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GRE exam question paper
1. Because the monkeys under study are ---- the
presence of human beings, they typically ----
human observers and go about their business
(A) ambivalent about .. welcome
(B) habituated to .. disregard
(C) pleased with .. snub
(D) inhibited by .. seek
(E) unaware of .. avoid
2. Give he previously expressed interest and the
ambitious tone of her recent speeches, the senator's
attempt to convince the public that she is not inter- ested in running for a second term is ----.
(A) laudable
(B) likely
(C) authentic
(D) futile
(E) sincere
3. Many of her followers remain ---- to her, and
even those who have rejected her leadership are
unconvinced of the ---- of replacing her during
the current turmoil.
(A) opposed.. urgency
(B) friendly.. harm
(C) loyal.. wisdom
(D) cool.. usefulness
(E) sympathetic.. disadvantage
4. Unlike many recent interpretations of Beethoven's
piano sonatas, the recitalist's performance was a
delightfully free and introspective one; nevertheless,
it was also, seemingly paradoxically, quite ----.
(A) appealing
(B) exuberant
(C) idiosyncratic
(D) unskilled
(E) controlled
5. Species with relatively ---- metabolic rates, including
hibernators, generally live longer than those whose
metabolic rates are more rapid.
(A) prolific
(B) sedentary
(C) sluggish
(D) measured
(E) restive
6. Belying his earlier reputation for ---- as a negotiator,
Morgan had recently assumed a more ---- stance
for which many of his erstwhile critics praised him.
(A) intransigence.. conciliatory
(B) impropriety.. intolerant
(C) inflexibility.. unreasonable
(D) success.. authoritative
(E) incompetence.. combative
7. Although Irish literature continued to flourish after
the sixteenth century, a ---- tradition is ----
in the visual arts: we think about Irish culture in terms of
the word, not in terms of pictorial images.
(A) rich.. superfluous
(B) lively.. found
(C) comparable.. absent
(D) forgotten.. apparent
(E) lost.. extant
8. SILVER: TARNISH::
(A) gold: burnish
(B) steel: forge
(C) iron: rust
(D) lead: cast
(E) tin: shear
9. DISLIKE: LOATHING::
(A) appreciation: gratification
(B) hunger: appetite
(C) void: dearth
(D) pleasure: bliss
(E) pain: ache
10. CRAVEN: HEROIC::
(A) unruly: energetic
(B) listless: attractive
(C) volatile: constant
(D) deft: trifling
(E) awkward: amusing
11. FILLY: HORSE::
(A) antennae: butterfly
(B) pullet: chicken
(C) gaggle: goose
(D) duck: drake
(E) wasp: bee
12. PITHINESS: APHORISM::
(A) craft: art
(B) detail: sketch
(C) illusion: story
(D) exaggeration: caricature
(E) sophistication: farce
13. EPHEMERAL: ENDURING::
(A) infirm: healing
(B) insensitive: cooperating
(C) inanimate: living
(D) interminable: continuing
(E) ineffectual: proceeding
14. POSTURER: UNAFFECTED::
(A) brat: insolent
(B) hypocrite: perceptive
(C) grouch: respected
(D) bigot: tolerant
(E) rogue: empathetic
15. FACETIOUS: SPEECH::
(A) precocious: learning
(B) unbecoming: color
(C) exemplary: conduct
(D) craven: timidity
(E) antic: behavior
16. VAGARY: PREDICT::
(A) quotation: misdirect
(B) investigation: confirm
(C) stamina: deplete
(D) turbulence: upset
(E) impossibility: execute
This is not to deny that the Black gospel music of the
early twentieth century differed in important ways from the
slave spirituals. Whereas spirituals were created and dis- seminated in folk fashion, gospel music was composed,
(5) published, copyrighted, and sold by professionals. Never- theless, improvisation remained central to gospel music.
One has only to listen to the recorded repertoire of gospel
songs to realize that Black gospel singers rarely sang a
song precisely the same way twice and never according to
(10)its exact musical notation. They performed what jazz musi- cians call "head arrangements" proceeding from their own
feelings and from the way "the spirit" moved them at the
time. This improvisatory element was reflected in the man- ner in which gospel music was published. Black gospel
(15)composers scored the music intended for White singing
groups fully, indicating the various vocal parts and the
accompaniment, but the music produced for Black singers
included only a vocal line and piano accompaniment.
17.Which of the following best describes "head arrange- ment" as the term is used in line 11?
(A) A published version of a gospel song produced for
use by Black singers
(B) A gospel song based on a slave spiritual
(C) A musical score shared by a gospel singer and a
jazz musician
(D) An informally written composition intended for
use by a gospel singer
(E) An improvised performance inspired by the
singer's emotions
18.The author mentions "folk fashion" (line 4) most likely
in order to
(A) counter an assertion about the role of improvi- sation in music created by Black people
(B) compare early gospel music with gospel music
written later in the twentieth century
(C) make a distinction between gospel music and
slave spirituals
(D) introduce a discussion about the dissemination of
slave spirituals
(E) describe a similarity between gospel music and
slave spirituals
19.The passage suggests which of the following about
Black gospel music and slave spirituals?
(A) Both became widely known in the early twentieth
century.
(B) Both had an important improvisatory element.
(C) Both were frequently performed by jazz
musicians.
(D) Both were published with only a vocal line and
piano accompaniment.
(E) Both were disseminated chiefly by Black singing
groups.
20.Of the following sentences, which is most likely to
have immediately preceded the passage?
(A) Few composers of gospel music drew on traditions
such as the spiritual in creating their songs.
(B) Spirituals and Black gospel music were derived
from the same musical tradition.
