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19th August 2014, 09:28 AM
HAL Management Trainee Computer Science Engineering Engineering Syllabus

Will you please provide the Computer Science Engineering Syllabus for HAL Management Trainee exam ?
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19th August 2014, 10:06 AM
Super Moderator
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: HAL Management Trainee Computer Science Engineering Engineering Syllabus

Here I am providing you the syllabus for computer science engineering in Management trainee examination of HAL which you are looking for .

Exam pattern :
Part Paper Subject No. of Questions
I English & Reasoning Part 40
II General Awareness Part 20
III Specialization Subject 100
Total 160

Syllabus :

Computer Networks (Different Types of Layers & their working)
Information Security(Authentication, Confidentiality, Integrity etc)
E-commerce & E-business (Business Model, Advertising models, SCM, CRM, ERP)
Computer Graphics

Database Management System(Deadlock management, Firing query, )
Data File Structure(Stack, Queue, Link list, Tree, Graph & their working)
Operating System (Thread operation, Memory Management, Deadlock problem, security)
Languages- C/C++, Java, Pl/SQl, .NET
Digital Logical Design(Different Types of gates AND, OR, NAND, OR & their operations, Type conversion from decimal to binary, hexadecimal etc)

General Awareness:
It encompasses all international, national, and regional current affairs on social education, health, inflation, poverty, and other related topics. It covers 20 multiple choice questions in exam.

Engineering: It covers Engineering mechanics, materials, measurements, thermodynamics, photons and electrons, circuits, transformers, induction and synchronous motors, AC/ DC machines, and computer engineering.

English and reasoning: General English knowledge like antonyms, synonyms, sentence improvement & arrangement, spelling errors, analogy, idioms, one word substitution, and word selection. Paper of reasoning consists of very basic questions.

