#1
5th December 2014, 08:42 AM
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CDS Exam Pattern
Will you please provide the information regarding the CDS Exam Pattern ?
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#2
5th December 2014, 12:34 PM
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Re: CDS Exam Pattern
Here I am providing the information regarding the CDS Exam Pattern which you are looking for . i. Written Exam consists of Objective Type questions and time duration 2hrs and maximum marks is 100 for each subject. ii. For applicants who are appearing for Indian Military Academy, Naval Academy, Air force Academy written test comprising of English, General Knowledge and Elementary mathematics subjects and for candidates who are appearing for officers training academy the written test comprising of English and General Knowledge. iii. Applicants who are declared successful in the written exam will be detailed for intelligence and personality test at the Service Selection Board based on their preference, by the respective service HQ. For Admission to Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force Academy: (A)Subject Duration Maximum Marks English 2 Hours 100 General Knowledge 2 Hours 100 Elementary Mathematics 2 Hours 100 (B) For Admission to Officers’ Training Academy: Subject Duration Maximum Marks English 2 Hours 100 General Knowledge 2 Hours 100 For your idea , here I am giving attachment of question paper CDS Exam Paper 1. An emulsion is a colloid of a— (A) Gas in a liquid (B) Liquid in a liquid (C) Liquid in a gas (D) Gas in a solid 2. Percentage of carbon in steel ranges from— (A) 0.1 to 1.5 (B) 1.5 to 3.0 (C) 3.0 to 4.0 (D) 4.0 to 6.0 3. Which of the following is not present in German-silver ? (A) Copper (B) Nickel (C) Silver (D) Zinc 4. According to the latest estimates, the literacy rate (% of population) in India is— (A) 63% (B) 65% (C) 67% (D) 68% 5. Who won the U.S. Open (Lawn Tennis) in September 2007 ? (A) Novak Djokovic (B) Roger Federer (C) Rafael Nadal (D) None of the above 6. Who propounded the theory of ‘Economic Drain of India’ during British imperialism ? (A) W. C. Bannerji (B) Dadabhai Naoroji (C) Gopalkrishna Gokhale (D) Gandhiji 7. First Indian Commander-in-Chief was— (A) Gen. K.S. Thimayya (B) Gen. K. M. Kariappa (C) S. H. F. J. Manekshaw (D) None of the above 8. A computer virus is— (A) A chemical that attacks silicon. (B) A micro-organism that destroys integrated circuits (C) Data that the computer fails to handle (D) A special kind of computer programme 9. India has a coastline of— (A) 5500 km (B) 6500 km (C) 7500 km (D) 8400 km 10. Jawahar Tunnel, the largest in India is located in the State of— (A) Jammu & Kashmir (B) Maharashtra (C) Karnataka (D) Himachal Pradesh 11. The most literate union territory in India is— (A) Delhi (B) Lakshadweep (C) Chandigarh (D) Puducherry 12. Which of the following is the smallest Parliamentary Constituency in terms of area ? (A) Chandni Chowk (Delhi) (B) Sadar (Delhi) (C) Kolkata North West (D) Mumbai South 13. Who is the author of the book ‘Two Lives’ ? (A) Vikram Seth (B) James Patterson (C) Ved Mehta (D) Khushwant Singh 14. Which of the following sets of countries are referred to as ‘The Golden Crescent’ the largest opium industry in the world ? (A) Myanmar, Laos and Thailand (B) Afghanistan, Iran and Iraq (C) Afghanistan, Pakistan and Iran (D) Myanmar, Malaysia and Thailand 15. Which is the anti-coagulant substance in blood ? (A) Fibrinogen (B) Heparin (C) Thrombin (D) Globin 16. Which group of the following countries participated in the ‘Malabar 07,’ a six days joint naval exercise (September 4-9) involving 25 warships, in the Bay of Bengal ? (A) India, U. S., Japan, Australia and South Korea (B) India, U.S., Australia, Singapore and South Korea (C) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and Australia (D) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and South Korea 17. Who coined the term ‘Hindu rate of growth’ for Indian economy ? (A) A. K. Sen (B) Kirit S. Parikh (C) Raj Krishna (D) Montek Singh Ahluwalia 18. Sri ARVIND KEJRIWAL has been selected for the RAMON MAGSAYSAY AWARD for 2006 for his important contribution in the field— (A) Formation of Pani (water) Panchayats in Rajasthan helping rural people in facing their acute water problem (B) Effective implementation of the ‘National Minimum Employment Guarantee Scheme’ in rural areas (C) ‘Right to Information’ movement and empowering citizens to fight corruption (D) Extending education to children of slum dwellers in Delhi 19. The three day VIII World Hindi Conference was held in July, 2007 at— (A) New Delhi (B) London (C) Now York (D) Kathmandu 20. In which country is the volcano Mount Gamkonora, the highest peak of Halmahera island, which erupted in July, 2007 located ? (A) Japan (B) Indonesia (C) Russia (D) France 21. Name the Vice-captain of the Indian Cricket Team which toured South Africa in T-20 tournament recently— (A) Virender Sehwag (B) Anil Kumble (C) Irfan Pathan (D) Yuvraj Singh 22. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) consists of— (A) China, Russia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan (B) China, Russia, Mongolia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan and Tajikistan (C) China, Russia, Mongolia, Iran, Kazhakistan and Uzbekistan (D) China, Russia, Iran, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan 23. Which one of the following companies announced sometime back the launch of India’s first personal computer with one terabyte hard drive capacity ? (A) Infosys Technologies (B) Wipro (C) HCL Infosystems (D) IBM 24. Which of the following companies has become the highest ranked Indian company in the Fortune Global 500 list (at 135th position) in terms of sales ? (A) Wipro (B) Reliance (C) Indian Oil Corporation (D) ONGC 25. Which one of the following has not been included in the list of new seven wonders ? (A) Roman Colosseum (Italy) (B) Machu Picchu (Peru) (C) Eiffel Tower in Paris (France) (D) Christ the Redeemer (Brazil) 26. The Chairman of the Indian Censor Board of Film is— (A) Shri Anupam Kher (B) Shri Gulzar (C) Smt. Sharmila Tagore (D) Shri Sanjeev Kumar 27. The major harmful gas emitted by automobile vehicles which causes air pollution is— (A) Carbon Monoxide (B) Methane (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Ozone gas 28. Who among the following is not a classical economist ? (A) David Ricardo (B) John Stuart Mill (C) Thomas Malthus (D) John Maynard Keynes 29. According to the Employment Outlook 2007 reports of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), the number of new jobs created in India every year from 2000 to 2005 is— (A) 5 million (B) 8 million (C) 11 million (D) 13 million 30. ‘World Bank’ is also known as— (A) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (B) International Bank for Rehabilitation and Development (C) International Bank for Refinance and Development (D) International Bank for Research and Development 31. By which Bill does the Government propose collection of revenues for a year ? (A) Economic Bill (B) Finance Bill (C) Supplementary Bill (D) None of the above 32. Which is the oldest trade union organization in India ? (A) Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC) (B) Centre of Indian Trade Unions (CITU) (C) All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) (D) Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS) 33. Prof. Amartya Sen was awarded Nobel Prize for his contribution to the field of— (A) Food and Famines (B) Welfare economics (C) Indian economy (D) Poverty 34. Which of the following items is a major item of Indian export ? (A) Computer chips (B) Potato chips (C) Textile garments (D) Car engines 35. Indian agriculture is typically characterised as— (A) Land surplus, labour scarce economy (B) Land surplus, labour surplus economy (C) Land scarce, labour surplus economy (D) Land scarce, labour scarce economy 36. The process of curing inflation by reducing money supply is called— (A) Cost-push inflation (B) Demand-pull inflation (C) Disinflation (D) Reflation 37. Which of the following pair of goods are close substitutes ? (A) Milk and Sugar (B) Sugar and Tea (C) Tea and Coffee (D) Coffee and Biscuits 38. Long-term funds in the capital market can be raised either by borrowing from certain institutions or through— (A) Issue of note (B) Taking loan from Government (C) Issue of securities (D) Taking loan from foreign institutions 39. As required by the WTO agreement, the Indian Patent Act was amended in 1999. The Act first came into force in the year— (A) 1965 (B) 1970 (C) 1975 (D) 1980 40. The Indian Parliament is competent to enact law on a State subject if— (A) Emergency under Article 352 is in operation (B) All the State Assemblies of the country make such a request (C) The President sends such a message to Parliament (D) None of the above 41. The President of India enjoys emergency powers of— (A) Four types (B) Two types (C) Five types (D) Three types 42. Sarvodaya stands for— (A) Total revolution (B) Non-cooperation (C) Upliftment of all (D) Non-violence 43. Right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights during the rule of— (A) Indira Gandhi Government (B) Morarji Desai Government (C) Narasimha Rao Government (D) Vajpayee Government 44. The chapter or Fundamental Duties includes— (A) Duty to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our freedom movement (B) Duty to vote in General Election (C) Duty to promote the sense of fraternity among the people (D) Duty to stick to the political party on whose ticket one contested election 45. In which city of South Africa was Gandhi beaten up and thrown off the pavement by the white people ? (A) Cape Town (B) Durban (C) Johannesburg (D) Pretoria 46. A national political party is one which receives 4% of the total votes polled in— (A) Two or more States (B) The capital city (C) Four or more States (D) In all the States 47. The basic features of the Indian Constitution which are not amendable under Article 368 are— (A) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system and judicial review (B) Sovereignty, territorial integrity and parliamentary system of government (C) Judicial review and the federal system (D) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system, judicial review and parliamentary system of government 48. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy ? (A) Part I (B) Part III (C) Part IV (D) Part V 49. How many types of writs can be issued by the Supreme Court ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 6 50. Which of the following countries is not a member of the SAARC ? (A) Bangladesh (B) Bhutan (C) Maldives (D) Myanmar 51. The Supreme Court of India enjoys— (A) Original jurisdictions (B) Advisory jurisdictions (C) Appellate and advisory jurisdictions (D) Original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions 52. Who attended the Congress of Oppressed Nationalists at Brussels in 1927, on behalf of the National Congress ? (A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Mahatma Gandhi (C) Dr. Ansari (D) Motilal Nehru 53. Who amongst the following made it possible for the Indians to enter the Indian Civil Service through an open competitive examination ? (A) William Bentinck (B) Dalhousie (C) Mayo (D) Ripon 54. In which year Lala Lajpat Rai was deported to Mandalay for organising the agrarian movement in Punjab ? (A) 1905 (B) 1907 (C) 1909 (D) 1911 55. Which Governor General had entertained Ranjit Singh with great honour at Ropar ? (A) Minto I (B) William Bentinck (C) Hastings (D) Auckland 56. The Khajli Sultans of Delhi were— (A) Mongols (B) Afghans (C) Turks (D) A Jat tribe 57. The ‘Arya Samaj’ was founded by— (A) Swami Dayananda Saraswati (B) Swami Vivekananda (C) Keshav Chandra Sen (D) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar 58. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad started an Urdu Weekly, The Al-Hilal in 1912, but, on its being banned by the Government, he founded the Al-Balagh in— (A) 1913 (B) 1914 (C) 1915 (D) 1916 59. High Courts were established in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in— (A) 1935 (B) 1919 (C) 1892 (D) 1862 60. Who was the first Woman President of Indian National Congress ? (A) Sarojini Naidu (B) Sucheta Kripalani (C) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur (D) Annie Besant 61. Arabs were defeated in 738 A. D. by— (A) Pratiharas (B) Rashtrakutas (C) Palas (D) Chalukyas 62. Which of the following reform movements was the first to be started in the 19th century ? (A) Prarthana Samaj (B) Brahmo Samaj (C) Arya Samaj (D) Rama Krishna Mission 63. The rulers of Vijayanagar promoted— (A) Hindi, Marathi and Sanskrit (B) Malayalam, Tamil and Sanskrit (C) Tamil, Telugu and Sanskrit (D) Telugu, Urdu and Sanskrit 64. In India, the irrigation of agricultural land is carried out maximum by— (A) Canals (B) Wells (C) Tubewells (D) Tanks 65. The four largest planets of the Solar System in decreasing sizes are— (A) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Uranus (B) Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn and Neptune (C) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune (D) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Neptune 66. Which of the following produces maximum crude petroleum in India at present ? (A) Assam (B) Gujarat (C) Off-shore Bombay High (D) Coastal Tamil Nadu 67. India is one of the largest producers of manganese are in the world along with— (A) China and Russia (B) Brazil and Russia (C) Australia and U.S.A. (D) South Africa and U.S.A. 68. The ‘Chipko Movement’ is related to— (A) Wildlife preservation (B) Forest conservation (C) Scientific agriculture (D) Deforestation 69. Which of the following rivers makes an estuary ? (A) Cauvery (B) Krishna (C) Narmada (D) Ganga 70. Baltora glacier is located in— (A) Karakoram ranges (B) Pamir plateau (C) Shivalik (D) Alps 71. The largest producer of world’s mica is— (A) U.S.A. (B) U.K. (C) Canada (D) India 72. The International Date Line is the— (A) 180° Longitude (B) 88½° East Longitude (C) Equator (D) 0° Longitude 73. Which of the following countries has highest percentage of land under cultivation ? (A) China (B) U.S.A. (C) Canada (D) India 74. Aryabhata was launched from— (A) Sriharikota (B) Mahe (C) Chandipur (D) Daman 75. How for does the Exclusive Economic Zone of a country extend from her coast ? (A) 120 km (B) 220 km (C) 320 km (D) 420 km 76. In which of the following groups, animals bear no teeth ? (A) Peacock, Ostrich, Tortoise (B) Owl, Loris, Crow (C) Alligator, Turtle, Tortoise (D) Turtle, Kiwi, Cow 77. Jaundice is a symptom of disease of— (A) Kidney (B) Liver (C) Pancreas (D) Thyroid 78. The vaccination against small pox involves the introduction of— (A) Killed germs (B) Weakened germs (C) Live antibodies (D) Activated germs 79. Deficiency of Vitamin B6 in man causes— (A) Rickets (B) Scurvy (C) Beri-beri (D) Anaemia 80. Which is the national flower of India ? (A) Rose (B) Lotus (C) Lily (D) Sunflower 81. First successful heart transplantation was done by— (A) D. S. Paintal (B) C. N. Barnard (C) D. Shetty (D) P. K. Sen 82. Yellow Fever is transmitted by— (A) Aedes (B) Anopheles (C) House-fly (D) Culex 83. Which one of the following is a major green house gas ? (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Chloro fluorocarbon (C) Carbon monoxide (D) Freon 84. In atmosphere the lowermost layer is— (A) Troposphere (B) Exosphere (C) Ionosphere (D) Strato sphere 85. Washing of peeled vegetables removes the vitamin— (A) A (B) C (C) D (D) E 86. Pasteurisation is the process in which milk is heated to— (A) 60° C for 10 minutes (B) 63° C for 20 minutes (C) 63° C for 30 minutes (D) 72° C for 10 minutes 87. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer from the code given below : List-I (Discoverer) (a) Jenner (b) Watson (c) Landsteiner (d) Flemming List-II (Discoveries) 1. Blood grouping 2. Penicillin 3. Vaccination 4. Double helix Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 3 1 2 4 (B) 3 4 2 1 (C) 3 4 1 2 (D) 3 2 4 1 88. Which of the following is most elastic ? (A) Rubber (B) Wet clay (C) Steel (D) Plastic 89. The first ever robot spacecraft to probe planet Venus was named— (A) Galileo (B) Magellan (C) Newton (D) Challenger 90. A man with colour blindness will see red as— (A) Yellow (B) Blue (C) Green (D) Violet 91. Comets revolve around the— (A) Earth (B) Venus (C) Sun (D) Jupiter 92. When a person walking in bright Sunlight enters a dark room, he is not able to see clearly for a little while because— (A) The eye muscles cannot immediately adjust the focal length of the eye lens (B) The retina retains the bright images for sometime and becomes momentarily insensitive (C) The iris is, unable to contract the pupil immediately (D) The iris is unable to dilate the pupil immediately 93. The swing of a spinning cricket ball in air can be explained on the basis of— (A) Sudden change in wind direction (B) Buoyancy of air (C) Turbulance caused by wind (D) Bernoulli’s theorem 94. The freezer in a refrigerator is fitted near the top— (A) To keep it away from hot compressor which is nearer to the bottom (B) Because of convenience (C) It facilitates convection currents (D) To minimise power consumption 95. The chemical name of ‘Common salt’ is— (A) Sodium chloride (B) Sodium nitrate (C) Ammonium chloride (D) Calcium chloride 96. Denatured spirit is ethanol mixed with— (A) Petrol (B) Kerosene (C) Water (D) Pyridine 97. The metal, which is a constituent of vitamin B12 is— (A) Iron (B) Magnesium (C) Zinc (D) Cobalt 98. The most abundant inert gas in the atmosphere is— (A) Helium (B) Neon (C) Argon (D) Krypton 99. Which metal is extracted from sea water ? (A) Potassium (B) Magnesium (C) Aluminium (D) Beryllium 100. Precentage of lead in lead pencils is— (A) 0 (B) 31 – 66 (C) 40 (D) 80 Answers with Explanations 1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (B) As per population census 2001 the literacy rate in India is 64.8%. 