(C) The creation and singing of spirituals, practiced by
Black Americans before the Civil War, continued
after the war.
(D) Spirituals and gospel music can be clearly
distinguished from one another.
(E) Improvisation was one of the primary charac -
teristics of the gospel music created by Black
musicians.
About a century ago, the Swedish physical scientist
Arrhenius proposed a law of classical chemistry that relates
chemical reaction rate to temperature. According to the
Arrhenius equation, chemical reaction are increasingly
(5) unlikely to occur as temperatures approach absolute zero,
and at absolute zero (zero degrees Kelvin, or minus 273
degrees Celsius) reactions stop. However, recent experi- mental evidence reveals that although the Arrhenius equa- tion is generally accurate in describing the kind of chemical
(10)reaction that occurs at relatively high temperatures, at tem- peratures closer to zero a quantum- mechanical effect known
as tunneling comes into play; this effect accounts for chem- ical reactions that are forbidden by the principles of classi- cal chemistry. Specifically, entire molecules can "tunnel"
(15)through the barriers of repulsive forces from other mole- cules and chemically react even though these molecules do
not have sufficient energy, according to classical chemistry,
to overcome the repulsive barrier.
The rate of any chemical reaction, regardless of the tem-
(20)perature at which it takes place, usually depends on a very
important characteristic known as its activation energy. Any
molecule can be imagined to reside at the bottom of a so- called potential well of energy. A chemical reaction corre- sponds to the transition of a molecule from the bottom of
(25)one potential well to the bottom of another. In classical
chemistry, such a transition can be accomplished only by
going over the potential barrier between the wells, the
height of which remains constant and is called the activa- tion energy of the reaction. In tunneling, the reacting mole-
(30)cules tunnel from the bottom of one to the bottom of another
well without having to rise over the barrier between the
two wells. Recently researchers have developed the concept
of tunneling temperature: the temperature below which
tunneling transitions greatly outnumber Arrhenius transi-
(35)tions, and classical mechanics gives way to its quantum
counterpart.
This tunneling phenomenon at very low temperatures
suggested my hypothesis about a cold prehistory of life:
the formation of rather complex organic molecules in the
(40)deep cold of outer space, where temperatures usually reach
only a few degrees Kelvin. Cosmic rays (high-energy pro- tons and other particles) might trigger the synthesis of
simple molecules, such as interstellar formaldehyde, in
dark clouds of interstellar dust. Afterward complex organic
(45)molecules would be formed, slowly but surely, by means
of tunneling. After I offered my hypothesis, Hoyle and
Wickramasinghe argued that molecules of interstellar form- aldehyde have indeed evolved into stable polysaccharides
such as cellulose and starch. Their conclusions, although
(50)strongly disputed, have generated excitement among inves- tigators such as myself who are proposing that the galactic
clouds are the places where the prebiological evolution of
compounds necessary to life occurred.
21.The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
(A) describing how the principles of classical chem- istry were developed
(B) initiating a debate about the kinds of chemical
reactions required for the development of life
(C) explaining how current research in chemistry may be
related to broader biological concerns
(D) reconciling opposing theories about chemical reac- tions
(E) clarifying inherent ambiguities in the laws of clas- sical chemistry
22.According to the passage, classical chemical reactions
and tunneling reactions are alike in which of the fol- lowing ways?
(A) In both types of reactions, reacting molecules have
to rise over the barrier between the two wells.
(B) In both types of reactions, a transition is made
from the bottom of one potential well to the
bottom of another.
(C) In neither type of reaction does the height of the
barrier between the wells remain constant.
(D) In neither type of reaction does the rate of a
chemical reaction depend on its activation
energy.
(E) In both types of reactions, reacting molecules are
able to go through the barrier between the two wells.
23. According to the Arrhenius equation as discussed in
the passage, which of the following statements about
chemical reactions is true?
(A) Chemical reactions are less likely to occur at tem- peratures close to absolute zero.
(B) In some cases the rate of a chemical reaction is
related to temperature and in other cases it is
not.
(C) Chemical reactions frequently occur at a few
degrees above absolute zero, but they are very
unpredictable.
(D) The rate of a chemical reaction depends on many
other factors besides temperature.
(E) Chemical reaction rate and temperature are not
related.
24.The author's attitude toward the theory of a cold pre- history of life can best be described as
(A) neutral
(B) skeptical
(C) mildly positive
(D) very supportive
(E) pointedly critical
25.The author's hypothesis concerning be cold prehistory
of life would be most weakened if which of the follow- ing were true?
(A)Cosmic rays are unlikely to trigger the formation of
simple molecules.
(B)Tunneling occurs only in a narrow band of tem- peratures around zero degrees Kelvin.
(C)The synthesis of inter stellar formaldehyde can be
activated by means other than cosmic rays.
(D)Simple molecules can be synthesized by means of
tunneling.
(E)Classical chemical reactions do not occur at tem- peratures close to absolute zero.
26.Which of the following best describes the hypothesis
of Hoyle and Wickramasinghe as it is presented in the
passage?
(A) Cosmic rays can directly synthesize complex
organic molecules.
(B) The galactic clouds are the places where prebio- logical evolution of compounds necessary to life
occurred.
(C) Interstellar formaldehyde can be synthesized by
tunneling.
(D) Molecules of interstellar formaldehyde can evolve
into complex organic molecules.
(E) Complex organic molecules can be synthesized
from stable polysaccharides such as cellulose and
starch.
27.Which of the following best describes the organization
of the first two paragraphs of the passage?
(A) The author cites a basic principle of classical
chemistry and then describes the research from
which that principle was developed.