HAL MT Computer Science Question Paper

6. A graph with ”n” vertices and n-1 edges that is not a tree, is
a) Connected
b) Disconnected
c) Euler
d) A circuit
7. If a graph requires k different colours for its proper colouring,
then the chromatic number of the graph is
a) 1
b) k
c) k-1
d) k/2
8. A read bit can be read
a) and written by CPU
b) and written by peripheral
c) by pheripheral and written by CPU
d) by CPU and written by the peripheral
10. The term “aging” refers to
a) booting up the priority of a process in multi-level of queue without feedback.
b) gradually increasing the priority of jobs that wait in the system for a long time
to remedy infinite blocking.
c) keeping track of the following a page has been in memory for the purpose of
LRU replacement
d) letting job reside in memory for a certain amount of time so that the number of
pages required can be estimated accurately.
11. Consider a set of n tasks with known runtimes r1, r2 ....... r to be run on a
unlprocessor machine. Which of the following processor scheduling algorithms
will result in the maximum throughput?
a) Round Robin
b) Shortest job first
c) Highest response ratio next
d) first cum first served
14. The principal of locality of reference justifies the use of
a) virtual memory
b) interrupts
c) main memory
d) cache memory
15. What is the value of I at the end of the pseudocode?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
16. The five items: A, B, C, D, and E are pushed in a stack, one after the other
starting from A. The stack is popped four times and each element Is inserted in a
queue. Then two elements are deleted from the queue and pushed back on the
stack. Now one item is popped from the stack. The popped item is
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
17. Round Robin scheduling is essentially the pre-emptive version of
b) Shortest Job First
c) shortest remaining time
d) Longest remaining time
18. The number of digit I present in the binary representation of
3 x 512 +7 x 64 + 5 x 8 +3 is
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 1O
(d) 12
19. Assume that each character code consists of 8 bits. The number of
characters that can be transmitted per second through an synchronous serial
line at 2400 baud rate, and with two stop bits is
(c) 218
20. If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 kHz and the lowest frequency is 52 kHz,
what is the highest frequency?
(a) 5 kHz
(b) 10 kHz
(C) 47 kHz
(d) 57 kHz
21. An Ethernet hub
(a) functions as a repeater
(b) connects to a digital PBX
(c) connects to a token-ring network
(d) functions as a gateway
22. Phase transition for each bit are used in
(a) Amplitude modulation
(b) Carrier modulation
(C) Manchester encoding
(d) NRZ encoding
23. Which of the following is printed as a result of the call demo (1234)?
a) 1441
b) 3443
C) 12344321
d) 43211234
24. Bit stuffing refers to
(a) inserting a ‘0’ in user stream to differentiate it with a flag
(b) inserting a ‘0’ in flag stream to avoid ambiguity
(C) appending a nibble to the flag sequence
(d ) appending a nibble to the use data stream
25. What is the name of the technique in which the operating system of a
computer executes several programs concurrently by switching back and forth
between them?
(a) Partitioning
(b) Multi tasking
(C) Windowing
(d) Paging
26. If there are five routers and six networks in an intranet using link state
routing, how many routing tables are there?
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 11
27. Virtual memory is
a) Part of Main Memory only used for swapping
b) A technique to allow a program, of size more than the size of the main
memory, town
C) Part of secondary storage used in program execution
d) None of these
28. The level of aggregation of information required for operational control is
(a) Detailed
(b) Aggregate
(C) Qualitative
(d) None of the above
30. 0.75 in decimal system is equivalent to _______ in octal system
a) 0.60
b) 0.52
C) 0.54
d) 0.50
31. In an SR latch made by cross coupling two NAND gates, if both S and R inputs
are set to 0, then it will result in
a) Q= 0, QO = 1
b) Q= 1,Q0 = 0
c) Q= 1,Q0 = 1
d) Indeterminate states
33. Company X shipped 5 computer chips, I of which was defective, and
Company Y shipped 4 computer chips, 2 of which were defective. One computer
chip is to be chosen uniformly at random from the 9 chips shipped by the
companies. If the chosen chip is found to be defective, what is the probability
that the chip came from Company Y?
a) 2/9
b) 4/9
c) 2/3
d) 1/2
34. Ring counter is analogous to
(a) Toggle Switch
(b) Latch
(C) Stepping Switch
(d) S-R flip flop
35. The output 0 and I level for TTL Logic family is approximately
a) 0.1 and5 V
b) 0.6 and 3.5 V
C) 0.9 and 1.75 V
d) —i.75 and O.9 V
37. In comparison with static RAM memory, the dynamic RAM memory has
a) lower bit density and higher power consumption
b) higher bit density and higher power consumption
C) lower bit density and lower power consumption
d) higher bit density and lower power consumption.
38 The Hexadecimal equivalent of 01111100110111100011 is
(a) CD73E
(b) ABD3F
(c) 7CDE3
(d) FA4CD
39. Disk requests are received by a disk drive for cylinder 5, 25, 18, 3, 39, 8 and
35 in that order. A seek takes 5 msec per cylinder moved. How much seek time
is needed to serve these requests for a Shortest Seek First (SSF) algorithm?
Assume that the arm is at cylinder ?,0 when the last of these requests is made
with none of the requests yet served
a) 125 msec
b) 295 msec
c) 575 msec
d) 750 msec
40. Consider a system having ‘m’ resources of the same type. The resources are
shared by 3 processes A,B,C which have peak time demands of 3,4,6
respectively. The minimum value of ‘m’ that ensures that deadlock will never
occur is
(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 13
(d) 14
41. A task in a blocked state
a) is executable
b) is running
C) must still be placed in the run queues
d) Is waiting for some temporarily unavailable resources.
42. Semaphores
a) synchronize critical resources to prevent deadlock
b) synchronize critical resources to prevent contention
