Corporation Bank PO Model Question paper

Tell me from where I can get Corporation Bank PO Model Question paper, will you please provide here???

[Kiran Chandar]

You are looking for Corporation Bank PO Model Question paper, I am giving here:

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Q.201-205. Rearrange the following five sentences
(A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the paper sequence to
form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the
questions given below them.
(A) “What a waste of my tax money”, I
thought, walking past the people
having free Californian
Chardonnay.
(B) “Speak to her”, he said , “She’s into
books”,
(C) The friend who had brought me
there noticed my noticed my
noticing her.
(D) In late 2003, I was still paying taxes
in America, so it horrified me that
the US Consulate was hosting a
“Gallo drinking appreciation
event”.
(E) Behind them, a pianist was playing
old film tunes, and a slim short
woman was dancing around him.
Q.201, Which of the following would be the
FOURTH sentence ?
(1) A (2) B (3) C
(4) D (5) E
Q.202, Which of the following would be the
FIRST sentence ?
(1) A (2) B (3) C
(4) D (5) E
Q.203, Which of the following would be the
FIFTH (LAST) sentence ?
(1) A (2) B (3) C
(4) D (5) E
Q.204, Which of the following would be the
SECOND sentence ?
(1) A (2) B (3) C
(4) D (5) E
Q.205, Which of the following would be the
THIRD sentence ?
(1) A (2) B (3) C
(4) D (5) E
Q.206-215. In the following passage there are
blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and
against each, five words are suggested, one of
which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
appropriate word in each case.
The right of Children to Free and Compulsory
Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which came (206)
effects in April this year, is meant to transform the
education sector and take India closer to the goal
of universal schooling. But with admissions to
the new academic session just (207) the corner, it
is fast becoming clear that (208) well-intentioned
ideas into (209) will take some doing. For a start,
the guidelines for admission under the RTE
prohibit schools from conducting any sort of
student profiling The stress on a random yet
justifiable admission process means that school
will have to resort to something as quirky as a
lottery system. However, leaving admission to a
good school to pure (210) will only incentivise
manipulations, defeating the very essence of RTE.
The main problem facing the education sector is
that of a resource sector is that of a resource
crunch. The provisions for ensuring universal
access to education are all very well, (211) we have
the infrastructure in place first Brick and mortar
schools need to precede open admission and not
the (212) way around. In that sense legislaors’
assessment of ground realities is (213) target when
they endorse the closure of tens of thousands of
low-cost private schools for not meeting the
minimum standards of land plot, building
specifications and playground area as laid out in
the RTE Act. Instead of bearing down (214) on
private schools failing to conform to abstract
bureaucratic criteria, efforts to bring about
universal education should focus on upgrading
and expanding the exisiting government school
infrastructure to accommodate all. Only then can
we ensure the much-needed supply-demand (215)
in the education sector.
Q.206. (1) with (2) for
(3) on (4) into
(5) in
Q.207. (1) around (2) near
(3) into (4) about
(5) reaching
Q.208. (1) forming (2) translating
(3) having (4) taking
(5) framing
Q.209. (1) affect (2) ideas
(3) practice (4) concept
(5) procedure
Q.210. (1) benefit (2) merit
(3) chance (4) basis
(5) method
Q.211. (1) unless (2) until
(3) executed (4) provided
(5) exercised
Q.212. (1) other (2) any
(3) two (4) differ
(5) after
Q.213. (1) on (2) of
(3) often (4) taken
(5) off
Q.214. (1) soft (2) more
(3) less (4) only
(5) hard
Q.215. (1) need (2) equilibrium
(3) expectation (4) attempt
(5) aspects
Q.216-225, Read each sentence to find out whether
there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error
in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the
sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If
there is no error, the answer is (5). (ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.)
Q.216. The president has denied / that the
(1)
economy is in recession / or was go into
(2) (3)
one / Despite a spate of downcast
(4)
reports. No error
(5)
Q.217. The angry at being / left out of the
(1) (2)
bonanza / is palpable among /
(3)
employees of the organization. No error
(4) (5)
Q.218. His comments came after / the research
(1) (2)
group said that its / consumer confidnce
(3)
index were / slumped to its lowest level.
(4)
No error
(5)
Q.219. If all goes well, / the examination
(1) (2)
scheduled for next month / is all set to be
(3)
completely free /from annoying power
(4)
cuts and disruptions. No error
(5)
Q.220. There are just too few trains / for the ever-
(1) (2)
grow / number of passenger / in the city.
(3) (4)
No error
(5)
Q.221. The buzz at the party was / that a famous
(1) (2)
/ filmstar and politician, would /
(3)
probable drop by for a while. No error
(4) (5)
Q.222. The opposition disrupted proceedings /
(1)
in both Houses of parliament /for the
(2)
second consecutive day / above the plight
(3) (4)
of farmers in the country. No error
(5)
Q.223. In response to the growing crisis, / the
(1)
agency is urgently asking for / more
(2)
contributions, to make up for / its sharp
(3)
decline in purchasing power. No error
(4) (5)
Q.224. The tennis player easy through / the
(1)
opening set before her opponent, / rallied
(2)
to take the final two sets / for the biggest
(3) (4)
victory of her young career. No error
(5)
Q.225. Aggression in some teenage boys / may
(1)
be linkage to overly /large glands in
(2) (3)
their brains, / a new study has found.
(4)
No error
(5)
Q.226-233. Read the following passage carefully
and answer the question given below it. Crtain
words/phrases have been printed in bold to help
you locate them while answering some of the
questions.
A new analysis determined that the threat of global
warming can still be greatly diminished if nations
cut emissions of heat-trapping greenhouse gases
by 70% this century. The analysis was done by
scientists at the National Centre for Atmospheric
Research (NCAR). While global temperatures
would rise, the most dangerous potential aspects
of climate change, including massive losses of
Arctic sea ice and permafrost and significant sealevel
rise, could be partially avoided.
“This research indicates that we can no longer
avoid significant warming during the century said
NCAR scientist Warren Washington, the study
paper’s lead author. “But, if the would were to
implement this level of emission cuts, we could
stabilize the threat of climate change “, he added.
Average global temperatures have warmed by
close to 1 degree Celsius since the pre-industrial
era. Much of the warming is due to humanproduced
emission of greenhouse gases,
predominantly carbon dioxide. This heattrapping
gas increased from a pre-industrial level
of about 284 parts per million (ppm) in the
atmosphere to more than 380 ppm today. With
research showing that additional warming of
about 1 degree C may be the threshold for
dangerous climate change, the European Union
has called for dramatic cuts in emission of carbon
dioxide and other greenhouse gases.
To examine the impact of such cuts on the world’s
climate, Washington and his colleagues ran a
series of global studies with NCAR-based
Community Climate system Model (CCSM). They
assumed that carbon dioxide levels could be help
to 450 ppm at the end of this century. In contrast
emissions are now on track to reach about 750
ppm by 2100 if unchecked. The team’s results
showed that is carbon dioxide were held to 450
ppm, global temperatures would increase by 0.6
degree Celsius above current readings by the end
of the century. In contrast, The study showed that
temperatures would rise by almost for times that
amount, to 2.2 degree Celsius above current
reading, if emissions were allowed to continue on
their present course. Holding carbon dioxide
levels to 450 ppm would have other impacts,
according to the climate modeling study.
Sea- level rise due to thermal expansion as water
temperatures warmed would be 14 centimeters
(about 5.5 inches) instead of 22 centimeters (8.7
inches). Also, Arctic ice in the Summertime would
shrink by about a quarter in volume and stabilize
by 2100, as opposed to shrinking at least threequarters
and continuing to melt, and Arctic
warming would be reduced by almost half.
Q.226. Why has the European Union called for
dramatic cuts in cartoon dioxide and
greenhouse gas emissions ?
(1) As global warming is not issue of
concern
(2) As the temperatures may rise
almost by an additional one degree
and this lead to severe climate
change.
(3) As the NCAR has forced the
European Union to announce the
cuts.
(4) As all the nations have decided to
cut emissions of carbon dioxide
(5) None of these
Q.227. What would NOT be one of the impacts
of cutting greenhouse gas emissions ?
(1) Temperatures will stop soaring
(2) Ice in the Arctic sea would melt at a
slower pace
(3) The rise in sea level would be lesser
(4) All of the above would be the
impact
(5) None of these
Q.228. What would be the impact of unchecked
greenhouse gas and carbon dioxide
emissions ?
(1) The temperature would rise from
the current temperature by 2.2
degrees Celsius
(2) The sea-level would rise by about
5.5 inches
(3) The arctic ice would stabilize by
2100
(4) The arctic ice would reduce by onefourth
(5) None of these
Q.229. What can be the most appropriate title of
the above passage ?
(1) A study of the rise in water level
(2) A study of rise in temperatures
(3) A study of the effects of greenhouse
gas emissions
(4) A study of the Arctic region
(5) A study of change in seasons
Q.230. Which of the following statements is true
in context of the passage ?
(1) At present the carbon dioxide
emission about 284 ppm
(2) The carbon dioxide emissions will
be about 450 ppm at the end of this
century if unchecked
(3) The carbon dioxide emissions was
about 380 ppm during the preindustrial
era.
(4) The carbon dioxide emissions will
be about 750 ppm at the end of this
century if unchecked
(5) None of these
Q.231. What does the scientist Warren
Washington mean when he says “we
could stabilize the threat of climate
change ?
(1) Climate change can be stopped
completely
(2) Climate change can be regularized
(3) Climate change and its effects can
be studies extensively.
(4) The ill-effects of the change in
climate can be minimized
(5) None of these
Q.232. Why did Washington and his colleagues
conduct a series of studies ?
(1) Because they realized that the
temperature increase was almost
about 1 degree
(2) So that they could stabilize the
climate change
(3) So that they could help the
European Union in cutting the
carbon dioxide emissions
(4) Because they found out that the
greenhouse gas emissions could be
cut by 70%
(5) None of these
Q.233. What would be the impact of holding the
carbon dioxide level at 450 ppm at the
end of this century ?
(1) Global temperatures would
increase by 0.6 degree Celcius.
(2) Arctic warming would be reduced
by half.
(3) Thermal expansion will stop
completely.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (A) and (C)
(3) Only (B) and (C)
(4) All the three (A), (B) and (C)
(5) None of these
Q.234-236. Choose the word which is MOST
SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold
as used in the passage
Q.234. DRAMATIC
(1) unprecedented(2) thrilling
(3) spectacular (4) effective
(5) feeble
Q.235. SHRINK
(1) contract (2) physician
(3) wither (4) shrivel
(5) reduce
Q.236. PREDOMINANTLY
(1) clearly (2) aggressively
(3) mainly (4) firstly
(5) faintly
Q.237. MASSIVE
(1) tall (2) tough
(3) total (4) little
(5) severs
Q.238-240. Choose the word which is MOST
OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in
bold as used in the passage.
Q.238. SIGNIFICANT
(1) substantial (2) miniscule
(3) incoherent (4) unimportant
(5) irrelevant
Q.239. OPPOSED
(1) resistant (2) against
(3) favouring (4) similar
(5) agree
Q.240. DIMINISHED
(1) created (2) rose
(3) increased (4) lessen
(5) finished
Q.241-245. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and
(4) given below each sentence should replace the
phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it
grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct
as it is given and no correction is required, mark
(5) as the answer.
Q.241. Although scared of heights, she gather
all her courage and stood atop the 24-
storey building to participate in the
activities.
(1) gathered all her courage
(2) gathered all courageous
(3) gather all courageous
(4) is gathered all courage
(5) No correction required
Q.242. Naturally, with everything gone so well
for them, it was time for celebration.
(1) go so well (2) going so well
(3) gone as well (4) going as well
(5) No correction required
Solved Paper
Q.243. The ban was imposed by state’s
commercial taxes department last Friday
after protests by a certain community,
which had threat to burn cinema halls
screening the controversial movie.
(1) had threats of burning
(2) had threated to burn
(3) had threatened to burn
(4) had threatened to burning
(5) No correction required
Q.244. Rakesh, an avid follball player who
captained his team in school and college,
will inaugurate the match tomorrow in
Pune.
(1) will be inaugurate
(2) is inauguration
(3) will inauguration
(4) is inaugurate
(5) No correction required
Q.245. At a musical night organized for them,
the artistic side of the doctors came as
forward, as they sang beautifully and
made the evening truly memorable.
(1) come forward (2) come to the fore
(3) came to the forth
(4) came to the fore
(5) No correction required
Q.246-250. Each question below has two has two
blanks, each blank indicating that something has
been omitted. Choose the set of words for each
blank which best fits meaning of the sentence as
awhole.
Q.246. Behaving in a _____ and serious way,
even in a ____ situation, makes people
respect you.
(1) clam, difficult
(2) steady, angry
(3) flamboyant, tricky
(4) cool, astounding
(5) silly, sound
Q.247. Along with a sharp rise in ____, recession
would eventually result in more men,
women, and children living in _____.
(1) crime, apathy (2) fatalities, poor
(3) deaths, tricky
(4) unemployment, poverty
(5) migrations, streets
Q.248. The government has ______ to provide
financial aid to the ones ______ by
servers floods in the city.
(1) desired, troubled
(2) promised, havoc
(3) failed, affected
(4) wanted, struck
(5) decided, ill
Q.249. An airplane with _____ passengers on
board made an unscheduled ____ as the
airport to which it was it was heading
was covered was covered with thick fog.
(1) Irritable, slip
(2) faulty, stop
(3) variety, halt
(4) tons, wait
(5) numerous, landing
Q.250. Deemed universities _____ huge fees, but
have not been successful in providing
education to our student.
(1) collect, maintaining
(2) pay, better
(3) ask, good
(4) charge, quality
(5) demand, quantitative
201.(3) 202.(4) 203.(2) 204.(1) 205.(5) 206.(4) 207.(1) 208.(2) 209.(3) 210.(3)211.(4) 212.(1) 213.(5) 214.(5) 215.(2) 216.(3) 217.(1) 218.(3) 219.(5) 220.(2)221.(4) 222.(4) 223.(1) 224.(2) 225.(2) 226.(2) 227.(5) 228.(1) 229.(3) 230.(4)231.(4) 232.(5) 233.(2) 234.(3) 235.(1) 236.(3) 237.(5) 238.(4) 239.(3) 240.(3)241.(1) 242.(2) 243.(3) 244.(5) 245.(4)246.(1) 247.(4) 248.(3) 249.(5) 250.(4)