(B) The author cites an apparent contradiction to
the principles of classical chemistry and then
explains the process of a chemical reaction to
show there is in fact no contradiction.
(C) the author describes the role of heat in chemical
reactions and then offers a detailed explanation
of its function.
(D) The author presents a law of classical chemistry in
order to introduce a kind of chemical reaction
that differs from it and then explains the essen- tial difference between the two.
(E) The author presents the fundamental rules of clas- sical chemistry in order to introduce an explana- tion of a specific chemical reaction.
28. PREFACE:
(A) improvisation
(B) burlesque
(C) epilogue
(D) tangent
(E) backdrop
29. DEBILITATE:
(A) implicate
(B) invigorate
(C) obfuscate
(D) realign
(E) encumber
30. TASTY:
(A) uninteresting
(B) unfamiliar
(C) unexpected
(D) understated
(E) undervalued
31. ABNEGATE:
(A) refresh
(B) reaffirm
(C) relieve
(D) react
(E) reform
32. SERRIED:
(A) partially formed
(B) widely separated
(C) narrowly missed
(D) extremely grateful
(E) reasonably clean
33. BOMBASTIC:
(A) unflappable
(B) uninspired
(C) unpretentious
(D) inscrutable
(E) incisive
34. BANAL:
(A) comfortable
(B) novel
(C) equal
(D) fatal
(E) competent
35. LANGUISH:
(A) agitate
(B) wander
(C) relieve
(D) discomfit
(E) thrive
36. ENNUI:
(A) intimidation
(B) sleaze
(C) faint recollection
(D) keen interest
(E) deep reservation
37.DAUNTLESS:
(A) sophomoric
(B) trifling
(C) pusillanimous
(D) specious
(E) parsimonious
38.TEMERITY:
(A) credibility
(B) authority
(C) celebrity
(D) acrimony
(E) circumspection
SECTION 2
Time –30 minutes
25 Questions
1. Drug companies lose money when manufacturing
drugs that cure those suffering from rare diseases
because selling a drug to only a few people usually
does not recoup manufacturing expenses
5.Each of the following is a pair of varieties of flowers
that can be used together in an acceptable flower
arrangement EXCEPT
(A)freesias and irises
(B)freesias and tulips
(C)irises and lilies
(D)irises and peonies
(E)lilies and zinnias
6.Which of the following unacceptable flower arrange- ments could be made acceptable simply by removing
some or all of the flowers of one variety
an undesirable situation in order to let the child think
things over
(C)H
(D)S
(E)T
Questions 16-22
In each of the five consecutive days of a cooks' con- tention, exactly one of five well-known cooks? G, H, J,
K, and L? will cook a demonstration meal
on average, is far higher now than a few years ago
SECTION 3
Time 30- minutes
30 Questions
1. 13 + 12 5
x 2 y < 0
x > 0
2. xy 0
3.The area of the shaded 55
region
y = x + 1
4. (x - y) 2 1
xy<0
5. x + y 0
6. Area of square region
15.Twice the area of The area of triangle
the shaded region AOB
16. A ream of paper contains 480 sheets of paper. A
certain box holds 16 reams. The number of sheets of
paper in 5 of these boxes is
(A) 2,400
(B) 3,840
(C) 7,680
(D) 38,400
(E) 76,800
17. The numbers in a table are arranged in 10 rows and 4
columns such that one number is placed at the
intersection of each row and column. How many
numbers are contained in the table?
(A) 14
(B) 40
(C) 400
(D) 10 4
(E) 410
18. A recipe for 42 cookies requires 1
4
3
cups of flour.
How many cups of flour are required to make 210 of
these cookies?
(A) 5
(B) 8
4
3
(C) 9
4
1
(D)
2
1
10
(E)
2
1
17
19. If y = 7x - 5, then x =
(A) 7y +5
(B)
7
y
-5
(C)
7
y
+5
(D)
7
5 y
(E)
7
5 y
20. If 2a + 2b = 7 and 3c + 3d = 15, then the average
(arithmetic mean) of a, b, c, and d is
(A)
2
1
1
(B)
8
1
2
(C) 3
(D)
4
1
4
(E)
2
1
8
Questions 21-25 refer to the following information
A sample of employees were tested on data-entry skills
for one hour , and the number of errors (x) they made and
the percent of employees (p) making x errors were
recorded as follows.
21. What is the range for the number of errors made by
the employees in the sample?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
(E) It cannot be determined from the information
given.
22. What percent of the sample made fewer than 4 errors?
(A) 17%
(B) 24%
(C) 39%
(D) 41%
(E) 58%
23. If 40 employees in the sample made exactly 5 error,
what was the total number of employees in the
sample?
(A) 800
(B) 600
(C) 500
(D) 400
(E) 200
24. If those employees who made 6 or more errors were
removed from the sample and an employee were
selected at random from those remaining, what is the
probability that the employee selected made no
errors?
(A)
11
1
(B)
22
1
(C)
39
1
(D)
50
1
(E)
78
1
25. What was the median number of errors in the sample?
(A) 3
(B) 3.5
(C) 4
(D) 4.5
(E) It cannot be determined from the information
given.
26. In the rectangular coordinate system above, if P, not
shown, is a point on AB and if the x-coordinate of P
is 1, what is the y-coordinate of P?
(A)
3
4
(B)
2
3
(C)
3
7
(D)
2
5
(E)
3
8
27. Circular region C has a radius of 1 centimeter and a
circumference of x centimeters: If the region has an
area of y square centimeters, what is the ratio of x to
y?
(A) 2
(B)
2
1
(C) 2p
(D) p
(E)
p
1
28. If 2.5p 5 10 cubic feet of earth are to be removed
in constructing a tunnel in the shape of a right
circular cylinder 20 feet in diameter, what will be
the length, in feet, of the tunnel?
