Housefly 3. Sapindales
D. Man 4. Poales
codes
A B C D
4 3 2 1
1 2 4 3
3 4 2 1
2 4 1 3
28. Agar-agar is produced by
(a) fungi
(b) algae
(c) bacteria
(d) blue-green algae
29. In DNA, when AGCT occurs, their association is as per which of the following pair
(a) A-G, C-T
(b) A-T, G-C
(c) A-C, G-T, A-C, E-T
(d) All of these
30. A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of nucleotides present in the segment is
(a) 60
(b) 240
(c) 120
(d) 480
31. Lactose is composed of
(a) glucose + glucose
(b) glucose + galactose
(c) glucose + fructose
(d) fructose + galactose
32. Meiosis is best observed in dividing
(a) cell of lateral meristem
(b) cells of apical meristem
(c) microsporocytes
(d) microspores and anther wall
33. Study the following statements and select the correct option.
I. Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen grains.
II. Hilum represents the junction between ovule and funicle.
III. In aquatic plants such as water hyacinth and water lily, pollination is by water.
IV. The primary endosperm nucleus is triploid.
(a) I, II, and IV are correct, but III is incorrect
(b) I and II are correct, but III and IV are incorrect
(c) I and IV are correct, but II and III are incorrect
(d) I, Ill and IV are correct, but I is incorrect
34. Masses of pollen grains, i.e. ,pollinia is found in
(a) Gramineae
(b) Solanaceae
(c) Orchidaceae
(d) Malvaceae
35. Morphine, which is used as an analgesic is obtained from
(a) Taxusbrevifolia
(b) Berberisnilghiriensis
(c) Cinchona officinalis
(d) Pa paver somniferum
36. Pebrine is a disease of
(a) fish
(b) honey bee
(c) silk worm
(d) lac insect
37. Factor govering the earth surface is
(a) topographic
(b) edaphic
(c) temperature
(d) bitic
38. The direction of energy flow is
(a) Producers → Herbivores → Decomposers → Omnivores
(b) Producers → Carnivore → Herbivores → Decomposes
(c) Decomposers → Carnivores → Herbivores → Producers
(d) Producers → Herbivores → Carnivores → Decomposers
39. If the Bengal tiger become extinct
(a) hyenas and wolves will become scarce
(b) its gene pool will be lost forever
(c) the wild areas will be safe far man and domestic
(d) the population of beautiful animals like deers will get stabilised
40. Biological treatment of water pollution is done with the help of
(a) fungi
(b) lichen
(c) phytoplanktons
(d) None of the above
English
Directions (Q Nos. 1-5) In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested for each questions. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
1. The little girl for the light switch in the dark.
(a) groped
(b) grappled
(c) gripped
(d) grovelled
2. The summit meeting provided him the much shot in the arm.
(a) required
(b) desired
(c) needed
(d) urgent
3. We must the tickets for the movie in advance.
(a) draw iF
(b) buy
(c) remove
(d) take
4. The State Transport Corporation has a loss of &8377; 5 crore this year.
(a) obtained
(b) derived
(c) incurred
(d) formulated
5. One and you know who among them is the culprit.
(a) look
(b) peep
(c) sight
(d) gaze
Directions (Q Nos. 6-10) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
6.GAINSAY
(a) Advantage
(b) Proposal
(c) Contradict
(d) Suggestion
7. PROFOUND
(a) Profuse
(b) Boundless
(c) Deep
(d) Fathomless
8.FLAK
(a) Adventure
(b) Advice
(c) Criticism
(d) Praise
9. HOODLUM
(a) Pioneer
(b) Criminal
(c) Devotee
(d) Scholar
10. SPASMODIC
(a) Continuous
(b) Gradual
(c) Intermittent
(d) Spontaneous
Directions (Q Nos. 11-15) In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
11. FILTHY
(a) Stainless
(b) Shining
(c) Sterilised
(d) Clean
12. CROWDED
(a) Deserted
(b) Lonely
(c) Empty
(d) Barren
13. VAGUE
(a) Known
(b) Published
(c) Popular
(d) Definite
14. SUPERVISE
(a) Overlook
(b) Misdirect
(c) Neglect
(d) Forget
15. MAGNANIMOUS
(a) Selfish
(b) Naive
(c) Generous
(d) Small
Directions (Q Nos. 16-20) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase printed in bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
16. We have to keep our fingers crossed till the final result is declared.
(a) keep praying
(b) feel suspicious
(c) wait expectantly
(d) feel scared
17. The members of the group were at odds over the selection procedure.
(a) acting foolishly
(b) in dispute
(c) unanimous
(d) behaving childishly
18. The popularity of the yesteryears’ superstar is on the wane.
(a) growing more
(b) at its peak
(c) growing less
(d) at rock-bottom
19. His father advised him to be fair and square in his dealings lest he should fall into trouble.
(a) considerate
(b) upright
(c) careful
(d) polite
20. There is no love lost between the two neighbours.
(a) close friendship
(b) intense dislike
(c) a love-hate relationship
(d) cool indifference
Directions (Q Nos. 21-25) In the following questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b), (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).
21. Ravi has got many friends because he has got much money.
(a) Enough money
(b) A lot of money
(c) Bags of money
(d) No improvement
22. You must try making him to understand.
(a) Make him understand
(b) To making him understand
(c) To make him understand
(d) No improvement
23. He has cooked that meal so often he can do it with his eyes closed.
(a) Mind blank
(b) Eyes covered
(c) Hands full
(d) No improvement
24. Not a word they spoke to the unfortunate wife about it.
(a) They had spoken
(b) Did they speak