I want to apply for post of P.O. in Corporation Bank so please provide me Model Question Papers for preparation of Exam?

[Arun Vats]

Here I am providing you Model Question Papers of P.O. in Corporation Bank for your preparation of Exam.

Syllabus of Corporation Bank P.O. Exam:
• Reasoning ability
• Quantitative aptitude
• General awareness
• English language


Model Question Papers of Corporation Bank P.O. Exam:

REASONING ABILITY
1. In a certain code GONE is written
as '5%2#' and MEDAL is Witten
as '4#38@'. How is GOLD
written in that code ?
(1) 5@%3 (2) 5%@3
(3) 5#@3 (4) 5%#3
(5) None of these
2. The positions of how many digits
in the number '39154326' will
remain unchanged after the digits
within the number are rearranged
in descending Order?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three
3. Among A, B, C, D and E each
having scored diflerent marks, B
has scored more marks than E
and D, B has not scored the highest
marks among them. Who
among them scored second fiighest
marks ?
(1) B (2) C
(3) E (4) D
(5) Data inadequate
4. In a certain code language 'how
old are you' is written as '9 7 3 4'
and he is old' is written as '2 7 5'.
How is 'he' written in that code
language ?
(1) 2 (2) 5
(3) 2 or 5
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
5. W walked 30 metres towards
South, took a leit turn and walked
50 metres, again he. took a left
tum and walked 30 metres. How
far is he from the starting point ?
(1) 80 metres (2) 100 metres
(3) 130 metres (4) 50 metres
(5) None of these
6. In a certain code BLACK is written
as 'ALBKC' and SMART is
written as 'AMSTR'. How is
CLOCK written in that code ?
(1) CLOKE (2) CLOCK
(3) OLCKC (4) OLCCK
(5) None of these
7. What should come next in the
following number series ?
9 7 5 3 1 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 18
6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 75
(1) 1 (2) 8
(3) 3 (4) 5
(5) None of these
8. The positions of the first and the
fifth digits in the number
83416759 are interchanged.
Similarly the positions of the second
and the sixth digits are interchanged
and so on. Which of
the following will be the fourth
digit from the right end after the
rearrangements?
(1) 3 (2) 8
(3) 4 (4) 6
(5) None of these
9. M is brother of K. T is sister of
K. R is father of M. J is wife of R.
How many sons does J have ?
(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
10. In a certain code 'GONE' is written
as 'NOEGG' and 'LOAD' is
written as 'AODLL'. How is 'SORT
written in that code ?
(1) ROSTT (2) ROTSS
(3) RSTOO (4) OTRSS
(5) None of these
11. How many such pairs of letters
are there in the word CONTRAST
each of which has as many letters
between them in the word
as in the English aiphabet?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three
12. How many meaningful English
words can be made with the letters
DREO using each letter only
once in each word?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three
13. Pointing to a boy, Urmila said "He
is the son of my grandfather's
only daughter". How is Urmila
related to the boy ?
(1) Mother
(2) Matemal Aunt
(3) Patemal Aunt
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
14. In a row of forty boys facing
North, R is twelfth from the left
end and T is eighteenth from the
right end. How many boys are
between R and T in the row ?
(1) 10 (2) 11
(3) 12
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
15. Mohit correctly remembers that
. his father's birthday is not after
eighteenth of April. His sister
correctly remembers that their
father's birthday is before twentieth
but after seventeenth of
April. On which day in April was
definitely their father' birthday ?
(1) Seventeenth
(2) Nineteenth
(3) Eighteenth
(4) Seventeenth or Eighteenth
(5) None of these
Directions (16-18) : Following
questions are based on the five threedigit
numbers given below :
528 739 846 492 375
16. Which of the following represents
the sum of the first two digits of
the highest number ?
(1)7 (2)10
(3) 12 (4) 13
(5) None of these
17. If the positions of the first and
the second digits of each number
are interchanged, which of
the following will be the third digit
of the second lowest number ?
(1) 8 (2) 9
(3)6 (4) 2
(5) 5

