IRMA GK study material

Give me question paper of IRMA GK?

[Shaleen]

As you are searching for IRMA GK question paper
So here we are providing you some sample questions of it in a Zip file attached with it

Written Test of IRMA :- second week of November (tentative).

Which of the following is the greatest source of
power production in India?
(1) Thermal power (2) Hydro Electric power
(3) Atomic power (4) Wind power
(5) Tidal power.

The venue of the world seed congress held on
June 9 2003, was _______
(1) Delhi (2) Hyderabad (3) Bangalore
(4) Chennai (5) Lucknow

Can you provide me previous year Institute of Rural Management Anand (IRMA) question paper as I want to prepare for the exam?

[Arun Vats]

Below I am providing you some questions of from question paper of Institute of Rural Management Anand (IRMA) and attaching a PDF attachment which has detail information regarding this that you can down load for free:

Test 1 – Analytical Reasoning
Q.1. Assuming that the statement ‘Every library has books’ is true, which of the following statements is definitely
true?
(1) Books are only in library (2) Some libraries do not have readers
(3) Libraries are meant for books only (4) No library is without books
(5) None of these is true.
Q.2. Every person above eighteen years of age who is registered as a voter, can vote. To find out whether
Madhu, who was born twenty years ago, can vote, which of the following further information is needed?
(I) Madhu’s date of birth
(II) Whether Madhu is registered as a voter
(1) Only I (2) Only II (3) Either I or II (4) Neither I nor II (5) Both I and II
Q.3 - 7. Below is given a passage followed by several inferences drawn from the facts stated in the passage.
Examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or
falsity.
Give answer (1) if you think the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts
given;
Give answer (2) if you think the inference is ‘probably true’ though not definitely true in the light of the facts
given;
Give answer (3) if you think the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the
inference is likely to be true or false;
Give answer (4) if you think the inference is ‘probably false’ though not definitely false in the light of the facts
given;
Give answer (5) if you think the inference is ‘definitely false’ i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts
given or it contradicts the given facts.
Now read the following passage and the inferences given below it and mark your answers on the
answersheet.
The caffeine in one’s morning coffee or tea may improve the complex reasoning ability of extroverts but has
the opposite effect on introverts. More than 700 people were given caffeine equal to no more than three
cups of coffee and then tested on word analogies, sentence completion and identification of antonyms. The
researchers believe that the caffeine was beneficial to the extroverts in the morning because they take
longer to wake up. Introverts are more alert in the morning and become over stimulated by the drug which
interferes with their reasoning power
Q.3. Extroverts do not find caffeine beneficial in the evening.
Q.4. Caffeine affects reasoning ability of people who drink tea or coffee.
Q.5. Caffeine has greater effect early in the morning.
Q.6. The adverse effect on the reasoning power of introverts is not due to Caffeine.
Q.7. Complex reasoning ability is made up of word analogies, sentence completion and identification of
antonyms.

Q.8-12. In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption
is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and both the assumptions
following it together and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer (1) if only assumption I is implicit;
Give answer (2) if only II is implicit;
Give answer (3) if either I or II is implicit;
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is implicit;
Give answer (5) if both I and II are implicit.

Q.8. Statement : Government has permitted unaided colleges to increase their fees.
Assumptions : I. Unaided colleges are in financial difficulties.
: II. Aided colleges do not need to increase fees.
Q.9. Statement : If you have the expertise, we have the job for you.
Assumptions : I. You have the expertise.
: II. We need a person with expertise.
Q.10. Statement : Buy Breezy — the fan with ten years’ guarantee.
Assumptions : I. People are attracted by longer period of guarantee.
: II. People want to buy fans.
Q.11. Statement : The economic condition continues to be critical even after a good harvest season.
Assumptions : I. The economic condition was not critical before the harvest season.
: II. The economic condition could not have improved without a good harvest season.
Q.12. Statement : Opening a dispensary in Golap is wasteful.
Assumptions : I. Inhabitants of Golap never need medical help.
: II. There is an adequate number of dispensaries in Golap already.
Kindly note that the sample questions given above are only illustrative and not exhaustive. In the actual examination
there may me some more types of questions.

