AIIMS Medical Exam Last year solved question paper

Can you provide me the AIIMS Medical Exam Last year solved question paper????

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Here I am sharing the AIIMS Medical Exam Last year solved question paper:

Q1. Which of the following signs is not suggestive of a cervical spinal cord injury ?
A) Flacidity.
B) Increased rectal sphincter tone.
C) Diaphragmatic breathing.
D) Priapism.
Answer 3,

Q2) With regard to Ketamine, all of the following are true except
A) It is a direct myocardial depressant.
B) Emergence phenomena are more likely if anticholinergic premedication is used.
C) It may induce cardiac dysarrythmias in patients receiving tricyclic antidepressants.
D) Has no effect on intracranial pressure
Answer 4,

Q3) Placement of a double lumen tube for lung surgery is best confirmed by:
a) EtCo2 ?
b) Airway pressure measurement
c) Clinically by auscultation
d) Bronchoscopy ?
Answer 4

4. The most common cause of hypoxia during one lung ventilation is:
a) Malposition of the double lumen tube.
b) Increased shunt fraction
c) Collapse of one lung
d) Soiling of lung by secretions.
Answer 2?
5. A head injured patient, who opens eyes to painful stimulus, is confused and localizes to
pain. What is his Glasgow coma Score?
a) 7
b) 9
c) 11
d) 13
Answer 3. Eye opening with pain 2, confused mentl status 4, localization of pain 5. Therefore
2+2+5 = 11
6. The outcome following resuscitation of a cardiac arrest is worsened if during resuscitation
patient is given:
a) Ringer's Lactate
b) Colloids
c) 5% Dextrose
d) Whole blood transfusion
Answer 3,

7. A 5 year old child is suffering from cyanotic heart disease. He is planned for corrective
surgery. The induction agent of the choice would be:
a) Thiopentone
b) Ketamine
c) Halothane
d) Midazolam
Answer 2,

8. A 30-year-old woman with coarctation of aorta is admitted to the labour room for elective
caesarean section. Which of the following is the anaesthesia technique of choice:
a) Spinal anaesthesia
b) Epidural anaesthesia
c) General anaesthesia
d) Local anaesthesia with nerve blocks.
Answer 2
9. Which of the following is not a cardiovascular monitoring technique:
a) Transesophageal echocardiography
b) Central venous pressure monitoring
c) Pulmonary artery catheterization
d) Capnography
Answer 4
10. A 6 month old child is suffering from patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) with congestive
cardiac failure. Ligation of ductus arteriosus was decided for surgical management. The most
appropriate inhalational anaesthetic agent of choice with minimal haemodynamic alteration
for induction of anaesthesia is:
a) Sevoflurane
b) Isoflurane
c) Enflurance
d) Halothane
Answer1 / PDA is a left to right. So we need systemic hypotension and pulmonary
hypertension during surgery.
In children choice is sevoflurane as it causes the same, and used as a preferred agent. Adults
it would have been desflurane.
Isoflurane is agent of choice in all cardiac surgery except cardiac ischeamia. Page 62, 63,
130, 158 Ajay Yadav, Anaesthesia
11. A 45 year old woman, presenting with the history of diplopia and dysphagia worsening as
the day progrsses, can be diagnosed to have:
a) Thyrotoxicosis
b) Myasthenia gravis
c) Muscular dystrophy
d) Brain tumor
Answer 2
12. The most sensitive and practical technique for detection of myocardial ischemia in the
perioperative period is:
a) Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy
b) Radio labeled lactate determination
c) Direct measurement of end diastolic pressure
d) Regional wall motion abnormality detected wth the help of 2 D
transoesphagealechocardiography
Answer 4,