(c) They will speak
(d) No improvement
25. There is sufficient fund to meet the requirement of the entire schools in our zone.
(a) Schools
(b) All the schools
(c) All of the schools
(d) No improvement
Directions (Q Nos. 26-30) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence
26. Word for word reproduction.
(a) Copying
(b) Mugging
(c) Verbatim
(d) Photostat
27. A person who collects coins.
(a) Philatelist
(b) Numismatist
(c) Narcissist
(d) Fatalist
28. That which is perceptible by touch
(a) Tangible
(b)Tenacious
(c) Contagious
(d) Contingent
29. One who possesses many talents.
(a) Versatile
(b) Gifted
(c) Exceptional
(d) Nubile
30. A person who studies the formation of the Earth.
(a) Meteorologist
(b) Anthropologist
(c) Geologist
(d) Seismologist
Directions (Q Nos. 31-35) In the following questions, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts named P, (b Rand S. These parts are not given in their proper order. Rearrange these parts in their proper order and find out which of the given four combination is correct?
31. (1) In reply to a question
(P) that securing extradition
(Q) operating from the UK soil remained
(R) of anti-India elements
(S) the spokesman said
(6) New Delhi’s first priority.
(a) PROS
(b) OSPR
(c) ROSP
(d) SPRO
32. (1) The first component is
(P) and vocational training
(Q) so as to enable them
(R) the provision of further technical
(S) to both rural and urban youth
(6) to secure employment in industry and the services sector.
(a) PRSO
(b) RPSO
(c) RSOP
(d) SRPO
33. (1) The move to revert to a six-day week
(P) among the employees
(Q) while the leaders represented to the Chief Minister
(R) that they be taken into confidence
(T) led to an animated decision
(6) before any decision was taken.
(a) OPSR
(b) RSPO
(c) SPOR
(d) SOPR
34. (1) It was obvious
(P) made by him
(Q) submitted at the meeting
(R) from the comments
(T) on the draft proposals
(6) that he was not satisfied with them.
(a) PSRQ
(b) QRSP
(c) RPSO
(d) SORP
35. (1) The Minister of state for power
(P) laying emphasis
(Q) in conservation of electricity in industries
(R) has written to his counterparts in State
Government
(T) on bringing about improvement
(6) by introduction of energy efficient equipment.
(a) OPSR
(b) RPSO
(c) SPOR
(d) SOPR
Directions (Q Nos. 36-40) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
In this work of incessant and feverish activity, men have little time to think, much less to consider ideals and objectives. Yet how are we to act, even in the present, unless we know which way we are going and what our objectives are? It is only in the peaceful atmosphere of a university that these basic problems can be adequately considered.
It is only when the young men and women, who are in the university today and on whom the burden of life’s problems will fall tomorrow, learn to have clear objectives and standards of values that there is hope for the next generation. The past generation produced some great men but as a generation it led the world repeatedly to disaster. World Wars II nd are the price that has been paid for the lack of wisdom on man’s part in this generation.
I think that there is always a close and intimate relationship between the end we aim at and the means adopted to attain it.
Even, if the end is right, but the means are wrong, it will vitiate the end or divert us in a wrong direction. Means and ends are thus intimately and inextricably connected and cannot be separated.
That indeed has been the lesson of old taught us by many great men in the past, but unfortunately it seldom remembered.
36. People have little time to consider ideals and objectives because
(a) they consider these ideals meaningless
(b) they do not want to burden themselves with such ideas
(c) they have no inclination for such things
(d) they are excessively engaged in their routine activities
37. ‘The burden of life’s problems’ in the fourth sentence refers to
(a) the incessant and feverish activities
(b) the burden of family responsibilities
(c) the onerous duties of life
(d) the sorrows and sufferings
38. The World Wars lInd are the price that man
paid due to
(a) the absence of wisdom and sagacity
(b) his not caring to consider the life’s problems
(c) his ignoring the ideals and objectives of life
(d) his excessive involvement in feverish activities
39. According to the writer the adoption of wrong means even for the right end would
(a) not let us attain our goal
(b) bring us dishonour
(c) impede our progress
(d) deflect us from the right path
40. The word ‘vitiate’ used in the second paragraph means
(a) negate
(b) debase
(c) tarnish
(d) destroy

JIPMER MBBS 2013 Answer Key
Physics
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20.(c)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (c)

Chemistry
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20.(c)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (b)

Zoology
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20.(b)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (d)

Botany
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20.(c)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (c)

English
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20.(b)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (b)
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