Test 2 – English Comprehension
Q.13 -25 Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Power and possession have been central pursuits of modern civilization for a long time. They blocked out or
distorted other features of the Western Renaissance (revival) which promised so much for humanity. What
people have been and are still being taught to prize are money, success, control over the lives of others,
and acquisition of more and more objects. Modern social, political and economic systems, whether
capitalists, fascist or communist, reject in their working the basic principle that the free and creative
unfoldment of every man, woman and child is the true measure of the worth of any society. Such
unfoldment requires understanding and imagination, integrity and compassion, co-operation among people,
and harmony between the human species and the rest of nature. Acquisitiveness and the pursuit of power
have made the modern man an aggressor against everything that is non-human, an exploiter and
oppressor of those who are poor, meek and unorganized, a pathological type which hates and distrusts the
world and suffers from both acute loneliness and false pride.
The need for a new renaissance is deeply felt by those sensitive and conscientious men and women who
not only perceive the dimensions of the crisis of our age but who also realize that only through conscious
and co-operative human effort may this crisis be met and probably even overcome.
Q.13. According to the passage, why has modern man turned out to be an enemy of everything that is nonhuman?
(1) He has been dominated by drives of acquisitiveness and power
(2) He hates and distrusts other human beings
(3) He consciously practises spirit of cooperation
(4) Non-humans have refused cooperation to human beings
(5) None of these
Q.14. Which of the following is one of the requirements to bring out the best in man?
(1) Money (2) Success (3) Understanding (4) Power (5) Acquisitiveness
Q.15. The real attainment of any society can be adjudged by which of the following?
(1) The degree of freedom for pursuing more and more power
(2) The encouragement for acquisitive tendencies
(3) Strict adherence to authoritarian structure
(4) Total victimization of conscientious persons
(5) None of these

Q.16. The modern value systems encourages the importance of which one of the following?
(1) Spiritual development of all individuals (2) Recognition of freedom and equality
(3) Craving for power and possession (4) Spirit of inquiry and knowledge
(5) Basic respect for all individuals
Q.17. The author hopes that the present crisis can be solved by ——
(1) purposive and collective human efforts (2) devoted individual efforts
(3) powerful elite human beings (4) different political systems
(5) spiritually developed individuals
Q.18. The western renaissance could not make total impact on today’s humanity because ——
(1) it was conceptually weak
(2) it was against basic principle
(3) conscientious men opposed it
(4) old civilization was based on acquisitiveness and control over others
(5) none of these
Q.19. Which of the following best describes the behavior of the modern man?
(1) Conscientious and cooperative (2) Imaginative and sympathetic
(3) Seeker of truth and non-violence (4) Cruel and greedy
(5) Perceptive and creative
Q.20. Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word ‘rest’ as used in the passage?
(1) remaining (2) relax (3) everything (4) all (5) partial
Q.21. Which of the following is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word ‘central’ as used in the passage?
(1) major (2) insignificant (3) inadequate (4) peripheral (5) lateral
O.22. Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word ‘met’ as used in the passage?
(1) discovered (2) found (3) introduced (4) dealt with (5) satisfied
Q.23. Which of the following is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word ‘deeply’ as used in the passage?
(1) intensely (2) openly (3) widely (4) wrongly (5) superficially
Q.24. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage?
(1) There is a need for a new renaissance
(2) The modern man is not individualist
(3) Western renaissance had held so much promise for the mankind
(4) Power and possession go hand in hand
(5) Poor and weak people are oppressed by the modern man
Q.25. The author appears to be advocating which of the following approaches to be adopted by the society?
(1) Authoritarian (2) Humanistic (3) Communist (4) Religious (5) Capitalist
Q.26-34. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed
below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately.
Find out the appropriate words.
The true (26) of rights is duty. If we all (27) our duties, rights will not be (28) to seek. Leaving duties
unperformed we run (29) rights, they will (30) us like an elusive person. The more we pursue them, the
farther (31) they fly. The same (32) has been embodied by Krishna in the (33) words : ‘Action (34) is thine.
Leave thou the fruit severely alone. ‘Action is duty: fruit is the right.’