13. While introducing the Swan-ganz catheter, its placement in the pulmonary artern can be
identified by the following pressure tracing:
a) Diastolic pressure is lower in PA than in RV
b) Diastolic pressure is higher in PA than in RV.
c) PA pressure tracing has diacrotic notch from closure of pulmonary valve.
d) RV pressure tracing for plateau and sharp drop in early diastole.
Answer 3?
14. A 63 year old man presents with a triad of angina, syncope and congestive heart failure.
Which of the following valvular heart lesion can be suspected?
a) Mitral stenosis
b) Tricuspid regurgitation
c) Aortic stenosis
d) Aortic regurgitation.
Answer3
15. In the treatment of severe bradycardia, all of the following can be the best modality of
treatment except:
a) Atropine
b) Pacing
c) Isoproterenol
d) Ditiazem
Answer 4, page number 184 Ajay Yadav
16. All of the following statements about the splenic artery are true except that it:
a) Has a tortuous course
b) Is a branch of the coelic trunk
c) Has branches that anastomose freely within the spleen
d) Supplies the greater curvature of stomach.
Answer 3
17. All of the following statement about the vagus nerve are true except that it:
a) Supplies heart and lung
b) Carries postganglionic parasympathetic fibers.
c) Innervates right two third of transverse colon.
d) Stimulates peristalsis & relaxes sphincters.
Answer 2
18. All of the following structures pass through the superior aperture of throax except:
a) Right recurrent laryngeal nerve
b) Left common carotid artern
c) Left sympathetic trunk
d) Thoracic duct
Answer 1?
19. The vertebal artery traverses all of the following except:
a) Foramen magnum
b) Subarachnoid space
c) Intervertebral foramen
d) Foramen transversarium
Answer 3?, passes thru upper six vertebrae's transverse foramen,
20. Which of the following among axillary lympth nodes is a terminal group ?
a) Pectoral
b) Central
c) Lateral
d) Apical
Answer 4
21. The distribution of random blood glucose measurements from 50 first year medical
students was found to have a mean of 3.0 mmol/litre with a standard deviation of 3.0
mmol/litre. Which of the following is a correct statement about the shape of the distribution
of random blood glucose in these first year medical students?
a) Since both mean and standard deviation are equal, it should be a symmetric distribution
b) The distribution is likely to be positively skewed
c) The distribution is likely to be negatively skewed.
d) Nothing can be said conclusively.
Answer 2?