18. If the positions of the first and
the third digits of each number
are interchanged, which of the
following will be the middle digit
of the third highest number ?
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 9
(5) 7
Directions (19-20) : Study the
following Information carefully and answer
the questions given below :
(i) 'P x Q' means 'P is sister of
9'-
(ii) 'P + Q' means 'P is mother of
9'-
(iii) 'P - Q' means 'P is father of
9'-
(iv) 'P ÷ Q' means 'P is brother of
Q'-
19. Which of the following represents
W is grandfather of H' ?
(1) W + T - H (2) W ÷ T - H
(3) W x T + H (4) W÷ T + H
(5) None of these
20. Which of the following represents
'M is nephew of R' ?
(1) M ÷ T - R
(2) R ÷ T - M r
(3) R x T + M x J
(4) R ÷ T -M ÷J
(5) None of these
Directions (21-26) : In each of
the questions below are given four Statements
followed by four conclusions
numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to
take the given Statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts. Read all the
conclusions and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows
from the given Statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
21. Statements:
All rockets are poles.
Some poles are trams.
Some trams are ropes.
All ropes are tents.
Conclusions:
I. Some tents are trams.
II. Some ropes are rockets.
III. Some trams are rockets.
IV. Some poles are rockets.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I, II and III follow
(3) Only I and III follow
(4) Only I and IV follow
(5) None of these
22. Statements:
All dials are mirrors.
All mirrors are spoons.
Some spoons are decks.
Some decks are chairs.
Conclusions:
I. Some decks are mirrors.
II. Some spoons are dials.
III. Some decks are dials.
IV. Some chairs are spoons.
(1) None follows
(2) Or.ly I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only IV follows
23. Statements:
Some houses are forests.
All forests are trees.
Some trees are hüls.
All hüls are buses.
Conclusions:
I. Some buses are trees.
II. Some trees are houses.
III. Some hüls are houses.
IV. Some buses are forests.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I, II and IV follow
(3) Only I, II and III follow
(4) All I, II, III and IV foUow
(5) None of these
24. Statements:
Some lakes are rivers.
Some rivers are mountains.
Some mountains are books.
Some books are papers.
Conclusions:
I. Some books are rivers.
II. Some papers are lakes.
III. Some mountains are lakes.
IV. No paper is lake.
(1) None follows
(2) Only either II or IV follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only IV follows
(5) Only either II or IV and III follow.
25. Statements:
Some tigers are horses.
All horses are goats.
All goats are dogs.
Some dogs are cats.
Conclusions:
I. Some cats are tigers.
II. Some dogs are horses.
III. Some goats are tigers.
IV. Some cats are horses.
(1) Only I and II follow
' (2) Only I, II and III follow
(3) Only II and III follow
(4) Only II, III and IV follow
(5) None of these
26. Statements:
All notebooks are pens.
No pen is table.
Some tables are desks.
All desks are tanks.
Conclusions:
I. Some tanks are pens.
II. Some desks are notebooks. 1
III. Some tanks are tables.
IV. No tank is pen
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only III follows
(3) Only IV follows
(4) Only either I or IV follows
(5) Only either I or IV and III follow
Directions (27-31) : Study the
following Information carefully and answer
the questions given below :
P, 9, R, S, T. V, W and Z are
sitting around a circle facing the cen- ]
tre. T is second to the right of R whois
third to the right of P. S is second to
the left of P and fourth to the right of
9- Z is third to the right of V who isl
not an immediate neighbour of P.
27. In which of the following combinations
is the first person sitting I
in between the second and the
third persons ?
(l)VTS (2)TZS
(3) 9RV (4) PWQ
(5) VRT
28. Who is second to the right of T?|
(DS (2)Z
(3) P (4) R
(5) None of these
29. What is P's position with respect]
o t S ?
(1) Fourth to the left
(2) Fourth to the right
(3) Fifth to the left
(4) Sixth t^the left
(5) Third to the right
30. Who is to the immediate left of
Z?
(DT (2)P
(3) S (4) V
(5) None of these

31. Who is second to the right of W ?
(1) R (2) Q
(3) Z (4) S
(5) None of these
Directions (32-37) : Study the
following arrangement carefully and
answer the questions given below :
W 7 @ I R P 3 9 B A $ 4 H D 5 ©
M E 2 % T * 8 5 U Q N 1 V 6 # K F
32. How many such consonants are
there in the above arrangement,
each of which is immediately preceded
by a consonant and immediately
followed by a symbol ?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three
33. If all the Symbols are dropped
from the above arrangement,
which of the following will be the
fifteenth from the left end ?
(1) E (2) 5
(3) D (4) 2
(5) None of these
34. How many such numbers are
there in the above arrangement,
each of which is immediately preceded
by a symbol and immediately
followed by a consonant ?
(l)None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three
35. Four of the following five are alike
in a certain way based on their
positions in the above arrangement
and so form a group. Which
is the one that does not belong to
that group ?
( l ) T * 2 (2)QN5
(3) 3 9 R (4) 6 V K
(5) % T E
36. Which ofthe following is the ninth
to the right ofthe twenty-second
from the right end of the above
arrangement ?
(1)H (2)#
(3)T (4)@
(5) None of these
37. How many such Symbols are there
in the above arrangement, each
of which is immediately preceded
by a number and immediately
followed by a letter ?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three
Directions (38 - 43) : In each
question below is given a group of letter
followed by four combinations of
digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3)
and (4). You have to find out which of
the four combinations correctly represents
the group of letters based on the
following coding System and the conditions
that follow and mark the number
of that combination as your answer.
If none of the combinations correctly
represents the group of letters, mark
(5) i.e. 'None of these' as your answer.
Letter Ii A I) E F Ii ,J K M 1 U o W F p
Digit/
Symbol
code :
6 S 7 8 # l 2 * % 3 © 4 9 @ 5
ConditJons :
(i) If the first letter is a vowel and
the last letter is a consonant, their
codes are to be interchanged.
(ü) If both the first and the last letters
are consonants, both are to
be coded as '5'.
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant
and the last letter is a vowel, both
are to be coded as the code for
the vowel.
38. EKFUDH .
(1)8*#©78 (2) l*-#©78
(3)5*#©75 (4) 1*#©71
(5) None of these
39. JMEIUD
(1) 8%83©5 (2) 2%83©2
(3) 7%83©7 (4) 2%83©7
(5) None of these
40. PEJDWU
(1)58279© (2)582795
(3) ©8279© (4) 582795
(5) None of these
41. DMEAKJ
(1) 7%8$*2 (2) 2%8$*7
(3) 7%8$*7 (4) 5%8$*5
(5) None of these
42. IBHWPO
(1) 361954 (2) 461953
(3) 361953 (4) 461954
(5) None of these
43. UKPDMI
(1) ©5*7%3 (2) ö*57%5
(3) 3*57%© (4) ©*5%73
(5) None of these
Directions (44-49): In the following
questions, the Symbols @, ©, %,*
and $ are used with the following meaning
as illustrated below:
'P © Q' means 'P, Q is not greater
than Q'
'P $ Q' means 'P, is not smaller
than Q'.
"P @ Q' means 'P is neither smaller
than nor greater than Q'.
'P * Q' means 'P is neither equal
to nor greater than Q'.
'P % Q' means 'P is neither smaller
than nor equal to Q'
Now in each of the following
questions assuming the given Statements
to be true, find which of the
three conclusions I, II and HI given
below them is/are definitely true and
give your answer accordingly.
44. Statements :
D @ M, M $ B, B • R, R % T
Conclusions : I. B * D
II. B@D
III. T * M
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true
(5) Only either I or II is true
45. Statements :
W©F, F@D, D * K, K S J
Conclusions : I. K % W
II. D$W
III. F * K
(1) Only I and II are true
(2) Only I and III are true
(3) Only II and III are true
(4) All I, II and III are true
(5) None of these
46. Statements :
R * K, K © M, M % T, T $ J
Conclusions : I. J * M
II. R-*M
III. K © J
(1) Only I is true
(2) Only II is true
(3) Only I and II are true
(4) All I, II and III are true
(5) None" bT these
47. Statements :
R@K, T©K, T$M, M *W
Conclusions : I. W % K
II. M © R
III. T © R
(1) Only I is true
(2) Only II is true
(3) Only III is true
(4) All I, II and III are true
(5) None of these