Q.26. (1) end (2) source (3) fruit (4) purpose (5) joy
Q.27. (1) deny (2) devote (3) discharge (4) imagine (5) get
Q.28. (1) far (2) close (3) easy (4) against (5) before
Q.29. (1) as (2) after (3) at (4) from (5) within
Q.30. (1) hold (2) grab (3) fight (4) escape (5) erode
Q.31. (1) should (2) can (3) did (4) could (5) Will
Q.32. (1) teaching (2) technique (3) authority (4) control (5) method
Q.33. (1) sequential (2) true (3) immortal (4) immediate (5) conflicting
Q.34. (1) occasionally (2) divine (3) promptly (4) desire (5) alone
Q.35-39. In each of the following questions one number is wrong in the series. Find out the wrong number in each
case
Q.35. 1 3 8 19 42 88 184
(1) 3 (2) 8 (3) 19 (4) 42 (5) 88
Q.36. 1 2 6 21 86 445 2676
(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 21 (4) 86 (5) 445
Q.37. 895 870 821 740 619 445 225
(1) 870 (2) 821 (3) 746 (4) 619 (5) 445
Q.38. 125 106 88 76 65 58 53
(1) 106 (2) 88 (3) 76 (4) 65 (5) 58
Q.39. 5 13 17 25 29 36 41
(1) 13 (2) 17 (3) 25 (4) 29 (5) 36
Q.40. If 3 workers collect 48 kg. Cotton in 4 days, how many kg. Cotton will 9 workers collect m 2 days?
(1) 216 (2) 32 (3) 108 (4) 72 (5) None of these
Q.41. One third of Gauri’s marks in History equal her marks in Geography. If she obtained 160 marks in the two
subjects together, how many marks did she get in Geography?
(1) 60 (2) 40 (3) 30 (4) 90 (5) None of these
Q.42. By how much is two-thirds of 36 lesser than three-fourths of 104?
(1) 24 (2) 80 (3) 68 (4) 54 (5) None of these
Q.43. A 80 meters long, passenger tram, traveling at a speed of 80 km/hour crosses another train, 120 meters
long, traveling in the same direction in 24 seconds. What is the speed of the second train?
(1) 110 km/hour (2) 50 km/hour (3) 60 km/hour (4) 120 km/hour (5) None of these
Kindly note that the sample questions given above are only illustrative and not exhaustive. In the actual examination
there may me some more types of questions.

Test 3 – Quantitative Aptitude
Q.44. Sohanlal purchased 120 reams of paper at Rs.100 per ream. The expenditure on transport was Rs.480/. He
had to pay an octroi duty of 50 paise per ream and the coolie charges were Rs.60/-. What should be the
selling price of each ream if he wants a profit of 20%?
(1) Rs.126 (2) Rs.115.50 (3) Rs. 105 (4) Rs.120 (5) None of these
The questions given above are only illustrative and not exhaustive. Besides the above there will be
questions based on graphs and tables.

Test 4 - Issues of Social Concern
Q.45. The Prime Minister of India recently launched a National Action Plan on climate change. The plan contains
eight national missions by which India will be able to combat climate change. Which of the following is not
one of them? National Mission on ____
(1) Solar Energy (2) Conserving water (3) Nuclear free world
(4) Sustaining Himalayan Eco system (5) Sustainable agriculture
Q.46. The World Environment Day is celebrated every year on which of the following days?
th th th th th (1) 5 August (2) 5 July (3) 5 June (4) 15 June (5) 15 July
Q.47. Which of the following will help poors in a country to come out of their poverty?
(A) If they get good Health Services
(B) If they have freedom from illiteracy
(C) If the nation attains optimum Sex Ratio
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Both (A) & (B) (4) Only (C) (5) All (A), (B) & (C)
Q.48. The agricultural activities in which of the following states are NO MORE dependent on rains only?
(1) Punjab (2) Uttar Pradesh (3) Orisssa (4) Bihar (5) Jharkhand
Q.49. Which of the following is certainly a part of the measures for “Financial Inclusion”?
(1) Introduction of no Frill Accounts by the Banks
(2) Special Economic Zones
(3) National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
(4) Look East Policy
(5) None of these
Q.50. Small Loans provided by the banks to very poor families most often without any collateral is popularly
known as _____
(1) personal finance (2) project finance (3) micro finance
(4) macro finance (5) None of these
Q.51. How can the productivity of land be increased?
(A) By use of chemical inputs
(B) By rainwater harvesting
(C) By facilitating surface irrigation
(1) Only (A) (2) Both (A) & (B) (3) All (A), (B) & (C) (4) Only (C) (5) none of these