(A) 25,000
(B) 12,500
(C) 5,000
(D) 2,500
(E) 1,250
29. One adult and 10 children are on an elevator. If the
adult's weight is 4 times the average (arithmeuc
mean) weight of the children, the adult's weight is
what fraction of the total weight of the 11 people on
the elevator?
(A)
11
1
(B)
4
1
(C)
7
2
(D)
11
4
(E)
5
2
30.
2 3
5
) ) 2 . 0 ((
2 . 0
=
(A) 0.05
(B) 0.5
(C) 4.0
(D) 2.0
(E) 5.0
SECTION 4
Time-30 minutes
38 Questions
1. Although sales have continued to increase since last
April, unfortunately the rate of increase has ----.
(A) resurged
(B) capitulated
(C) retaliated
(D) persevered
(E) decelerated
2. Although the mental process that creates a fresh and
original poem or drama is doubtless ---- that which
originates and elaborates scientific discoveries, there
is clearly a discernible difference between the crea- tors
(A) peripheral to
(B) contiguous with
(C) opposed to
(D) analogous to
(E) inconsistent with
3. It is disappointing to note that the latest edition of
the bibliography belies its long-standing reputation
for ---- by ---- some significant references to
recent publications.
(A) imprecision.. appropriating
(B) relevance.. adding
(C) timeliness.. updating
(D) meticulousness.. revising
(E) exhaustiveness.. omitting
4. Although Simpson was ingenious at ---- to appear
innovative and spontaneous, beneath the ruse he
remained uninspired and rigid in his approach to
problem-solving.
(A) intending
(B) contriving
(C) forbearing
(D) declining
(E) deserving
5. She was criticized by her fellow lawyers not because
she was not ----, but because she so ---- pre- pared her cases that she failed to bring the expected
number to trial.
(A) well versed.. knowledgeably
(B) well trained.. enthusiastically
(C) congenial.. rapidly
(D) hardworking.. minutely
(E) astute.. efficiently
6. Schlesinger has recently assumed a conciliatory atti- tude that is not ---- by his colleagues, who con- tinue to ---- compromise.
(A) eschewed.. dread
(B) shared.. defend
(C) questioned.. reject
(D) understood.. advocate
(E) commended.. disparage
7. The National Archives contain information so ----
that researchers have been known never to publish
because they cannot bear to bring their studies to an
end.
(A) divisive
(B) seductive
(C) selective
(D) repetitive
(E) resourceful
8. HILL: MOUNTAIN::
(A) grass: rocks
(B) autumn: winter
(C) creek: river
(D) star: sun
(E) cliff: slope
9. AERATE: OXYGEN::
(A) eclipse: light
(B) desiccate: moisture
(C) precipitate: additive
(D) hydrate: water
(E) striate: texture
10. ORCHESTRA: MUSICIAN:
(A) cube: side
(B) kilometer: meter
(C) sonnet: poem
(D) biped: foot
(E) pack: wolf
11. EQUIVOCATION: MISLEADING::
(A) mitigation: severe
(B) advice: peremptory
(C) bromide: hackneyed
(D) precept: obedient
(E) explanation: unintelligible
12. CENSORSHIP: COMMUNICATION::
(A) propaganda: ideology
(B) preservative: decay
(C) revision: accuracy
(D) rest: atrophy
(E) exercise: fitness
13. BUS: PASSENGERS:
(A) flock: birds
(B) tanker: liquid
(C) envelope: letter
(D) bin: coal
(E) automobile: gasoline
14. BALLAD: STANZA::
(A) novel: chapter
(B) poem: meter
(C) play: dialogue
(D) movie: script
(E) photograph: caption
15. DISABUSE: FALLACY::
(A) cure: disease
(B) persevere: dereliction
(C) belittle: imperfection
(D) discredit: reputation
(E) discern: discrimination
16. BLANDISHMENT: CAJOLE::
(A) prediction: convince
(B) obstacle: impede
(C) embellishment: praise
(D) deficiency: compensate
(E) compliment: exaggerate
Although the hormone adrenaline is known to regulate
memory storage, it does not pass from the blood into brain
cells. We are faced with an apparent paradox: how can a
hormone that does not act directly on the brain have such a
(5)large effect on brain function?
Recently, we tested the possibility that one of the
hormone's actions outside the brain might be responsible.
Since one consequence of adrenaline release in an animal
is an increase in blood glucose levels, we examined the
(10)effects of glucose on memory in rats. We found that glu- cose injected immediately after training enhances memory
tested the next day. Additional evidence was provided by
negative findings: drugs called adrenergic antagonists,
which block peripheral adrenaline receptors, disrupted
(15)adrenaline's ability to regulate memory but did not affect
memory enhancements produced by glucose that was not
stimulated by adrenaline. These results are as they should
be if adrenaline affects memory modulation by increasing
blood glucose levels.
17.The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) reconcile two opposing theories
(B) compare two different explanations for a phe- nomenon
(C) describe experimental research that appears to
support an unpopular theory
(D) present evidence that may help to resolve an
apparent contradiction
(E) describe a hypothesis that has cause a con- troversy
18.It can be inferred from the passage that the author
would most likely describe the "additional evidence"
(line 12) provided by experiments with adrenergic
antagonists as
(A) revolutionary
(B) disappointing
(C) incomplete
(D) unexpected
(E) corroborative
19.The passage provides information about which of the
following topics?