48. Statements :
T $ N, N % B, B @ W, K © W
Conclusions : I. K $ B
II. K $ T
III. T% B
(1) Only I and II are true
(2) Only I and III are true
(3) Only II and III are true
(4) All I, II and III are true
(5) None of these
49. Statements :
Z % V. V • J, J © M, M @ R
Conclusions : I. R % V
II. M%V
III. Z% M
(1) Only I and II are true
(2) Only I and III are true
(3) Only II and III are true
(4) All I, II and III are true
(5) None of these
Directions (50-55) : Study the
following Information carefully and answer
the given questions :
A word and number arrangement
machine when given an input line of
words and numbers rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step.
The following is an illustration of input
and rearrangement.
Input : gone 93 over 46 84 now for
31
Step I : 31 gone 93 over 46 84 now
for
Step II : 31 over gone 93 46 84 now
for
Step III:31 over 46 gone 93 84 now
for
Step IV : 31 over 46 now gone 93 84
for
Step V : 31 over 46 now 84 gone 93
for
and Step V is the last step of the
rearrangement of the above input.
As per the rules fp^lpwed in the
above steps. find out jn each of the
following questions the appropriate step
for the given input.
50. Step III of an Input : 15 window
29 93 86 sail tower buy
Which of the following will be
step VI ?
(1)15 window 29 tower 86 sail
93 buy
(2) 15 window 29-tower 86 93
sail buy
(3) 15 window 29 tower 93 86
sail buy
(4) There will be no such step.
(5) None of these
51. Input : Station hurry 39 67 all
men 85 59
How many steps will be required
to complete the rearrangement ?
(1) Four (2) Five
(3) Six (4) Three
(5) None of these
52. Step II of an input is : 49 zone
car battery 56 87 71 down
Which of the following is definitely
the input ?
(1) car 49 battery zone 56 87 71
down
(2) zone 49 car battery 56 87 71
down
(3) battery car 49 zone 56 87 71
down
(4) Cannotbe determined.
(5) None of these
53. Input : news 79 53 glory for 46
29 task
Which of the following will be
step IV ?
(1) 29 task 46 news 53 glory 79
for
(2) 29 task 46 news 53 79 glory
for
(3) 29 task 46 news 79 53 glory
for
(4) 29 news 79 53 glory for 46
task
(5) None of these
54. Step III of an input is : 27 tubt
34 gas Chamber row 74 53
Which of the following steps will
be the last but one ?
(1) VI (2) VII
(3) VIII (4) V
(5) None of these
55. Step II of an input is : 19year 85
74 near gone 26 störe
How many more steps will be
required to complete the rearrangement
?
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Two (4) Five
(5) None of these
Directions (56 - 6 0 ) : Study the
following Information carefully and answer
the questions given below :
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are
eight students of a school. They study
in Standard VI, VII, and VIII with not
more than three in any Standard. Each
of them has a favourite subject from
Physics, Geography, English, Marathi,
Mathernatics, Chemistry, Biology and
Economics but not necessarily in the
same order.
D likes Chemistry and studies in
Standard VIII with only H. B does not
study in Standard VII. E and A study
in the same Standard but not with B C
and F study in the same Standard Those
who study in Standard VI do not like
Mathernatics or Biology. F likes Physics.
The one who studies in Standard
VIII likes English. C does not like Geography.
A's favourite subject is
Marathi and G does not like Biology.
56. Which subject does H like ?
(1) English (2) Marathi
(3) Science
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
57. What is G's favourite subject ?
(1) Biology (2) Physics
(3) Marathi
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
58. What is Cs favourite subject ?
(1) Economics (2) Biology
(3) English (4) Geography
(5) Data inadequate
59. Which of the following combinations
of student-Standard. Subject
is correct ?
(1) C - VII - Economics
(2) D - VI - Chemistry
(3) G - VII - Physics
(4) B - VIII - Mathernatics
(5) None is correct
60. Which of the following group of
students study in VII Standard?
(1) EAF (2) EGC
(3) EAG
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Directions (61-70) : Study the'
following information carefully and an- j
swer the questions given below :
The candidate must—
(i) be a graduate in any discipline
with at least 55 percent marks.
(ü) have a post graduate degree/diploma
in Marketing Management
with at least 60 percent marks.
(iii) have post qualification work experience
of at least five years in
the marketing division of an
Organisation

(iv) have secured at least 45 percent
marks in the selection examination
(v) have secured at least 40 percent
marks in the selection interview.
In the case of a candidate who
satisfies all the conditions except—
(a) at (iii) above, but has post qualification
work experience of at least
three years as Deputy Marketing
Manager, the case is to be referred
to GM-Marketing.
(b) at (v) above, but has secured at
least 60 percent marks in the
selection examination, the case is
to be referred to VP-Marketing.
In each qu beestionlow, details
of one candidate are given. You have
to take one of the following courses of
action based on the Information provided
and the conditions and sub-conditions
given above and mark the number
of that course of action as your
answer. You are not to assume anything
other than the Information provided
in each question. All these cases
are given to you as on 01.05.2010.
Mark answer (1) if the candidate
is to be selected.
Mark answer (2) if the candidate
is not to be selected.
Mark answer (3) if the case is to
be referred to GM-Marketing.
Mark answer (4) if the case is to
be referred to VP-Marketing.
Mark answer (5) if the data provided
are not adequale to take a decision.
61. Nidhi Agrawal has secured 60
percent marks in the selection
interview and 40 percent marks
in the selection examination. She
has been working in the marketing
division of an Organisation for
the past eight years after completing
her post graduate degree
in marketing management with
65 per cent marks. She has secured
59 percent marks in B.Sc.
62. Navin Desai has secured 56 percent
marks in B.A. He has been
working in the marketing division
of an Organisation for the past
seven years alter completing his
post graduate degree in marketing
with 62 percent marks. He
has secured 62 percent marks
in the selection examination and
38 percent marks in the selection
interview.
63. Sabina Handa has been working
for the past four years as Deputy
Marketing Manager in an
Organisation after completing her
post graduate diploma in marketing
management with 65 percent
marks. She has secured 45 percent
marks in both selection examination
and selection interview.
She has also secured 58 percent
marks in B.Com.
64. Manoj Malhotra has secured 65
percent m a r k S c . ands i n B . 6 0
percent marks in post graduate
degree in marketing management.
He has also secured 50
percent marks in both selection
examination and selection interview.
He has been working in the
marketing division of an
Organisation for the past six years
after completing his post graduation
in marketing.
65. Varsha Akolkar has secured 59
percent marks in B.A. She has
secured 42 percent marks in the
selection interview and 48 percent
marks in the selection examination.
She has been working
in the marketing division of
an Organisation for the past seven
years after completing her post
graduation in marketing management
with 57 percent marks. .
66. Utpal Goswami has been working
in the marketing division of
an Organisation for the past five
years after completing his post
graduate diploma in marketing
management with 65 percent
marks. He is a first class science
graduate with 60 percent
marks. He has secured 45 percent
marks in the selection examination
and 40 percent marks
in the selection interview
67. Anindita Ghosh has been working
for the past eight years in an
Organisation after completing her
post graduate degree in marketing
management with 70 percent
marks. She has secured 56 percent
marks in B.A. She has also
secured 50 percent marks in the
selection examination and 45 percent
marks in the selection interview.
68. Samir Phukan has been working
In the marketing division of an
Organisation for the past five
years after completing his post
graduate diploma in management
with 65 percent marks. He has
secured 60 percent marks in
B. Com. He has also secured 50
percent marks in both selection
examination and selection interview.
69. Nimisha Patil has secured 59
percent marks in B.Com. She has
also secured 50 percent marks
in both selection examination and
the selection interview She has
been working as De Marketing
Manager in an orgonaisation for
the past three years after completing
her post graduate degree
in marketing management with
63 percent marks.
70. Sadashiv Ghatge has secured 60
percent marks in B.Com. He has
been working for the past five
years in the marketing division
of an Organisation after completing
his post graduate degree in
marketing management with 68
per cent marks. He has secured
35 percent marks in the selection
interview and 62 percent
marks in the selection examination.
Directions (71-75) : In each
question below is given a Statement
followed by two assumptions numbered
I and II. An assumption is something
supposed or taken for granted. You
have to consider the Statement and the
following assumptions and decide
which of the assumptions is implict in
the Statement.
Glve answer (1) if only Assumption
I is implicit.
Give answer (2) if only Assumption
II is implicit.
Give answer (3) if either Assumption
I or Assumption II is implicit.
Glve answer (4) if neither Assumption
I nor Assumption II is implicit.
Give answer (5) if both Assumptions
1 and II are implict.
71. Statement: The largest domestic
airlines corporation has announced
new summer schedules
in which more number of flights
in trunk routes are introduced.
Assumptions:
I. Mbre number of passengers
may travel by this airlines
corporation during summer
months in trunk routes.

