AIIMS MBBS Questions and Answers

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AIIMS MBBS 2013 Previous Year Question Paper with Answers

Physics

1. to obtain a p-type germanium semiconductor, it must be doped with

(a) arsenic
(b) antimony
(c) Indium
(d) phosphorous

2. Sound waves do not.show the phenomenon of

(a) interference
(b) diffraction
(e) refraction
(d) polarisation

3. The magnifying power of a compound microscope is high If

(a) both me objective and the eyepiece has short focal lengths
(b) both the objectve and the eyepiece have long focal lengths
(c) the objective has a Short focal length and the eyepiece has a long focal length
(d)the objective has a long focal length and the eyepiece has a short focal length

4. 1 curie is

(a) 1 dps
(b) 3 x 1010dps
(c) 106 cos
(d) 3.7 x 1010dps

5. to double the covering range of a TV transmitter tower, its height should be made

(a) 2 times
(b) 4 times
(c) √2 times
(d) 8 times

6. An alternatmg voltage V = V0sin ωτ is applied across a circuit. As result I = I0 sin(ωτ)- π/2)flows ill it. The power consumed per cycle is

(a) zero
(b) 0.5 V0I0
(d) 0.707 V0I0
(d) 1.414 V0I0

7. A slab consist of two portions of different materials of same thickness and having the conductivities K1 and K2. The equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab is



8. A prism is made up 0f material of refractive index √3. The angle of prism is A. If the angle of minimum deviation is equal to the angle of the prism, then the value of A is
(a) 30o
(b) 45o
(c) 60o
(d) 75o

9. The following table

is a truth table for

(a) NAND gate
(b) NOR gate
(c) XOR gate
(d) AND gate

10. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 10 day. This means that

(a) the substance completely disintegrates in 20 days.
(b) the substance completely disintegrates in 40 days.
(c) 1/8 part at the mass of the substance will be left intact at the end of 40 days
(d) 7/8 part of the mass of the substance disintegrates in 30 days.

11. A source and an observer are moving towards each other with a speed equal to υ/2, where υ is the speed of sound. The
source is emitting sound of frequency n.The frequency heard by one observer will be

(a) Zero
(b) n
(c) n/3
(d) 3n

12. Velocity of sound waves in air is 330 m/s. for a particular sound in air a path difference of 40 cm is equivalent to phase difference of 1.6π. The frequency of the wave is

(a) 165 Hz
(b) 150 Hz
(c) 660 Hz
(d) 330 Hz

13. The power factor of the circuit shown in figure is

(a) 0.2
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.8
(d) 0.6

14. A particle is executing linear simple harmonic motion amplitude A. What fraction of the total energy is kinetic when the displacement is half the amplitude.

(a) 1/4
(b) 1/2√2
(c) 1/2
(d) 3/4

15. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by y1=4sin(πt– π/2) and y2=3cos(4πt). The resultant amplitude is

(a) /
(b) 1
(c) 5
(d) 2+√3

16. Three plates 0f common surface area A are connected as shown in figure. The effective capacitance will be


17. When 20 J of work was done on gas. 40 J of heat energy was released If the initial energy of the gas was 70 J what is the final internal energy’?

(a) 50 J
(b) -150 J
(c) 90 J
(d) 110 J

18. The value of g at a particular point is 9.8 ms-2 Suppose the earth suddenly shrinks uniformly to half it resent size without losing any mass . The value of g at the same point (distance of the point from the centre of earth does not change) Will now be

(a) 9.8 ms-2
(b) 4.9 ms-2
(c) 19.6 ms-2
(d) 39.2 ms-2

19. A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of viscous liquid. Which of the following graphs represent the variation of
(i) gravitational force with time
(ii) viscous force with time
(iii) net force acting on the ball with time?


(a) Q.R.P
(b) R.Q.P
(c) P.Q.R
(d) R.P.Q

20. The Young’s modulus of a wire of length L the radius r is y newton per square meter lf the length is reduced to L/2 and radius L/2 Its Young’s modulus will be

(a) y/2
(b) y
(c) 2y
(d) 4y

21. A boy of mass m stands on one end of a wooden plank of length L. and muss M The plank is floating on water, If the boy walks from one end of the plank to the other end at a constant speed the
resulting displacement of the plank is given by

(a) mL/M
(b) ML/m
(c) mL/M+m
(d) mL/M-m

22. A sphere of solid material of relative density 9 has a concentric spherical cavity and Just sinks in water. If the radius of sphere be R. then the radius of cavity (r) will be related to R as


23. Average value of kinetic energy and potential energy over entire time period in a SHM is


24. in which of the state- shown in figure, is potential energy of a electric dipole maximum?