22. In an investigation to study the effect of smoking on renal cell cancer, it is observed that
30 of the 50 patients were smokers as compared to 10 out of 50 control subjects. The odd
ratio of renal cancer associated with smoking will be:
a) 3.0
b) 0.33
c) 6.0
d) 0.16
Answer 3
23. A chest physician observed that the distribution of forced expiratory volume (FEV) in
300 smokers had a median value of 2.5 litres with the first and third quartiles being 1.5 and
4.5 litres respectively. Based on this data how many persons in the smaple are expected to
have a FEV between 1.5 to 4.5 litres ?
a) 75
b) 150
c) 225
d) 300
Answer 2
24. If the distribution of intra-ocular pressure (IOP) seen in 100 glaucoma patients has an
average 30 mm with a SD of 10 what is the lower limit to the average IOP that can be
expected 95% of times?
a) 28
b) 26
c) 32
d) 25
Answer 1
25. A diagonstic test for a particular disease has a sensitivity of 0.90 and specificity of .90. A
single test is applied to each subject in the population in which the diseased population is
10%. What is the probability that a person positive to this test, has the disease?
a) 90%
b) 81%
c) 50%
d) 91%
Answer 3
26. Henoch-Schonlein purpura is characterized by the depositin of the following
immunoglobulin around the vessels:
a) Ig M
b) Ig G
c) Ig A
d) Ig E
Answer 3
27. Angiod streaks in the eyes are seen in :
a) Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
b) Tendinous xanthoma
c) Xanthelasma
d) Eruptive xanthoma
Answer 1
28. Exclamation mark hair is a feature of:
a) Telogen effluvium
b) Andogenetic alopecia
c) Alopecia areata
d) Alpecia mucinosa
Answer 3
29. Pautrier's micro-abscess is a histological feature of:
a) Sarcoidosis
b) Tuberculosis
c) Mycosis fungoides
d) Pityriasis Lichenoides Chronica
Answer 3
30. Adenoma sebaceum is a feature of:
a) Neurofibromatosis
b) Tuberous sclerosis
c) Xanthomatosis
d) Incontinentia pigmenti
Answer 2
31. A 25 year old male presented with pigmentation of nose and pinna. After voiding, his
urine becomes dark. His spine is most likely to show:
a) Atlantoaxial subluxation
b) Spondyloptosis
c) Basilar invagination
d) Calcification of disc
Answer 4
32. A one year old child presented with multiple fractures seen in various stages of healing.
The most probable diagonis in this case is:
a) Scurvy
b) Rickets
c) Battered baby syndrome
d) Sickle cell disease
Answer 3
33. A 50 year old man presented with multiple pathological fractures. His serum calcium was
11.5mg/dl and phosphate was 2.5 mg/dl. Alkaline phosphatase was 940 I.U./dl. The most
probable diagnosis is:
a) Osteoporosis
b) Osteomalacia
c) Multiple Myeloma
d) Hyperparathyrodism
Answer 4
34. Pain and tenderness over the lateral condyle of humerous with a painful dorsi flexion of
the wrist is indicative of:
a) Golfer's Elbow
b) Tennis Elbow
c) Pitcher's Elbow
d) Cricket Elbow
Answer 2
35. The pain around the hip with flexion adduction & internal rotation of lower limb in a
young adult after a road traffic accident is suggestive of:
a) Intracapsular fracture of the femoral neck.
b) Extra capsular fracture of the femoral neck.
c) Posterior disclocation of hip.
d) Anterior dislocation of hip
Answer. 3
36. The inheritance pattern of familial Retinoblastomas is:
a) Autosomal recessive
b) Autosomal dominant
c) X-linked dominant
d) X-linked recessive
Answer 2
37. The lymphocytic and histiocytic variant of Reed-Sternberg cell is seen in:
a) Follicular center lymphoma
b) Lymphocyte depleted Hodgkin's disease
c) Nodular sclerosis Hodgkin's disease
d) Lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin's disease
Answer. 4
38. A metastatic carcinoma in the brain of an adult, most often comes from a primary in the :
a) Stomach
b) Ovary
c) Oral cavity
d) Lung
Answer 4
39. Features, which are evaluated for histological grading of breast carcinoma include all of
the following except:
a) Tumour necrosis
b) Mitotic count
c) Tubule formation
d) Nuclear pleomorphism
Answer 1
40. Internucleosomal cleavage of DNA is characteristic of:
a) Reversible cell injury
b) Irreversible cell injury
c) Necrosis
d) Apoptosis
Answer 4
41. Which of the following is not a common site for metastatic calcification?
a)Gastric mucosa
b) Kidney
c) Parathyroid
d) Lung
Answer 3
42. On electron microscopy, amyloid characteristically exhibits:
a) B-pleated sheat
b) Hyaline globules
c) 7.5-10nm fibrils
d) 20-25 nm fibrils
Answer 3
43. Which of the following is not compaitible with a diagnosis of juvenile myelemonocytic
leukemia?
a) Peripharal blood monocytosis, more than 1x109/L
b) Increased of bcr/abl fusion gene
c) Presence of bcr/abl fusion gene.
d) GM-CSF hypersensitivity of myeloid progenitors in vitro.
Answer 3
44. A 48 year old woman was admitted with a history of weakness for two months. On
examination, cervical lympth nodes were found enlarged and spleen was palpable 2 cm below
the costal margin. Her hemoglobin was 10.5g/dl, platelet count 237 x 109/L, which included
80% mature lymphoid cells with coarse clumped chromatin. Bone marrow revealed a nodula
lymphoid infiltrate. The peripheral blood lymphoid cells were positive for CD19, CD5, CD20
and CD23 and were negative for CD79B and FMC-7.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) T-cell rich B-cell lymphoma with leukemic spill over in blood.
b) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
c) Mantle cell lymphoma
d) A definite diagnosis cannot be made in this patient without lymph node biopsy.
Answer 2
45. All of the following are examples of a round cell tumor, except:
a) Neuroblastoma
b) Ewing's sarcoma
c) Non Hodgkin,s Lymphoma
d) Osteosarcoma
Answer 4
46. Which of the following surface glycoproteins is most often expressed in human
hematopoietic stem cell?
a) CD22
b) CD40
c) CD15 `
d) CD34
Answer 4
47. The tumor suppressor gene p53 induces cell cycle arrest at:
a) G2-M phase
b) S-G2 phase
c) G1-phase
d) G0 phase
Answer. 3
48. During which phase of the cell cycle the cellular content of DNA is doubled?
a) Mitotic phase
b) G1 phase
c) G2 phase
d) S phase
Answer 4
49. Acute diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis will have all of the following features,
except:
a) Microscopic haematuria
b) Raised blood urea level
c) Raised serum creatinine level
d) Hypoalbuminaemia
Answer 4
50. All of the following are mediators of acute inflammation except:
a) Angiotensin
b) Prostaglandin E2
c) Kallikrein
d) C3a
Answer 1


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