72
73
11. Other airlines mber of
flights in all thecompanies may
increase the nu sectors.
Statement: The chairman of the
Company decided to hold a grand
Function to celebrate silver jubilee
during the next weekend and
invited a large number of guests.
Assumptions:
I. The Company officials may be
to make all the necespreparations
for the siljubilee
celebration.
II. Majority of the guests invited
by the chairman may attend
the function.
Statement: The largest Computer
manufacturing Company slashed
the prlces of most of the desktop
models by about 15 percent with
immediate effect.
Assumptions:
I. The Company may incur
heavy losses due to reduction
in prices of the desktop.
II. The sales of desktop manufactured
by the Company may
increase substantially in the
near future.
74. Statement: The School authority
decided to rent out the school
premises during Weekends and
holidays for organising various
functions to augment its resources
to meet the growing
needs of the school.
Assumptions :
I. The parents of the school students
may protest against the
decision of the school authority.
II. There may not be enough
demand for hiring the school
premises for organising functions.
Statement: The local civic body
has urged all the residents to
voluntarily reduce consumption of
potable water by about 30 percent
to tide over the water crisis.
Assumptions:
75.
1.
II
Many residents may reduce
consumption of potable water.
Many activists may welcome
the civic body's move and
spread awareness among
residents.
Directions (76-80) : In each
question below is given a Statement
followed by two courses of action numbered
I and II. A course of action is a
step or administrative decision to be
taken for improvement, follow-up or
further action in regard to the problem,
policy, etc. On the basis of the
Information given in the Statement, you
have to assume everything in the Statement
to be true, then decide which of
the suggested courses of action logically
follow (s) for pursuing.
Give answer (1) if only course of
action I follows.
Give answer (2) if only course of
action II follows.
Give answer (3) if either course
of action I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither course
of action I nor II follows.
Give answer (3) if both courses
of action I and II follow
76. Statement : There have been
sporadic cases of stone throwing
and damaging vehicles in the locality
during the day following
altercation between two local
youth clubs last night.
Courses of action
I. The local police administration
should arrest all those
who are caught committing
these acts.
II. The local police administration
should call a meeting of
office bearers of both the
clubs of the locality to bring
the Situation under control.
77. Statement: A huge truck overturned
on the middle of the main
road and blocked most part of the
road causing a huge traffic jam.
Courses of action
I. The traffic department should
immediately deploy its personnel
to divert traffic
through other roads.
II. The traffic department should
immediately send men and
equipment to move the truck
and clear the road.
78. Statement: Some workers of the
Company making diamond
jewellery were caught while they
were leaving the premises as they
were trying to smuggle small
pieces of diamonds hidden in their
purses.
Courses of action
I. The management of the company
should immediately put
on hold all activities in the
premises tili a fool proof security
System is in place.
II. The belongings of all the
workers should thoroughly
be searched before they leave
the premises of the Company.
79. Statement : A huge tidal wave
swept away many fishing boats
and hutments of the fishermen
living along the coastline.
Courses of action:
I. The fishermen should henceforth
be restrained from construeting
their huts along the.
coast line.
II. The local administration
should send a team of officials
to assess the extent of
damage and suggest remedial
measures.
80. Statement : A large number of L
invitees who attended the mar- i
riage function feil ill due to food
poisoning and were rushed to
various hospitals located in the
area.
Courses of action
I. The government should ban
such marriage functions till
further notice.
II. The local hospitals should be
advised by the government to
provide best Services to the
affected people.
Directions (81-85) : Below is
given a passage followed by severall
possible inferences which can bei
drawn from the facts stated in the passage.
You have to examine each inference
separately in the context of thel
passage and decide upon its degree off
truth or falsity.
Mark answer (1) if the inference
is 'definitely true', i.e. it properly fol-j
lows from the Statement of facts given.
Mark answer (2) if the inference
is 'probably true' though not 'definitely
true' in the light of the facts given
Mark answer (3) if the 'data are
inadequate', i.e. from the facts given
you cannot say whether the inference
is likely to be true of false.
Mark answer (4) if the inference
is 'probably false", thought not definitely
false' in the light of the facts given
11. Other airlines companies may
also increase the number of
flights in all the sectors.
Statement: The chairman of the

Mark answer (5) if the inference
is 'definitely false' i.e. it cannot possibly
be drawn from the facts given or it
contradicts the given facts.
Asia has become the growth centre
of the world economy in recent
years. Within the region, India and
South Korea are the third and fourth
largest economies after China and Japan.
Though the Asian growth stories
mainly revolve around India and China,
South Korea has remained a key player
for these countries as one of their major
trading and investment partners.
South Korea adopted outward-oriented
economic policies with the beginning
of, its first five year economic development
plan in 1962 which resulted in
high growth and the integration of the
Korean economy with the rest of the
world. Subsequently high and consistent
economic growth made South Korea
one of the high-income economies
is Asia. Korea is still growing at a faster
rate compared to other developed
economies. India on the other hand,
adopted an import Substitution policy
since its Independence until the early
1990s. Since then India has introduced
wide-ranging economic policy reforms
and is moving towards markel-driven
economy. This has resulted in consistent
high economic growth overlhe last
one-and-a half decade.
81. Only Korean economy is considered
as robust by the international
Community.
82. Japan's economic growth over the
last decade is the highest in Asia.
83. The Korean economy is traditionally
different than the India
economy in its approach.
84. The economic growth of India
prior of 1990s was much higher
than the present growth rate.
85. India and China together are considered
the driving force of Asian
economy.
Directions (86 - 100): In each of the questions given below which one of
the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on
the left, if the sequence were continued ?
Problem Kigurci» Aasv7crFiju.es
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Directions (101-105) : What
should come in place of the question
mark (?) in the following questions ?
101. 7960 + 2956 - 8050 + 4028 = ?
(1)6984 (2)6884
(3)6894 (4)6954
(5) None of these
102. 25 x 3.25 + 50.4 ÷ 24 = ?
(1) 84.50 (2) 83.35
(3) 83.53 (4) 82.45
(5) None of these
103. 350% of ? ÷ 50 + 248 = 591
(1) 4900 (2) 4890
(3) 4850 (4) 4950
(5) None of these
(1)5 p.c.p.a. (2)4 p.c.p.a.
(3)6 p.c.p.a. (4)8 p.c.p.a.
(5) None of these
112. If the numerator of a fraction is
increased by 150% and the denominator
of the fraction is increased
by 350%, the resultant
fraction is what is the original
fraction ?
(5) None of these
113. In how many different ways can
the letters of the word 'BANKING'
be arranged ?
(1)5040 (2)2540
(3) 5080 (4) 2520
(5) None of these
114. Meenal purchased a car for
Rs. 2,50,000 and sold it for
Rs. 3,48,000. What is the per
cent profit she made on the car?
(1)40 (2)39.2
(3) 38.4 (4) 38
(5) None of these
115. There are some parrots and some
tigers in a forest. If the total number
of animal heads in the forest
are 858 and total number of animal
legs are 1,746, what is the
number of parrots in the forest ?
(1)845 (2)833
(3) 800
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Directions (116 - 120): Study the following table carefully and answer
the questions given below it.
Number of Entertainment Shows held in various cities in a year
(Number in Hundreds)
Shows
Cities Dance Music Drama Stand up Comedy Mirnicry
M 15 21 24 0.8 0.9
N 12.4 13 26 2 0.5
O 5.7 8 12 0.3 0.2
P 11.3 6 18 1 1.5
Q 17 12.4 11 3 0.4
R 14 10.5 9.8 0.7 0.1
116. The mirnicry shows held in city
M are what per cent of the drama
shows held in city O ?
(1) 7 (2) 8.5
(3) 6.5 (4) 8
(5) None of these
117. What is the average number of
entertainment shows hel'd in city
P ?
(1) 756 (2) 678
(3) 786 (4) 698
(5) None of these
118. If the number of music shows in
cities N and Q is increased by
5%, what will be the total number
of music shows in both the
cities together ?
(1) 2,602 (2) 2,667
(3) 2,540 (4) 2,605
(5) None of these
119. What is the respective ratio of the
number of dance shows held in
city N to the number of drama I
shows held in city R ?
(1) 49 : 62 (2) 49 : 51
(3) 62 : 45 (4) 62 : 49
(5) None of these
120. What is the total number of stand I
up comedy shows held in all the
cities together ?
(1) 820 (2) 740
(3) 780 (4) 810
(5) None of these
than th of 1008 ?
(1) 154 (2) 146
(3) 165 (4) 158
(5) None of these