(A) The mechanism by which glucose affects memory
storage
(B) The evidence that prompted scientist to test the
effects of adrenaline on memory regulation
(C) The reason that the effects of glucose on memory
were tested
(D) The ways that memory storage modifies the struc- ture of the brain
(E) The kinds of training used to test memory enhance- ment in rats
20.The author refers to the results of the experiment using
adrenergic antagonists as "negative findings" (line 13)
most likely because the adrenergic antagonists
(A) failed to disrupt adrenaline's effect on memory
(B) did not affect glucose's ability to enhance memory.
(C) did not block adrenaline's ability to increase blood
glucose levels
(D) only partially affected adrenaline's ability to
enhance memory
(E) disrupted both adrenaline's and glucose's effect
on memory
The age at which young children begin to make moral
discriminations about harmful actions committed against
themselves or others has been the focus of recent research
into the moral development of children. Until recently,
(5)child psychologists supported pioneer developmentalist Jean.
Piaget in his hypothesis that because of their immaturity,
children under age seven do not take into account the inten- tions of a person committing accidental or deliberate harm,
but rather simply assign punishment for transgressions on
(10)the basis of the magnitude of the negative consequences
caused. According to Piaget, children under age seven
occupy the first stage of moral development, which is char- acterized by moral absolutism (rules made by authorities
must be obeyed) and imminent justice (if rules are broken,
(15)punishment will be meted out). Until young children mature,
their moral judgments are based entirely on the effect
rather than the cause of a transgression. However, in recent
research, Keasey found that six- year-old children not only
distinguish between accidental and intentional harm, but
(20)also judge intentional harm as naughtier, regardless of the
amount of damage produced. Both of these findings seem
to indicate that children, at an earlier age than Piaget
claimed, advance into the second stage of moral develop- ment, moral autonomy, in which they accept social rules
(25)but view them as more arbitrary than do children in the
first stage.
Keasey's research raises two key questions for develop- mental psychologists about children under age seven: do
they recognize justifications for harmful actions, and do
(30)they make distinctions between harmful acts that are pre- ventable and those acts that have unforeseen harmful con- sequences? Studies indicate that justifications excusing
harmful actions might include public duty,self-defense, and
provocation. For example, Nesdale and Rule concluded that
(35)children were capable of considering whether or not an
aggressor's action was justified by public duty: five year
olds reacted very differently to "Bonnie wrecks Ann's
pretend house" depending on whether Bonnie did it "so
somebody won't fall over it" or because Bonnie wanted "to
(40)make Ann feel bad."Thus, a child of five begins to under- stand that certain harmful actions, though intentional, can
be justified; the constraints of moral absolutism no longer
solely guide their judgments.
Psychologists have determined that during kindergarten
(45)children learn to make subtle distinctions involving harm.
Darley observed that among acts involving unintentional
harm, six-year-old children just entering kindergarten could
not differentiate between foreseeable, and thus preventable,
harm and unforeseeable harm for which the perpetrator
(50)cannot be blamed. Seven months later, however, Darley
found that these same children could make both distinc- tions, thus demonstrating that they had become morally
autonomous.
21.Which of the following best describes the passage as
a whole?
(A) An outline for future research
(B) An expanded definition of commonly misunder -
stood terms
(C) An analysis of a dispute between two theorists
(D) A discussion of research findings in an ongoing
inquiry
(E) A confirmation of an established authority's theory
22.According to the passage, Darley found that after seven
months of kindergarten six year olds acquired which of
the following abilities?
(A) Differentiating between foreseeable and unforesee- able harm
(B) Identifying with the perpetrator of a harmful action
(C) Justifying harmful actions that result from provo- cation
(D) Evaluating the magnitude of negative consequences
resulting from the breaking of rules
(E) Recognizing the difference between moral absolu- tism and moral autonomy
23.According to the passage, Piaget and Keasey would not
have agreed on which of the following points?
(A) The kinds of excuses children give for harmful
acts they commit
(B) The age at which children begin to discriminate
between intentional and unintentional harm
(C) The intentions children have in per petrating harm
(D) The circumstances under which children punish
harmful acts
(E) The justifications children recognize for mitigating
punishment for harmful acts
24.It can be inferred that the term "public duty" (line 33)
in the context of the passage, means which of the fol- lowing?
(A) The necessity to apprehend perpetrators.
(B) The responsibility to punish transgressors
(C) An obligation to prevent harm to another
(D) The assignment of punishment for harmful action
(E) A justification for punishing transgressions
25.According to the passage, Keasey's findings support
which of the following conclusions about six-year-old
children?
(A)They have the ability to make autonomous moral
judgments.
(B)They regard moral absolutism as a threat to their
moral autonomy.
(C)They do not understand the concept of public duty.
(D)They accept moral judgment made by their peers
more easily than do older children.
(E)They make arbitrary moral judgments.
26.It can be inferred form the passage that Piaget would
be likely to agree with which of the following state- ments about the punishment that children under seven
assign to wrongdoing?
(A) The severity of the assigned punishment is deter- mined by the perceived magnitude of negative
consequences more than by any other factor.
(B) The punishment is to be administered immediately
following the transgression.
(C) The children assign punishment less arbitrarily
than they do when they reach the age of moral
autonomy.
(D) The punishment for acts of unintentional harm is
less severe than it is for acts involving accidental
harm.
(E) The more developmentally immature a child, the
more severe the punishment that the child will
assign.
27.According to the passage, the research of Nesdale and
Rule suggests which of the following about five-year- old children?
(A) Their reactions to intentional and accidental harm
determine the severity of the punishments they
assign.
(B) They, as perpetrators of harmful acts, disregard
the feelings of the children they harm.
(C) They take into account the motivations of actions
when judging the behavior of other children.
(D) They view public duty as a justification for acci- dental, but not intentional, harm.