C) are used to do I/O
d) are used for memory management.
43. On a system using non-preemptive scheduling, processes with expected run
times of 5, 18, 9 and 12 are in the ready queue. In what order should they be
run to minimize wait time?
(a) 5, 12, 9, 18
(b) 5, 9, 12,18
(C )12,18, 9, 5
(d) 9, 12, 18, 5
44. The number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by
a) the instruction set architecture
b) page size
c) number of processes in memory
d) physical memory size
46 Consider a small 2-way set-associative cache memory, consisting of four
blocks. For choosing the block to be replaced, use the least recently (LRU)
scheme. The number of cache misses for the following sequence of block
addresses is 8,12,0,12,8
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
47. Which commands are used to control access over objects in relational
d) None of these
48. Which of the following is aggregate function in SQL?
a) Avg
b) Select
c) Ordered by
d) distinct
49. One approach to handling fuzzy logic data might be to design a computer
using ternary (base..3) logic so that data could be stored as “true,” “false,” and
“unknown.” if each ternary logic element is called a flit, how many flits are
required to represent at least 256 different values?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
50. A view of a database that appears to an application program is known as
a) Schema
b) Subschema
c) Virtual table
d) None of these
51 Armstrong’s inference rule doesn’t determine
a) Reflexivity
b) Augmentation
C) Transitivity
d) Mutual dependency
52. Which operation is used to extract specified columns from a table?
a) Project
b) Join
C) Extract
d) Substitute
53. In the Big- Endian system, the computer stores
a) MSB of data in the lowest memory address of data unit
b) LSB of data in the lowest memory address of data unit
C) MSB of data in the highest memory address of data unit
d) LSB of data in the highest memory address of data unit
54. BCNF is not used for cases where a relation has
a) Two (or more) candidate keys
b) Two candidate keys and composite
c) The candidate key overlap
d) Two mutually exclusive foreign keys
55. Selection sort algorithm design technique Is an example of
a) Greedy method
b) Divide-and-conquer
C) Dynamic Programming
d) Backtracking
56. Which of the following RAID level provides the highest Data Transfer Rate
(Read / Write)
a) RAID 1
b) RAID 3
d) RAID 5
57. Which of the following programming language(s) provides garbage
collection automatically
a) Lisp
b) C++
c) Fortran
d) C
60. Which of the following is correct with respect to Two phase commit
(a) Ensures serializability
(b) Prevents Deadlock
(C) Detects Deadlock
(d) Recover from Deadlock
61 The Fibonacci sequence is the sequence of integers
a) 1,3,5,7,9,11,13
b) 0,1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21,54
c) 0, 1, 3, 4, 7, 11, 18, 29, 47
d) 0,1,3,7,15
62 Let X be the adjacency matrix of a graph G with no self loops. The entries
along the principal diagonal of X are
(a) all zeros
(b) all ones
(C) both zeros and ones
(d) different
63 Which of these is not a feature of WAP 2.0
(a) Push & Pull Model
(b) Interface to a storage device
(c) Multimedia messaging
(d) Hashing
64 Feedback queues
(a) are very simple to implement
(b) dispatch tasks according to execution characteristics
(C) are used to favour real time tasks
(d) require manual intervention to implement properly
65 Which of the following is not a UML DIAGRAM?
(a) Use Case
(b) Class Diagram
(c) Analysis Diagram
(d) Swimlane Diagram
66 Silly Window Syndrome is related to
(a) Error during transmission
(b) File transfer protocol
(c) Degrade in TCP performance
(d) Interlace problem
67 To execute all loops at their boundaries and within their operational bounds
an example of
(a) Black Box Testing
(b) Alpha Testing
(c) Recovery Testing
(d) White Box Testing
68 SSL is not responsible for
(a) Mutual authentication of client & server
(b) Secret communication
(C) Data Integrity protection
(d) Error detection & correction
69 A rule in a limited entry decision table is a
(a) row of the table consisting of condition entries
(b) row of the table consisting of action entries
(C) column of the table consisting of condition entries and the corresponding
action entries
(d) columns of the table consisting of conditions of the stub
70 The standard for certificates used on internet is
a) X.25
b) X.301
c) X.409
d) X.509
71 Hashed message is signed by a sender using
a) his public key
b) his private key
C) receivers public key
d) receivers private key
72 An email contains a textual birthday greeting, a picture of a cake, and a song.
The order is not important. What is the content-type?
a) Multipart / mixed
b) Multipart / parallel
c) Multipart / digest
d) Multipart / alternative
73 Range of IP Address from to are
a) Reserved for Loopback
b) Reserved for broadcast
C) Used for muticast packets
d) Reserved for future addressing
74 IEEE 802.11 is standard for
a) Ethernet
b) Bluetooth
C) Broadband Wireless
d) Wireless LANs
75 When a host on network A sends a message to a host on network B, which
address does the router look at?
a) Port
b) IP
C) Physical
d) Subnet mask
76 Which of the following is not an approach to Software Process Assessment?
a) SPICE (ISO/IECI 5504)
b) Standard CMMI Assessment Method for process improvement
C) ISO 9001 : 2000
d) IEEE 2000:2001
77 A physical DFD specifies
a) what processes will be used
b) who generates data and who processes it
c) what each person in an organization does
d) which data will be generated
78 In UML diagram of a class
a) state of object cannot be represented
b) state is irrelevant
c) state is represented as an attribute
d) state is represented as a result of an operation
79 Which of the following models is used for software reliability?
a) Waterfall
b) Musa
d) Rayleigh
80 Djikstra’s algorithm is used to
a) Create LSAs
b) Flood an internet with information
C) Calculate the routing tables
d) Create a link state database
18th March 2015, 07:41 AM
Re: HAL Management Trainee Computer Science Engineering Engineering Syllabus