[Arun Vats]

122. There are two numbers such that
the sum of twice the first number
and thrice the second num-
104. of 3842 + 15% of ? = 2449
(1) 3520 (2) 3250
(3) 3350 (4) 3540
(5) None of these
105. (833.25 - 384.45) ÷ 24 = ?
(1)1.87 (2)20.1
(3)2.01 (4)18.7
(5) None of these
Directions (106-110) : What
should come in place of the questioi
mark (?) in the following number se
ries.
108.325 314 292 259 215 ?
(1)126 (2)116
(3) 130 (4) 160
(5) None of these
107. 45 46 70 141 ? 1061.5
(1)353 (2)353.5
(3)352.5 (4)352
(5) None of these
108. 620 632 608 644 596 ?
(1)536 (2)556
(3) 656 (4) 646
(5) None of these
109. 15 25 40 65 ? 195
(1)115 (2)90
(3) 105 (4) 120
(5) None of these
110. 120 320 ? 2070 5195 13007.!
(1)800 (2)920
(3) 850 (4) 900
(5) None of these
111. Sonika invested an amount of Rs
5,800 for 2 years. At what rat
of Compound interest will she ge
an amount of Rs. 594.5 at th
end of two years ?
121. By how much is th of 968 less

ber is 100 and the sum of thrice
the flrst number and twice the
second number is 120. Which is
the larger number ?
(1) 32 (2) 12
(3) 14 (4) 35
(5) None of these
123. When all the students in a school
are made to stand in rows of 54,
30 such rows are formed. If the
students are made to stand in the
rows of 45, how many such rows
can be formed ?
(1) 25 (2) 42
(3) 36 (4) 32
(5) None of these
124. The ratio of the present ages of
Anju and Sandhya is 13 : 17 respectively.
Four years ago the
respective ratio of their ages was
11 : 15. What will be the respective
ratio of their ages six years
hence ?
(1) 3 : 4 (2) 7 : 8
(3) 5 : 4 (4) 6 : 5
(5) None of these
125. The average age of 80 boys in a
class is 15 years. The average age
of a group of 15 boys in the class
is 16 years and the average age
of another 25 boys in the class is
14 years. What is the average age
of the remaining boys in the
class ?
(1) 15.25 years
(2) 14 years
(3) 14.75 years
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Directions (126-130) : Study the following graph and table carefully
and answer the questions given below it.
Percentage of Obese men, Obese women and Obese children in a
State in various years
Total Number of Men, Women and
Children in the State over the years
Years Men Women Children
2004 54,000 38,000 15,000
2005 75,000 64,000 21,000
2006 63,000 60,000 12,000
2007 66,000 54,000 16,000
2007 70,000 68,000 20,000
2009 78,000 75,000 45,000
126. What was the approximate average
of obese men, obese women
and obese children in the year
2007?
(1) 12,683 (2) 12,795
(3) 12,867 (4) 12,843
(5) 12,787
127. The number of obese men in the
year 2009 was what per cent of
the men not suffering from obesity
in the same year ?
(1) 55 (2) 60
(3) 50.5 (4) 65.5
(5) None of these
128. What was the respective ratio of
the obese women in the year
2006 to the obese men in the year
2008 ?
(1) 6 : 7 (2) 21 : 65
(3) 15 : 73
(4) 48 : 77
(5) None of these
129. What is the difference between
the number of obese women and
obese children together in the
year 2006 and the number of
obese-men in the same year ?
(1) 5,475 (2) 5,745 „
(3) 5,045 (4) 5,075
(5) None of these
130. What was the total number of
children not suffering from obesity
in the year 2004 and 2005
together?
(1) 4,350 (2) 31,560
(3) 4,530 (4) 31,650
(5) None of these
Direction (131-135): Study the
following Information carefully and answer
the questions given below it.
Out of the 15,000 candidates eligible
for an Officer's Post in a Public
Sector Bank, 450 candidates have
prior experience of working in Public
Sector Banks in r r a l areas only. 25%
of the total number of cuandidates have
prior experience o f i n g w o r k i n Public
Sector Banks in urban areas only. 12%
of the total number of candidates have
prior experience of working in Private
Sector Banks in urban areas only. 2%
of the total number of candidates have
prior experience of working in Private
Sector Banks in rural areas only. 3,600
candidates have worked in Public Sector
Banks in both urban and rural areas.
15% of the total number of candidates
have worked in both Public and
Private Sector Banks in urban areas
only. 600 candidates have worked in
both Public and Private Sector Banks
in rural areas only. The remaining candidates
have no prior experience of
working in the Banking industry.
131. How many candidates have prior
experience of working in rural
areas (both Public Sector and
Private Sector Banks together) ?
(1) 4,350 (2) 4,950
(3) 4,800 (4) 4,900
(5) 4,850
132. How many total candidates have
prior experience of working in
Public Sector Banks (Urban and
Rural areas together)?
(1) 12.450 (2) 8,400
(3) 10,050 (4) 10.650
(5) None of these

133. What is the respective ratio of the
candidates who have a prior experience
of working in Public
Sector banks in rural areas only
to the candidates who have a
prior experience of working in
Private Sector banks in rural areas
only ?
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 4
(5) None of these
134. What is the total number of candidates
who have worked in Private
Sector banks in urban areas
? , [
(1) 1.800 (2) 2,250
(3) 4,050
(4) 3,600
(5) None of these
135. The candidates who have no prior
experience of working in the
banking industry are what per
cent of the candidates who have
worked in Public Sector banks in
both urban and rural areas together
?
(1) 60.5 (2) 63.5
(3) 62 (4) 64
(5) None of these
Directions (136-140): Study the following table carefully and answer the
questions given below it.
Percentage of Marks Obtained by Various Students in Various
Subjects in an Examination
MARKS
Students English
out of
100
Hindi
out of
100
Science
out of
150
History
out of
60
Maths
out of
150
Geography
out of
40
A 68 75 82 60 96 55
B 88 73 . 85 65 88 65
C 75 56 72 75 75 80
D 70 66 80 80 72 62
E 72 60 . 68 74 68 75
F 85 70 90 70 74 70
136. What is approximate overall percentage
obtained by C in the examination
?
(1) 78 (2) 69
(3) 75 (4) 71
(5) 65
137. What is the difference in the
marks obtained by B in English
and Maths together and the
marks obtained by F in the same
subjects ?
(1) 24 (2) 17
(3) 15 (4) 28
(5) None of these
138. The marks obtained by E in Geography
are what per cent of the
marks obtained by E in Hindi ?
(1) 45 (2) 55
(3) 50 (4) 60
(5) None of these
139. What is the overall percentage of
marks obtained by D in History
and Geography together ?
(1) 73.40 (2) 72.80
(3) 70.50 (4) 68.80
(5) None of these
140. What is the average marks obtained
by all the students together
in Science ?
(1) 77.16 (2) 120.50
(3) 118 (4) 121
(5) None of these
Directions (141-145): Study the
following Graph carefully and,answer
the questions given below :
Number of Students Studying in
different Universities in a year
(Number in lakhs)
UNIVERSIT IES
141. What is the average number of
females in all the universities together
?
(1) 33,00,000 (2) 3,50,000
(3) 3,20,000 (4) 32,00.000
(5) None of these
142. What is the total number of students
(males & females together)
in universities P and R together?
(1) 13,00,000 (2) 13,50,000
(3) 14,00,000 (4) 1,45,00,000
(5) None of these
143. What is the respective ratio of the
number of females from univer-1
sities P and Q together to the
number of males in the universities
R and T together ?
(1) 27 : 32 (2) 27 : 28
(3) 25 : 28 (4) 28 : 27
(5) None of these
144. The number of males in university
Q are what per cent of the
total number of students (males
& females together) in universily
S ?
(1) 68 (2) 62
(3) 66 (4) 64
(5) None of these
145. If the total number of males in
university T increases by 50%.
what would be the total number
of students (males & females together)
in that university ?
(1) 75,26,000 (2) 7,62,50,000
(3) 76,25,000 (4) 7,52,60,000
(5) None of these
Directions (146-150) : What
approximate value should come in
place of the question mark (?) in the
following questions ? (You are not expected
to calculate the exact value).
146. 57% of 394 - 2.5% of 996 = ?
(1) 215 (2) 175
(3) 200 (4) 180
(5) 205
147. 96.996 x 9.669 + 0.96 = ?
(1) 860 (2) 870
(3) 1020 (4) 940
(5) 1100
148.
(1) 7 (2) 12
(3) 9 (4) 4
(5) 15
149.
(1) 12 (2) 15
(3) 24 (4) 21
(5) 9
150. (638 + 9709 - 216) ÷26 = ?
(1) 275 (2) 365
(3) 420 (4) 300
(5) 390