25. A car is travelling with a linear velocity u on a Circular road of radius r. If It is increasing its speed at the rate of a m/s2 then the resultant acceleration will be


26. A uniform magnetic field parallel to the plane of paper, exsisted in space initially directed from left to right. When a bar of soft Iron is placed in the field parallel to it, the lines of force passing through It will be represented by figure.


27. A body starts from rest and moves with a uniform acceleration. The ratio of the distance covered in the n th second to the distance covered in nsecond



28. Wind blowing from South at 10 m/s but to a cyclist it appears to be blowing from the East at 10 m/s The cyclist has a velocity

(a) 10i – 10j
(b) 10i + 10j
(c) – 10i + 10j
(d) – 10i – 10j

29. The current. i and voltage V graphs for a given metallic wire at two different temperatures T1 and T2 are shown in the figure. It is concluded that


30. The internal resistance of primary cell is 4Ω. It generates a current of 0.2 A in an external resistance of 21Ω. The rate at which chemical energy is consumed is providing the current is

(a) 0.42 J/s
(b) 0.24 J/s
(c) 5 J/s
(d) 1 J/s

31. There are four point charges +q, -q, +q and -q are placed at the corners A, B, C, and D respectively of a square of side a.The potential energy of the system is 1/4πε0 times



32. The potential difference across the 3 Ω resistor shown in figure is


(a) zero
(b) 1 V
(c) 3 5 V
(d) 7V

33. There are N cells in the circuit of figure. The emf and internal resistance of each cell is E and r respectively. The points A and B in the circuit divide the circuit into n and (N – n) cells. The current in the circuit is

(a) E/r
(b) nE/r
(c) NE/Nr
(d) Zero

34. The earth’s magnetic field at a certain place has a horizontal component of 0.3 G and total strength 0.5 G. Find angle of dip in tan -1


35. Two spherical conductors A and B of radii a and b (b> a) are placed concentrically in air. The two arc connected by a copper wire as shown in figure. The equivalent capacitance of the system is


36. The magnetic flux linked with the coil varies with time as φ = 3t24t + 9. The magnitude of the induced emf of 2s is

(a) 9 V
(b) 16 V
(c) 3 V
(d) 4 V

37. The force F is given by expression F = A cos(Bx) Csin(Dt), where x is the displacement and t is the time. Then dimension of D/B are same as that of

(a) velocity [LT-1]
(b) angular velocity[T-1]
(c) angular momentum[ML2T-1]
(d) velocity gradient[T-1]

38. The thermo cmf of a thermocouple varies with the temperature θ of the hot junction as
E = aθ.bθ2 volt
where the ratio (a/b) is 700°C. If the cold junction is kept at O°C, then the neutral temperature is

(a) 700°C
(b) 350°C
(c) 1400°C
(d) no neutral temperature is possible

39.The wire shown is figure tames a current of 32 A. If r = 3.14 cm. the magnetic field at point P will be


40. Carbon, silicon and germanium are semiconductors having four valance e If their respective band gap energies between conduction and valence band are (Eg)c, (Eg)S1, (Eg)Ge

(a)(Eg)S1<(Eg)Ge<(Eg)c
(b)(Eg)c<(Eg)Ge>(Eg)S1
(c)(Eg)c>(Eg)S1>(Eg)Ge
(d)(Eg)c=(Eg)Ge=(Eg)S1

Directions (Q. Noa. 41 to 60) in each of the following questions, two statement are given One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below

(a)If both the assertion and reason are true and reason explains the assertion
(b)If both the assertion and reason are true but reason does not explain the assertion
(c)If assertion is true but reason is false
(d)If assertion is false but reason is true

41. Assertion in an elastic collision between two bodies. the energy of each body is conserved
Reason The total energy of an isolated system is conserved.

42. Assertion A body can he at rest even when it is under the action of any number of external forces
Reason Vector sum of all the external forces is zero

43. Assertion in a non-uniform circular motion, the acceleration of the particle is equal to sum of the tangential acceleration and the centripetal acceleration.
Reason The two acceleration are perpendicular to each other.

44. Assertion A body can have acceleration even if its velocity is zero at that instant of time.
Reason The body will be momentarily at rest when it reserves its direction of motion.

45. Assertion Work done in moving a charge between any two points in a uniform electric field is independent of the path followed by the charge. between these points.
Reason Electrostatic forces are non conservative

46. Assertion in a transistor amplifier. the output voltage is always nut of phase with the input voltage.
Reason The emitter base junction is reverse biased and the base collector Junction is forward biased

47. Assertion in case of pure rolling. the force of friction becomes zero.
Reason The speed at the point of contact is zero.