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (B) 21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (A) 31. (B) 32. (C) AITUC was established is 1920, which was the first national level trade union organisation in India to organise workers in the country. 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (A) 41. (D) 42. (C) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (D) 51. (D) 52. (A) 53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (C) 57. (A) 58. (C) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (C) 66. (A) 67. (A) 68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (A) 71. (D) 72. (A) 73. (D) In India cultivated land is nearly 55% while in USA it is only 44%. 74. First Indian satellite Aryabhata was launched on April 19, 1975 by the Soviet rocket, Cosmodrome (Soviet Union). 75. (C) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (B) 81. (B) 82. (A) 83. (A) 84. (A) 85. (B) 86. (C) 87. (C) 88. (C) 89. (B) 90. (C) 91. (C) 92. (B) 93. (D) 94. (C) 95. (A) 96. (C) 97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (B) |
#3
17th March 2015, 08:38 AM
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Re: CDS Exam Pattern
I want to appear in Combined Defence Services exam conducted by Union Public Service Commission . Will you please provide the exam pattern ?
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#4
17th March 2015, 09:46 AM
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Re: CDS Exam Pattern
CDS exam held by the UPSC for recruitment to the Indian Military Academy, Officers Training Academy, Naval Academy and Air Force Academy. Exam pattern:- CDS 2015 Exam Pattern shall consist of a) written examination b) interview and personality test The Syllabus for the exam contains topic from the subjects English, General Knowledge and Mathematics. Below you may find the detailed topics: Elementary Mathematics:- Trigonometry Arithmetic Algebra Geometry Mensuration Statistics General Knowledge:- Questions are based on current topics, science, history of India, geography, etc. English:- This paper tests candidates' knowledge in the English language. CDS Exam Books CDS Chapterwise - Sectionwise Solved Papers 1st Edition by Author: Arihant Experts CDS Exam Guide: Combined Defence Services Exam by Author: Datason Rp CDS Combined Defence Services Examination Practice Papers by Author: Sachchida Nand Jha For your idea , here I am giving attachment of question paper CDS Exam Paper |
#5
23rd July 2015, 02:23 PM
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CDS Exam Pattern
Ton start preparation for Union Public Service Commission Combined Defence Services Exam, I want to know UPSC CDS exam paper pattern, will you please provide here???
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#6
23rd July 2015, 05:20 PM
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Re: CDS Exam Pattern
Union Public Service Commission is going to conducts Combined Defence Services Exam for recruitment of various vacancies under Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy and Officers Training Academy. Written Exam pattern: Written Exam consists of Objective Type questions and time duration 2hrs and maximum marks is 100 for each subject. For the candidates who are appearing for Indian Military Academy, Naval Academy, Air force Academy written test comprising of English, General Knowledge and Elementary mathematics subjects. For candidates who are appearing for officers training academy the written test comprising of English and General Knowledge subjects. Syllabus: Paper 1: English Reading Comprehension Jumbled Sentence Fill in the blanks Sentence Correction Finding errors and omittions etc Paper 2: General Knowledge Knowledge of current topics knowledge of History of India and Geographical issues Indian Economy Current happening in the field of business, politics, sports, entertainment etc. Monuments of India Books and Authors name etc Paper 3: Elementary Mathematics Arithmetic Algebra Geometry Trigonometry Menstruation Statistics |