(E) They justify any action that protects them from
harm.
28. DEBUT:
(A) collaboration
(B) monologue
(C) farewell performance
(D) repertoire standard
(E) starring role
29. WITHER:
(A) disagree
(B) shine
(C) plant
(D) adhere
(E) revive
30. BUCK:
(A) cover over
(B) assent to
(C) brag about
(D) improve
(E) repair
31. MEAN:
(A) trusting
(B) ardent
(C) clever
(D) incautious
(E) noble
32. ADJUNCT:
(A) expert appraisal
(B) generous donation
(C) essential element
(D) mild reproof
(E) impartial judgment
33. CANONICAL:
(A) imprecise
(B) ubiquitous
(C) superfluous
(D) nontraditional
(E) divisive
34. TICKLISH:
(A) heavy-handed
(B) significant
(C) tolerant
(D) impartial
(E) imperturbable
35. PREVALENT:
(A) invasive
(B) inconsistent
(C) indistinct
(D) unpalatable
(E) unusual
36. PENURY:
(A) approbation
(B) affluence
(C) objectivity
(D) compensation
(E) grandiosity
37. MINATORY:
(A) convenient
(B) nonthreatening
(C) straightforward
(D) fastidious
(E) rational
38. CALUMNIOUS:
(A) adept
(B) aloof
(C) quaint
(D) decorous
(E) flattering
SECTION 5
Time –30 minutes
30 Questions
1. 0.125
8
1
2.The average (arithmetic 75
mean) of x, y, and z
3. WY XZ
4. x 5
0 < x <1
5. x - x 2 x 2 - x3
2 y
x
>0
6. x
s > 0
7.Area of a square region Twice the area of a
with side s square region with
side
2
s
d = 561.165
8. The tenths digit of The tenths digit of
10 2 d 2 10
d
x = 0.5
9.
2
2
) 1 (
1
x
x
9
Olive oil, vinegar, and water were combined to make
10 cups of salad dressing. The oil and vinegar were
mixed in the ratio of 2 parts oil to 3 parts vinegar.
10. The number of cups 5
of water used in the
salad dressing
After a store had sold k television sets for p dollars
each, it reduced the price p of each set by 5 percent
and then sold twice as many sets at this reduced
price.
11. The total revenue from 2.95pk
the sale of all of these
television sets
12. The degree measure Half the degree measure
of
Questions 21-25 refer to the following graph. In these questions all references to gasoline prices and taxes refer to aver
age prices. including tax, and average taxes, in United States dollars, on June 1,1989.
21. What was the approximate price per gallon of
gasoline for the country with the least lax per gallon
of gasoline?
(A) $0.25
(B) $0.50
(C) $0.80
(D) $0.87
(E) $0.95
22. For a vacationer who planned to drive 3,500 miles in
Mexico in June 1989, using a car with an average
fuel efficiency of 25 miles per gallon of gasoline,
which of the following would have been the best
estimate of the cost of gasoline for the trip?
(A) $50
(B) $70
(C) $110
(D) $140
(E) $170
23. The ratio of the lowest price per gallon of gasoline to
the highest price for the countries shown was closest
to
(A) 1:3
(B) 1:4
(C) 1:5
(D) 1:6
(E) 1:7
24. For how many of the countries shown did the tax
account for more than 50 percent of the price per
gallon of gasoline?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) Five
25. If the tax per gallon of gasoline in Canada were
doubled and the increase in tax added to the price
per gallon of gasoline, what percent of the resulting
price per gallon would the tax then be?
(A) 36%
(B) 50%
(C) 64%
(D) 75%
(E) 90%
26. A gardener wishes to plant 5 bushes in a straight row.
Each bush has flowers of a different solid color
(white, yellow, pink red, and purple). How many
ways can the bushes be arranged so that the middle
bush is the one with red flowers?
(A) 24
(B) 30
(C) 60
(D) 96
(E) 120
27. What is the value of h in the trapezoid above?
(A) 6 2
(B) 3 4
(C) 8
(D) 6
(E) 4
28. The bottom of an underground rectangular tank has
an area of 12 square feet and the depth of the tank is
10 feet. A liquid is pumped into the empty tank at
the constant rate of 30 cubic feet per minute. After
how many minutes will the depth of the liquid in the
tank be 8 feet?
(A) 1.5
(B) 2.0
(C) 2.5
(D) 3.2
(E) 4.0
29. A candy assortment consists of seven flavors of
chocolate-covered creams packed in two-layered
boxes with 27 creams in each layer. The flavors are
always packed in rows so that the flavor varies with
each piece in the following order, vanilla, orange,
cherry, vanilla, raspberry, lime, pecan, cherry, lemon.
How many chocolate-covered vanilla creams are
needed to pack 200 boxes of the assortment?
(A) 600
(B) 1,200
(C) 1,800
(D) 2,400
(E) 3,600
30.If
19
m
is an even integer, which of the following
(A) m is negative
(B) m is positive
(C) m is a prime number
(D) m is an odd integer
(E) m is an even integer
SECTION 6
Time –30 minutes
25 Questions
Questions 1-8
A bakery makes nine kinds of cookies. Of these nine,
three kinds are fruit cookies— G, H, and J; three kinds
are nut cookies— K, L, and O; and three kinds are plain
cookies— X, Y, and Z. Each day of the week, Monday
through Sunday, the bakery will feature a special price
on exactly three different kinds of cookies. The three
featured cookies will be selected according to the
following rules:
Each day at least one fruit cookie must be featured,
and each day at least one nut cookie must be
featured.
On any day on which cookie J is featured, cookie L
cannot be featured.
On any day on which cookie k is featured, cookie Y
must also be featured.