48. Assertion Heat from the sun reaches the earth by convection.
Reason Air can be heated only by convection.

49. Assertion A wire carrying an electric current has no electric field around it.
Reason Rate of flow of electron’s in one direction is equal to the rate of flow of protons in opposite direction.

50. Assertion If an electron and proton enter a perpendicular magnetic field with equal momentum, then radius of curve for electron is more than that of proton.
Reason Electron has less mass than proton.

51. Assertion The ratio Cp/Cvis more for helium gas than for hydrogen gas.

Reason Atomic mass of helium is more than that of hydrogen.

52. Assertion Our ears cannot distinguish two notes, one produced by a violin and other by a guitar. if they have exactly same intensity and same frequency.
Reason When a musical instrument is played, it produces a fundamental note which is accompanied by a number of overtones called harmonics.

53. Assertion The de-Broglie wavelength equation has significance for any microscopic and submicroscopic particles.
Reason de-Broglie wavelength is inversely proportional to the mass of the object its velocity is constant

54. Assertion in stationary wave, there is no transfer of energy.
Reason The ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy is independent of the position.

55. Assertion Electrons move from a region of higher potential to a region of lower potential.
Reason An electron has less potential energy at a point where potential is higher and vice.versa.

56. Assertion in a radioactive disintegration, an electron is emitted by the nucleus.
Reason Electron are present inside the nucleus.

57. Assertion A normal human eye can clearly see all the objects beyond a certain minimum distance.
Reason the human eye has the capacity to suitably adjust the focal length of its lens to a certain extent.

58. Assertion A satellite moving in a circular orbit around the earth has a total energy E0, then its potential energy is -E0
Reason Potential energy of the body at a Point in a gravitational field of orbit is –GMm/R

59. Assertion If a liquid in a vessel is stirred and left to itself. the motion disappear after few minutes.
Reason The moving liquid exerts equal and opposite force.

60. Assertion At the centre of earth u body has centre of mass, but no centre of gravity.
Reason This is because g=0 at the centre of earth

Chemistry

1. Aspirin acts as an analgesic because it

(a) inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins which stimulates inflammation of the tissue
(b) prevents the release of HCL in the stomach
(c) Prevents the interaction of histamine with its receptor
(d) inhibit activities of enzymes

2. Starch is a mixture of two components, a water soluble component amylase (15-20%) and a water insoluble component amylopectin (80-85%). The aqueous solution, of amylase gives a blue colour with iodine solution due to the formation of

(a) amylose iodide
(b) amylose iodate
(c) inclusion complex
(d) amylase tetraiodide complex

3. What reagent is used in the Hinsberg test of amines?

(a) (CH3CO)2O and pyridine
(b) C6H3SO2CI in aq NaOh
(c) NaNo2 in aq H2 SO4
(d) CH3l(excess) followed by AgOH

4. Aldol condensation between which of the following two compounds followed by dehydration gives methyl vinyl ketone?

(a) Formaldehyde and acetone
(b) Formaldehyde and acetaldehyde
(c) Two molecules of acetone
(d) Two molecules of acetaldehyde

5.Grignard reagents and organolithium compounds on addition to dry ice separately, followed by hydrolysis gives

(a) ketones and carboxylic acids respectively
(b) carboxylic acids and ketones respectively
(c) only carboxylic acids
(d) onty ketones

6.The strongest acid among the following is

(a) o-methoxy phenol
(b) p-methoxy phenol
(c) m-methoxy phenol
(d) phenol

7. on commercial scale phenol is obtained from chlorobenzene. The chlorobenzene needed for the purpose is prepared by Raschig’s process. Which one of the following is Raschig’s process?


8. How many mL of 0.125 M Cr3+ must be reacted with 12.00 mL of 0.200 M MnO4 if the redox products are CrO2/7– and Mn2+?

(a) 8 mL
(b) 16 mL
(c) 24 mL
(d) 32 mL

9. At 300 K, 36 g of glucose present per litre in its solution has an osmotic pressure of 4.98 bar. If the osmotic pressure of solution is 1.52 bar at the same temperature, what would be its concentration?

(a) 11gL-1
(b) 22gL-1
(c) 36gL-1
(d) 42gL-1

10. The composition of a sample of wustite is Fe0.93O. What percentage of the iron is present in the form of Fe (III)?

(a) 5%
(b) 7 08%
(c) 15.05%
(d) 23.6%

11. When acidified K2Cr2O7 solution is added to Sn2+ salts, then Sn2+ changes to

(a) Sn
(b) Sn3-
(c) Sn4+
(d) Sn4+

12. What would be the expected product of the reaction of propyne with Br2/H2O if the mechanism of this reaction is analogous to that of propene?