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (151-165) : Read the
following passage carefully and answer
the questions given below it.
Certain words/phrases have been
printed in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions.
There are various sectors in India
that are to be assessed for their
strengths, weaknesses, opportunities
and threats.
The total population is over 1 billion
which will increase to 1.46 billion
by 2035 to cross China. The huge
population will result in higher unemployment
and deterioration of quality.
Literacy, in India is yet another factor
to be discussed. According to 1991
census, 64.8% of the population was
illiterate. The major downtrend of education
is due to child labour which has
spread all over India and this should
be totally eradicated by way of surveillance
and a good educational System
implemented properly by the Government.
Pollution is one more threat to the
environment and for the country's
prospects. This has been experienced
more in urban areas mainly in metropolitan
cities. The water pollution by
the sewage seepage into the ground
water and improper maintenance will
lead to various diseases which in turn
will affect the next generation. In most
of the cities there is no proper sewage
disposal. The Government has to
take effective steps to control population
which, in turn, will minimize the
pollution.
Poverty questions the entire
strength of India's political view and
minimizes the energetic way of approach.
The shortfall of rains, enormous
floods, unexpected famine,
drought, earthquake and the recent
tsunami hit the country in a negative
way. The proactive approach through
effective research and analytical study
helps us to determine the effects in
advance. Proper allocation of funds is
a prerequisite. In developed countries
like. U.S., Japan precautionary methods
are adopted to overcome this, but
1t has to be improved a lot in our Systems.
Increased population is one of the
major reasons for poverty and the
Government is unable to allocate funds
for basic needs to the Society. India
has nearly 400 million people living
below the poverty line and 90% of active
population is in informal eccnomy.
The children are forced to vvork due
to their poverty and differential caste
System. They work in match industry
for daily wages, as servants, mechanics,
stone breakers, agricultural workers,
etc. To prevent child labour. existing
laws which favour the Anti Child
Labour Act should be implemented by
the Government vigorously.
More population results in cheap
cost by virtue of the demand supply
concept. Most of the foreign countries
try to utilize this factor by outsourcing
their business in India with a very low
capital. According to U.S., India is a
"Knowledge pool" with cheap labour.
The major advantage is our communication
and technical skill which is
adaptable to any environment. The
cutting edge skill in IT of our Professionals
helps the outsourcing cornpanies
to commensurate with the needs
of the consumers in a short span. The
major competitors for India are China
and Philippines and by the way of an
effective communication and expert
technical ability, Indians are ahead of
«the race. The major Metropolitan states
are targeting the outsourcing field vigorously
by giving various amenities to
the outsourcing companies like tax
concession, allotting land etc.. to start
their businesses in its cities without
any hurdles. Thereby most of the
MNCs prefer India as their destinations
and capitalize the resources to
maximize their assets. Infrastructure
is another k eyfactor for an
outsourcing Company to start a business
in a particular city. 1t includes
road, rail, ports, power and watcr. The
increased input in infrastructure in
India is very limited where China's
record is excellent.
India in earlier days gave more
importance to the development of industry
and less importance to other
departments. But the scenario has
quite changed now-a-days by allocating
a special budget of funds for security.
This is because of the frightening
increase in terrorism all around
the world especially emerging after the
9/11 terror attack in U.S. In the last
ten years, budget towards the development
of military forces is higher
when compared to others. It shows
that the threat from our neighbouring
countries is escalating. India has to
concentrate more on this security lactor
to wipe out the problem in the way
of cross-border terrorism.
Making India, a developed country
in 2020 is not an easy task. India
has to keep in check a variety of factors
in order to progress rapidly. To
quote China as an example is that they;
demolished an old bt'ilding to constrnct
a very big port to meet future
demands, but India is still waitingfor
things to happen. The profits gained
by India through various sectors are
to be spent for the development and
welfare of the country. India's visiotiS
for a brighter path will come true not
only by mere words or speech, but
extra effort needed at all levels to overcome
the pitfalls.
151. Which of the following, accord-fl
ing to the author, is/are a
result(s) of increased population
in India ?
(A) Pollution
(B) Poverty
(C) Unemployment
(1) Only(A)
(2) Only (A) and (B)
(3) Only (B)
(4) Only (A) and (C)
(5) All (A),(B) and (C)
152. Why, according to the author,
has the Indian Government allotted
more funds to strengthen
the military forces ?
(1) To improve security in order
to counter increasing terrorism
(2) As the security in India over
the past ten years was grossly
inadequate
(3) As the U.S. too has strength- .
ened its military forces after
the 9/11 attack
(4) As the industry is developed
enough and is not in need of
any more funds
(5) Noneofthese
153. What is the author's main objective
in writing this passage ?
(1) To exhort the Government to
garner support from its
neighbouring countries
(2) To suggest to the Government
to follow China's example
blindly thereby bringing
about rapid development
(3) To highlight the plight of the
poor

(4) To discuss the problems of
child labour and suggest suitable
remedies
(5) To bring forth the problems
associated with the India's
development and to suggest
measures to counter them
154. Why, according to the author, is
India one of the favourite destinations
for investment by
outsourcing companies ?
(A) Shorter response time for Clients
(B) Better technical skills
(C) Availability of cheap labour
(1) Only(C)
(2) All (A), (B) and (C)
(3) Only (B) and (C)
(4) Only (A) and (B)
(5) Only (A)
155. Which of the following is/are
true in the context of the passage
?
(A) India leads the way in the
amount invested in the development
of infrastructure.
(B) Political System in India is not
influenced by poverty
(C) lndian population would increase
by approximately 5O
per cent in the next twenty
five years.
(l)Only(A) and(B)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (B) and (C)
(5) All (A), (B) and (C)
156. Which of the following is/are the
facility(ies) available to MNCs investing
in India ?
(A) Easy availability of land
(B) Better infrastructure than
China.
(C) Tax Concessions
(1) Only(C)
(2) All(A),(B)and (C)
(3) Only (A) and (B)
(4) Only (A) and (C)
(5) None of these
157. Which of the following, according
to the author, is a result of
poverty in India ?
(1) Lack of a robust security System
(2) Child labour and the resulting
dearth of educated youth
(3) Floods, famines and other
calamities
(4) Rapid increase in population
(5) None of these
164. DIFFERENTIAL
(1) solitude
(2) homogeneous
(3) synonymous
(4) unique (5) different
165. VIGOROUSLY
(1) simply (2) regularly
(3) roughly (4) softly
(5) leniently
Directions (166 - 170): Which
of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given
below should replace the phrase given
in bold in the following sentence to
make it meaningful and grammatically
correct. If the sentence is correct as
it is and no correction is required mark
(5) as the answer.
166. Banks Charge differently rate of
interest depending on the size
of the loan.
(1) difference in rate of interests
(2) differently what rate of interest
(3) different rates of interest
(4) the different rate of interest
(5) No correction required
167. It is necessary that we take any
steps to reduce pollution soon.
(1) we should take every
(2) we have taken no
(3) us to take any
(4) we take some
(5) No correction required
168. It is too early to say how the
impact the new tax will have on
investors
(1) what impact
(2) that the impact
(3) how much impacts
(4) what are the impacts of
(5) No correction required
169. Kindly ask his advice regarding
the various health insurance policies
presently available.
(1) him to advice that
(2) regarding his advice
(3) that he should advice
(4) about his advice
(5) No correction required
170. Unfortunately many of our lowns
and cities do have more good
transportation System.
(1) have agood
(2) not have good
(3) not have much good
(4) not having better
(5) No correction required
158. How, according to the author,
can the effects 'of floods, famines,
drought, etc. be minimized
?
(1) By limiting pollution thereby
reducing the chances of such
events taking place .
(2) By educating the children
about the ill effects of such
calamities who in turn Will
help during the time of need
(3) By following the U.S. System
of providing relief to its Citizens
(4) By allotting proper funds for
research which can predict
the outcome of such calamities
and thus design relief
measures
(5) None of these
Directions (159-162) : Choose
the word/group of words which is
most similar in meaning to the word/
group of words printed in bold as used
in the passage
159. SURVEILLANCE
(l)spying (2) cameras
(3) security (4) Observation
(5) alertness
160. PREREQUISITE
(1) result (2) association
(3) necessity (4) factor
(5) mystery
161. PROSPECTS
(1) assimilation
(2) demand (3) future
(4) brochure
(5) diagnosis
162. COMMENSURATE
(1) match
(2) extracting
(3) contemplating
(4) request
(5) employing
Directions (163-165) : Choose
the word/group of words which is
most opposite in meaning to the
word/group of words printed in bold
as used in the passage
163. LIMITED
(1) abundant
(2) complete
(3) flowing
(4) inadequate
(5) encompassing