No kind of cookie can be featured more than three
times in a week.
1.Which of the following lists three cookies that can be
featured together?
(A) G, L, Z
(B) H, K, X
(C) J, L, Y
(D) J, O, Z
(E) K, O, Y
2. On a day on which both cookie L and cookie Z are
featured, which of the following can be the third kind
of cookie featured?
(A) H
(B) J
(C) O
(D) X
(E) Y
3.A partial schedule of featured cookies is shown below.
Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday
L H O G Z
According to this schedule, which of the following is a day on
which cookie X CANNOT be one of the featured cookies?
(A) Monday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Thursday
(E) Friday
4.If cookie J is featured on Friday, Saturday, and
Sunday; if cookie K is featured on Monday, Tuesday,
and Wednesday, and if cookie G is featured only on
Thursday, then cookie L can be featured on
(A) Monday only
(B) Thursday only
(C) Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday only
(D) Friday, Saturday, and Sunday only
(E) any two of the first four days of the week
5. If each kind of nut cookie is featured three times in
one week, what is the maximum number or days on
which plain cookies can be featured during that week?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
(E) Seven
6.If cookie H and cookie Y are each featured on
Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday, and if cookie G
and cookie X are each featured on Thursday, Friday
and Saturday, then the cookies featured on Sunday
must include both
(A) J and K
(B) J and L
(C) J and O
(D) K and L
(E) K and Z
7.If exactly seven kinds of cookies are featured during
one week, which of the following must be true about
that week?
(A) X is the only kind of plain cookie that is featured
(B) Y is the only kind of plain cookie that is featured
(C) Z is the only kind of plain cookie that is featured.
(D) On at least one day, both cookie G and cookie Z
are featured.
(E) On at least one day, both cookie J and cookie X
are featured.
8.If cookie X is featured exactly twice and cookie Z is
featured exactly three times in one week, which of
the following must be true?
(A)Cookie G is featured exactly three times during
the week.
(B)Cookie J is featured at most twice during the
week.
(C)Cookie K is featured at most twice during the
week.
(D)Cookie L is featured at most twice during the
week.
(E) Cookie Y is featured exactly twice during the
week.
9. In recent years, there has been a dramatic decline in
the population of the shrike, a predatory bird that
inhabits flat land, such as farms and pastures. Some
ornithologists hypothesize that this decline is due to
the introduction of new, more effective pesticides to
control the insect species on which shrikes prey.
The answer to which of the following questions is
NOT relevant to evaluating the ornithologists'
hypothesis?
(A) Was there a decline in the shrike population
before the new pesticides were first used?
(B) Have shrike populations declined significantly
in those habitats where the new pesticides have
not been used?
(C) Have the new pesticides more significantly
reduced the population of insect species on
which shrikes prey than did the pesticides
previously
used?
(D) Are insects that have consumed the new pesti- cides more toxic to the shrikes that eat those
insects than were insects that consumed the
less effective pesticides?
(E) Are the new pesticides considered by most
people to be less harmful to the environment
than the old pesticides were considered to be?
10. Census data for Prenland show that unmarried
Prenlandic men in their thirties outnumber unmarried
Prenlandic women in that age group by about ten to
One. Most of these men do wish to marry. Clearly,
however, unless many of them marry women who
are not Prenlandic, all but a minority will remain
unmarried.
The argument makes which of the following assump- tions?
(A) Emigration from Preland is more common
among women than among men.
(B) A greater proportion of Prelandic women
in their thirties than of Prenlandic men of the
same age would prefer to remain unmarried.
(C) It is unlikely that many of these unmarried
Prenlandic men will marry women more than
a few years older than themselves.
(D) Prenland has a high rate of divorce.
(E) Most of the unmarried Prenlandic men are
unwilling to marry women who are not
Prenlandic.
11.Certain extremely harmful bacteria found only in
sewage are difficult to detect directly. Testing for
E. coli, an easily detected and less harmful type of
bacteria, in ocean water would be a reliable way of
determining whether or not these more harmful bac- teria are present, since ocean water contains E. Coli
only if the water is contaminated with sewage that
contains the harmful bacteria.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously
weakens the argument?
(A) There are many different strains of the E. coli
bacteria, and only some of these strains are
harmful.
(B) Some types of bacteria found in sewage are
neither disease-causing nor difficult to detect
directly.
(C) Some of the types of bacteria found in sewage
along with E. coli are not harmful to people
unless the bacteria are ingested in large quantities.
(D) E. coli dies out much more quickly than some of
the more harmful bacteria found in sewage and
then can no longer be easily detected.
(E) Some of the types of bacteria found in sewage
along with E. coli reproduce at a slower rate
than E. coli.
Questions 12-17
A bank has exactly four cashier windows, arranged in a
row and numbered consecutively 1through 4 from one
end of the row to the other. The bank has exactly six
cashiers: two supervisors (Joan and Karim); and four
trainees (Lorraine, Mark, Nora, and patrick). Throughout
a particular peak-hour period, the stationing of cashiers at
windows is restricted as follows:
There must be exactly one cashier at each window.
The cashier at window 2 must be a supervisor.
Lorraine must be at a window but cannot be at window
3.
If Mark is at one of the windows, Joan must be at a
window immediately adjacent to it.
The cashiers at the windows must include either Nora
or Patrick, but they cannot include both Nora and
Patrick.
12.Which of the following lists the cashiers who can be
stationed at windows 1 through 4 during this period?
1 2 3 4
(A) Joan Karim Mark Lorraine
(B) Joan Karim Nora Lorraine
(C) Karim Nora Joan Lorraine
(D) Mark Joan Lorraine Patrick
(E) Patrick Joan Nora Lorraine
13.Which of the following must be true about the
stationing of the cashiers during this period?