(a) 2-brompropenol
(b) Bromoacetone
(c) 2-boromo-b-propanol
(d) Bromoprophenol

13. Which of the following carbocation would have the greatest stability?


14. Electron affinity is positive, when

(a) O changes into O–
(b) O changes into O2-
(c) O changes into O+
(d) election affinity is always negative

15. Which one of the following pairs represents stereoisomerism ?
(a) Chain isomerism and rotational isomerism
(b) Structural isomerism and geometrical isomerism
(c) Linkage isomerism and geometrical isomerism
(d) Optical isomerism and geometrical isomerism

16. Using the data given below find out the strongest reducing agent


17. EMF of Daniell cell was found using different concentrations of Zn2+ ion and Cu2+ ion. A graph was then plotted between Ecell and log [Zn2+]/[Cu2+] found to be linear with intercept on Ecell axis equal to 1.10 V.Ecell for Zn/Zn2+ (0.1M)|| Cu 2+ (00.1M)| Cu will be

(a) 1.10 V
(b) 1.0705 V
(c) 0.93 V
(d) 0.078 V

18. Which of the following process is not responsible for the presence of electric charge on the sol particles?

(a) Electron capture by sot particles
(b) Adsorption of one species from solution
(c) Formation of Helmholtz electrical double layer
(d) Absorption of ionic species horn solution

19. in the metallurgy of aluminium

(a) Al3+ is oxidised to Al (s)
(b) graphite anode is oxidised to carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
(c) oxidation state of oxygen changes in the reaction at anode
(d) oxidation state of oxygen changes in the overall reaction involved in the process

20. in the preparation of HNO3 we get NO gas by catalytic oxidation of ammonia. The moles of NO produced by the oxidation of two moles of NH3 will be

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6

23. The thermal decomposition of HCOOFI is a foot order reaction with a rate constant of
2.4 x 10-3s-1 at certain temperature. Calculate how long will it take for three fourths of initial quantity of HCOOII decompose?

(a) 578 s
(b) 225 s
(c) 436 s
(d) 578 s

24. Rate constant k of a reaction varies, with temperature according to the equation log k = constant – Ea/2.303R x 1/T where Eais the energy of activation for the reaction When a graph is plotted for log k vs 1/T a straight line with a slope -6670 k is obtained. The activation energy for this reaction will be (R=8.314JK-1mol-1)

(a) 122.65 kJmol-1
(b) 127.71 kJmol-1
(c) 142.34 kJmol-1
(d) 150.00 kJmol-1

25. Which of the following statements is not correct about order of a reaction?
(a) The order of a reaction can be a fractional number
(b) Order of a reaction is exeperimentally determined quantity
(c) The order of a reaction is always equal to the sum of the stoichiometric coefficients of reactants in the balanced chemical equation for a reaction
(d) The order of a reaction is the sum of the powers of molar concentrations of the reactants in the rate law expression

26. Which of the following reagents would not be a good choice for reducing an aryl nitro compound to an amine?

(a) H2 (excess)/Pt
(b) LiAIH in ether
(c) Fe anc HCl
(d) Sn and HCl

27. Which is the correct statement about birth control pills?

(a) Contain estrogen only
(b) Contain progesterone only
(c) Contain a mixture of estrogen and progesterone derivatives
(d) Progesterone enhances ovulation

28.


29. Glycogen is a branched chain polymer of α-D-glucose units in which chain is formed by C1 – C4 glycosidic linkage whereas branching occurs by the formation of C1 – C6 glycosidic linkage. Structure of glycogen is similar to
(a) amylose
(b) anylopectin
(c) cellulose
(d) glucose

30. Each polypeptide in a protein has amino acids linked with each other in a specific sequence. This sequence of amino acids is said to be

(a) primary structure of proteins
(P) secondary structure of proteins
(o) tertiary structure of proteins
(d) quaternary structure of proteins

31. The anticodon transfer RNA for the messenger RNA codon GCA is

(a) TGA
(b) GUT
(c) AGT
(d) CGU

32. Which one of the following statements is wrong?

(a) Fuel obtained from plastic waste has high octane rating
(b) H2O2 with suitable catayst is now used in bleaching of paper
(c) Now-a-days ethanol is produced by one step oxidation of ethane in presence of ionic catalyst in aqueous medium
(d) The growth of fish gets inhibited, if the concentration of dissolved oxygen of water in over 6 ppm

33. The enthalpies of all elements in their standard states are

(a) unity
(b) zero
(c) <0
(d) different for each element

34. 2 L of an ideal gas at a pressure of 10 atm expands isothermally into a vacuum until its total volume is 10 L. How much work is done in the expansion?
(a) 8 L-atm
(b) 16 1 L-atm
(c) 24.0 L-atm
(d) No work is done