I want to get HAL Management Trainee Computer Science Engineering Syllabus so will you please provide me that ?
18th March 2015, 08:14 AM
Super Moderator
Join Date: Mar 2013
Re: HAL Management Trainee Computer Science Engineering Engineering Syllabus

As you want to get HAL Management Trainee Computer Science Engineering Syllabus so here I am giving you same:

Engineering Mathematics
Mathematical Logic: Propositional Logic; First Order Logic.
Probability: Conditional Probability; Mean, Median, Mode and Standard Deviation; Random Variables; Distributions; uniform, normal, exponential, Poisson, Binomial.

Set Theory & Algebra: Sets; Relations; Functions; Groups; Partial Orders; Lattice; Boolean Algebra.

Combinatorics: Permutations; Combinations; Counting; Summation; generating functions; recurrence relations; asymptotics.

Graph Theory: Connectivity; spanning trees; Cut vertices & edges; covering; matching; independent sets; Colouring; Planarity; Isomorphism.

Linear Algebra: Algebra of matrices, determinants, systems of linear equations, Eigen values and Eigen vectors.

Numerical Methods: LU decomposition for systems of linear equations; numerical solutions of non-linear algebraic equations by Secant, Bisection and Newton-Raphson Methods; Numerical integration by trapezoidal and Simpson's rules.

Calculus: Limit, Continuity & differentiability, Mean value Theorems, Theorems of integral calculus, evaluation of definite & improper integrals, Partial derivatives, Total derivatives, maxima & minima.

Verbal Ability: English grammar, sentence completion, verbal analogies, word groups, instructions, critical reasoning and verbal deduction.

Computer Science and Information Technology

Digital Logic: Logic functions, Minimization, Design and synthesis of combinational and sequential circuits; Number representation and computer arithmetic (fixed and floating point).

Computer Organization and Architecture: Machine instructions and addressing modes, ALU and data-path, CPU control design, Memory interface, I/O interface (Interrupt and DMA mode), Instruction pipelining, Cache and main memory, Secondary storage.

Programming and Data Structures: Programming in C; Functions, Recursion, Parameter passing, Scope, Binding; Abstract data types, Arrays, Stacks, Queues, Linked Lists, Trees, Binary search trees, Binary heaps.

Algorithms: Analysis, Asymptotic notation, Notions of space and time complexity, Worst and average case analysis; Design: Greedy approach, Dynamic programming, Divide-and-conquer; Tree and graph traversals, Connected components, Spanning trees, Shortest paths; Hashing, Sorting, Searching. Asymptotic analysis (best, worst, average cases) of time and space, upper and lower bounds, Basic concepts of complexity classes P, NP, NP-hard, NP-complete.

Theory of Computation: Regular languages and finite automata, Context free languages and Push-down automata, Recursively enumerable sets and Turing machines, Undecidability.

Compiler Design: Lexical analysis, Parsing, Syntax directed translation, Runtime environments, Intermediate and target code generation, Basics of code optimization.

Operating System: Processes, Threads, Inter-process communication, Concurrency, Synchronization, Deadlock, CPU scheduling, Memory management and virtual memory, File systems, I/O systems, Protection and security.

Databases: ER-model, Relational model (relational algebra, tuple calculus), Database design (integrity constraints, normal forms), Query languages (SQL), File structures (sequential files, indexing, B and B+ trees), Transactions and concurrency control.

Information Systems and Software Engineering: information gathering, requirement and feasibility analysis, data flow diagrams, process specifications, input/output design, process life cycle, planning and managing the project, design, coding, testing, implementation, maintenance.

Computer Networks: ISO/OSI stack, LAN technologies (Ethernet, Token ring), Flow and error control techniques, Routing algorithms, Congestion control, TCP/UDP and sockets, IP(v4), Application layer protocols (icmp, dns, smtp, pop, ftp, http); Basic concepts of hubs, switches, gateways, and routers. Network security basic concepts of public key and private key cryptography, digital signature, firewalls.

Web technologies: HTML, XML, basic concepts of client-server computing.

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