Directions (171-175) : Rearrange
the following six sentences (A),
(B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph;
then answer the questions
given below :
(A) With all the bid information being
available and tracked online,
corruption has considerably reduced.
(B) Today, most i.e. over ninety-flve
percent household, in the city
enjoy broad band connection.
(C) All city contracts are now bid for
online
(D) Over twenty years ago the city
government, central government
and the private sector made a
concerted effort to shift the
economy to include IT
(E) As our cities to expand and become
more complex, such a System
will make governance more
manageable
(F) This level of connectedness has
changed not only the city's
economy but also how it is governed
and how business is conducted.
171. Which of the following should be
the FIRST sentence after rearrangement
?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
(5) E
172. Which oflhe following should be
the SECOND sentence after rearrangement
?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
(5) F
173. Which of the following should be
the THIRD sentence after rearrangement
?
(1) A (2) C
(3) D (4) E
(5) F
174. Which of the following should be
the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement
?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
(5) E
175. Which of the following should be
the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after
rearrangement ?
(1) B (2) C
(3) D (4) E
(5) F
Directions (176-185) : Read
each sentence to find out whether
there is any grammatical error or idiomatic
error in it. The number of that
part is the answer. If there is no error,
the answer is (5). (Ignore errors
of punctuations, if any)
176. Some genuine issues exist (1)/
with the newly adopted (2)/ System
and needs to (3)/ be examined
seriously (4).' No error (5)
177. Whether or not to confront (1)/
them about their role (2)/ in the
matter is a decision (3)/ which
is yet to take (4). No error (5)
178. The government is still in the (1)/
process of finalized new policy
(2)/ guidelines for the allocation
of land (3)/ to private sector organizations
(4). No error (5)
179. According to government estimates
(1)/ at least four million
tonnes of sugar (2)/ will have to
be imported (3)/ this year because
of the poor monsoon (4).
No error (5)
180. In our experience people usually
(1)/ value things that they have
to (2)/ pay off more than those
that (3)/ they receive free of cost
(4). No error (5)
181. At present China is the (1)/
world's leader manufacturer (2)/
of environment friendly products
(3)/ such as electric cars and
bicycles (4). No error (5)
182. Over eighty per cent from us (1)/
feel that if we had taken (2)/
some corrective measures earlier
(3)/ the crisis would have
been averted (4). No error (5)
183. The manager of that city branch
(1)/ cannot handle it with the
help of (2)/ only two personnel
as (3)/ business has increased
substantially (4). No error (5)
184. With the liieracy rates in this (1)/
region as low as ten percent (2)/
we need to encourage (3)/ local
people to build schools (4). No
error (5)
185. While providing such facilities
(1)/ online makes ii convenient
(2)/ and easily accessible for
customers (3)/ we face several
chaHenges (4). No error (5)
Directions (186-190): In each
question below a sentence with four
words printed in bold type is given.
These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and
(4). One of these four wordt printed
in bold may be either wrongly speit
or inappropriate in the context of the
sentence. Find out the word which is
wrongly speit or inappropriate if any.
The number of that word is your an-l
swer. If all the words printed in bold
are correctly speit and also approprlate
in the context of the sentence, markS
(5) i.e. 'All correct as your answer. ]
186. The bank's fluctuating (1)/ performance
over the prior (2)/ year
has been a major (3) cause (4|
for concern. All correct (5)
187. An economy relies (1)/ on iufl
access (2)/ to dependable (3) and
affordable (4) sources of anergM
All correct (5)
188. Researches have used data!
prevalent(l)/ to manufacturing
companies to illustrate (2)/ the
harmful (3) impacts (4) of technonology
on the environment. All«
correct(5)
189. Such a Situation (1)/ is neither
feesible (2)/ nor desirable (3)in
a democratic country like ours
(4). All correct (5)
190. The gradual (1) / withdrawal (2)/
of such safety (3) mechanisims
(4) will affect small and medium!
industries the most. All correct(
5)
Directions ( 191- 200) : In the
following passage there are blanks.
each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the
passage and against each. five words
are suggested, one of which fits the
blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.
The world's climate has always
changed and species have evolved
accordingly to survive it. The surprisfl
ingfact about the (191) between evo
lution and global warming (192) that
it is not liner. (193) temperatures alone
are not (194) of evolution. Evolution
is also the (195) of seasonal changes
As the environment (196) those spefl
cies which don't adapt (197) to exist. 1
But the sheer (198) of manmade climate
change today is (1991. 'Bad
things are happening' and by one (200)
global warming could threaLen upto
one-third of the world's species if left
unchecked. In fact a lot of the species
which will be able io survive are
the ones we consider pests like insectsl
and weeds.

191. (1) difference (2) similarity
(3) argument (4) relationship
(5) alllance
192. (1) being (2) seema
(3) mainly (4) besides
(5) is
193. (1) However (2) Mounted
(3) Rising (4) Elevating
(5) Inclining
194. (1) means (2) triggers
(3) responses (4) threats
(5) Stimulus
195. (1) results (2) precursor
(3) resistance (4) cause
(5) provocation
196. (1) conserves
(2) stilles (3) predicts
(4) changes (5) emerges
197. (l)continue (2) halt
(3) cease (4) terminate
(5) discontinue
198. (1) luck
(2) value (3) collapse
(4) pace (5) attention
199. (1) threatened
(2) pursued
(3) unprecedented
(4) record (5) debated
200. (1) forecast (2) chance
(3) pattern (4) occasion
(5) imagination

A N S W E R S
1. (2) 2. (5) 3. (5) 4. (3)
5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (2)
9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (3)
13. (4) 14. (1) 15. (3) 16. (3)
17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (5) 20. (4)
21. (4) 22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (2)
25. (3) 26. (5) 27. (5) 28. (2)
29.(4) 30. (3) 31. (1) 32.(1)
33.(1) 34. (2) 35. (4) 36. (3)
37. (5) 38. (5) 39. (1) 40. (3)
41. (4) 42. (1) 43. (5) 44. (5)
45. (4) 46. (3) 47. (5) 48. (5)
49.(1) 50. (1) 51. (2) 52. (4)
53. (2) 54. (4) 55. (2) 56. (1)
57. (5) 58. (1) 59. (5) 60. (3)
61. (2) 62. (4) 63. (3) 64. (1)
65. (2) 66.(1) 67. (1) 68.(1)
69. (3) 70. (4) 71. (1) 72. (5)
73. (2) 74. (4) 75. (5) 76. (2)
77. (5) 78. (2) 79. (5) 80. (2)
81. (2) 82. (3) 83. (1) 84. (5)
85. (1) 86. (4) 87. (5) 88. (2)
89. (1) 90. (3) 91. (3) 92. (3)
93. (4) 94. (5) 95. (2) 96.(4)
97. (5) 98. (3) 99.(1) 100. (2)
101. (3) 102. (2) 103. (1) 104. (1)
105. (4) 106. (4) 107. (2) 108. (3)
109. (5) 110. (5) 111. (1) 112. (3)
113. (4) 114. (2) 115. (5) 116. (5)
117. (1) 118. (2) 119. (4) 120. (3)
121. (5) 122. (4) 123. (3) 124. (5)
125. (1) 126. (3) 127. (2) 128. (4)
129. (1) 130. (4) 131. (2) 132. (4)
133. (2) 134. (3) 135. (5) 136. (4)
137. (1) 138. (3) 139. (2) 140. (5)
141. (1) 142. (5) 143. (2) 144. (4)
145. (3) 146. (3) 147. (4) 148. (4)
149. (2) 150. (5) 151. (5) 152. (1)
153. (5) 154. (2) 155. (3) 156. (4)
157. (2) 158. (4) 159. (4) 160. (3)
161. (3) 162. (1) 163. (1) 164. (2)
165. (4) 166. (3) 167. (4) 168. (1)
169. (5) 170. (3) 171. (4) 172. (2)
173. (5) 174. (1) 175. (4) 176. (3)
177. (4) 178. (2) 179. (1) 180. (3)
181. (2) 182. (1) 183. (5) 184.(1)
185. (5) 186. (2) 187. (5) 188. (1)
189. (2) 190. (4) 191. (4) 192. (5)
193. (3) 194. (1) 195. (2) 196. (4)
197. (3) 198. (4) 199. (5) 200. (1)

Sustain the excellent job and generating the group!

You actually make it seem so easy with your presentation but I find this topic to be really something that I think I would never understand. It seems too complex and very broad for me. I am looking forward for your next post, I?l try to get the hang of it!