(A) Joan is at window 1 or at window 2.
(B) Karim is at window 2 or at window 4.
(C) Lorraine is at window 1 or window 4.
(D) Nora is at window 1 or at window 3.
(E) Patrick is at window 3 or at window 4.
14.If during this period Patrick and Mark, not neces -
sarily in that order, are stationed at immediately
adjacent windows, which of the following must be
stationed at window 4 during this period?
(A) Joan
(B) Karim
(C) Lorraine
(D) Mark
(E) Patrick
15.If during this period Lorraine and Mark, not neces- sarily in that order, are stationed at immediately
adjacent windows, which of the following can be
stationed at window 1 during this period?
(A) Joan
(B) Karim
(C) Lorraine
(D) Mark
(E) Nora
16.If during this period Lorrained and Nora, not neces- sarily in that order, are stationed at immediately
adjacent windows, which of the following must be
true during this period?
(A) Joan is stationed at window 1.
(B) Joan is stationed at window 2.
(C) Karim is stationed at window 2
(D) Nora is stationed at windows 3.
(E) Patrick is stationed at window 1.
17.If during this period Mark is stationed at a window,
which of the following CANNOT be stationed at a
window during this period?
(A) Joan
(B) Karim
(C) Lorraine
(D) Nora
(E) Patrick
Questions 18-22
Seven photographs— three landscapes: F, H, and J; and four still lifes:
Q, R, T and W— will appear on the first seven pages— numbered
consecutively from page 1 through page 7— of an exhibit catalog.
Each page will contain exactly one of the photographs. The ordering
of the photographs in the catalog is governed by the following
conditions.
J and W, not necessarily in that order, must appear on consecu- tively numbered pages.
The three landscapes cannot appear on-consecutively numbered
pages.
Neither page 2 not page 4 is a page on which a landscape can
appear.
A landscape must appear on page 7
18.Which of the following is an acceptable ordering of the photographs in
the catalog?
Page 1 Page 2 page 3 Page 4 page 5 page 6 page 7
(A) F T H Q W R J
(B) H Q J W R F T
(C) J W H R T Q F
(D) Q T R W J F H
(E) T F Q W J R H
19.Any of the following can appear on page 3 EXCEPT
(A) J
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) T
(E) W
20. If F appears on page 6, H must appear on page
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 7
21.If the still lifes all appear on consecutive pages,
which of the following must be true?
(A) A still life appears on page 1.
(B) A still life appears on page 5.
(C) J appears on page 6.
(D) T appears on page 4.
(E) W appears on page 5
22.If F and H, not necessarily in that order, appear on
consecutive pages, which of the following can be
true?
(A) J appears on page 1
(B) J appears on page 5
(C) R appears on page 6
(D) W appears on page 1
(E) W appears on page 5
23.The organizers of tomorrow's outdoor concert
announced that it will go on tomorrow on schedule
unless bad weather is forecast or too few advance
tickets are sold. If the concert is canceled, refunds
will be made to ticket holders. Since some ticket
holders have already been issued refunds even though
more than enough advance tickets were sold, it must
be the case that bad weather is forecast.
Which of the following is an error of reasoning con- tained in the argument?
(A) It proceeds as if a condition, which by itself is
enough to guarantee a certain result, is the only
condition under which that result would occur.
(B) It bases a conclusion that is known to require
two conditions on evidence that bears on only
one of those conditions.
(C) It explains one event as being caused by another
event, even though both events must actually
have been caused by some third, unidentified
event.
(D) It treats evidence for the absence of one condi- tion under which a circumstance would occur
as conclusive evidence that that circumstance
will not occur.
(E) Evidence given to support the conclusion actually
undermines it.
24. Although the prevailing supposition has been that it is
too hot for microorganisms to survive deep below the
Earth's surface, some scientists argue that there are
living communities of microorganisms there that have
been cut off from surface life for millions of years.
These scientists base their argument on the discovery
of living microorganisms in samples of material that
were taken from holes drilled as deep as 1.74 miles.
The scientists' argument depends on which of the fol- lowing assumptions?
(A)The microorganisms brought up were of a
species that is related to those previously
known to science.
(B)No holes have been drilled into the Earth's
surface to a distance deeper than 1.74 miles
(C)The microorganisms did not come from surface
soil that came into contact with the drilling
equipment.
(D) The stratum from which the samples came has
been below the surface of the Earth ever since
the Earth came into existence.
(E) The temperature at the bottom of the holes drilled
was not significantly hotter than that of the
hottest spots on the Earth's surface.
25. For 20 years all applicants for jobs as technicians at
EquipCorp were required to demonstrate that they could
operate and repair the machinery that was central to
EquipCorp's manufacturing business. Now, however,
that particular machinery is obsolete, and very different
machinery fills the central role. Therefore, the old
requirement is no longer a useful method for evaluating
whether applicants for jobs as technicians at EquipCorp
have the skills necessary for the job.
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the
argument?
(A) The machinery that is now obsolete was used by a
large number of manufacturing companies before
it became obsolete.
(B) Among the people already holding jobs as tech- nicians at Equip Corp, those who are most skillful
at operating the new machinery had been some of
the least skillful at operating the old machinery
(C) Most people applying for jobs as technicians today
have much broader skills than did people applying
for jobs as technicians 20 years ago.
(D) The skills required to operate and repair the
obsolete machinery are useful in operating and
maintaining many other types of machinery at
EquipCorp that are not obsolete.
(E) Much of the machinery that EquipCorp now uses in
manufacturing is very likely to become obsolete
within the next 20 years.
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