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17th December 2014, 02:17 PM
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Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: IBPS question paper for PO exam

As you are doing preparation of IBPS PO exam so for your help here I am providing its paper on your demand
IBPS Bank PO CWE Reasoning Questions

IBPS Bank PO CWE Coding and decoding, blood relation, datasufficiency questions........



1. BE' is related to 'GJ' in the same way as 'PS' is related to
1) UY
2) UX
3) UZ
4) VY
5) None of these Ans. 1 (2)





2. Among P, Q, R, S and T, each having scored different marks, R scored more marks than P and T. Q scored less marks than T. S did not score the highest marks. Who among them scored the highest?
1) P
2) T
3) R
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these Ans. 2 (3)



3. Pointing to a girl, Nidhi said, 'She is the daughter of my grandmother's only child.' How is the girl related to Nidhi?
1) Sister
2) Self
3) Cousin sister
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these Ans.3 (4)





4. In a certain code MOAN is written as 5%3$ and NEWS is written as $1@8. How is SOME written in that code?
1) 8%o51
2) 85%8
3) 8@51
4) 8%31
5) None of these Ans.4 (1)



5. In a certain code language 'how many books' is written as 'sa da na' and 'many more days' is written as 'ka pa da'. How is 'books' written in that code language?
1) sa
2) na
3) sa or na
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these Ans 5)(3)

6. In a certain code MAJORITY is written as 'PKBNXSHQ'. How is SANCTION written in that code?
1) TBODMNHS
2) DOBTMNHS
3) TBODSHNM
4) DOBTOPJU
5) None of these Ans.6 (2)


7. The position of the first and the sixth digits in the number 5120397468 are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and the seventh digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the fourth digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
1) 1
2) 5
3) 7
4) 9
5) None of these Ans.7 (1)

8. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word OROANISED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three Ans. 8 (3)



9. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ITRM using each letter only once in each word?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three Ans. 9 (2)

10. The position of how many digits in the number 8247531 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three Ans.10 (3)





11. In a row of twenty-five children facing North, W is fifth to the right of R, who is sixteenth from the right end of the row. What is W's position from the right end of the row?
1) Eleventh
2) Tenth
3) Twelfth
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these Ans 1)

Directions (Q. 12-14): Study the following, information carefully and answer the questions, which follow:
Five plays A, B, C, D and E were organized in a week from Monday to Saturday with one play each day and no play was organised on one of these days. Play D was organised before Thursday but after Monday. Play E was organised on Saturday. Play C was not organised on the first day. Play B was organized on the next day on which play C was organised. Play A was organised on Tuesday.
12. On which day was play B organised?
1) Thursday
2) Friday
3) Wednesday
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these Ans.12 (2)


13. On which day was no play organised?
1) Monday
2) Wednesday
3) Thursday
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Ans.13 (1)



14. Which play was organised on Wednesday?
1) A
2) C
3) D
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Ans.14 (3)
15. If ‘÷’ means '+'; 'x' means '-',; '+' means 'x’ and '-' means '÷', then 24 -4÷6 x3+4 =?
1) 36
2) 24
3) 8
4) 4
5) None of these
Ans.15 (5)


16. What should come next in the following number series? 98761234598712345987123498
1) 7
2) 1
3) 2
4) 5
5) None of these
Ans.16 (2)


17. Each consonant in the word CORDIAL is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and the letters so obtained are rearranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following will be the second from the right end after the rearrangement?
1) Q
2) K
3) P
4) B
5) None of these
Ans.17 (3)


18. Meena correctly remembers that her father's birthday is after eighteenth May but before twentysecond May. Her brother correctly remembers that their father's
Birthday is before twenty-fourth May but after Twentieth May. On which date in May was definitely their father's birthday?
1) Twentieth
2) Nineteenth
3) Eighteenth
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
Ans.18 (5)


Directions (Q. 19-20): Study the following information and answer the questions given below:
(i) 'P÷ Q' means 'P is sister of Q'.
(ii) 'P x Q' means 'P is brother of Q'.
(iii) 'P - Q' means 'P is mother of Q'.
(iv) 'P + Q' means 'P is father of Q'.
19. Which of the following means 'M is maternal uncle of T?
1) M÷K+T
2) M x K+T
3) M x K-T
4) M ÷ K - T
5) None of these
Ans.19 (4)

20. Which of the following means 'H is paternal grandfather of T?
1) H +J+T
2) T x K + H
3) H +J x T
4) H - J + T
5) None of these
Ans.20 (1)


Directions (Q. 21-25): Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below:
832 965 748 259 614
21. Which of the following is the third digit of the second lowest number?
1) 2
2) 5
3) 8
4) 9
5) 4
Ans. 21 (5)


22. Which .of the following is the sum of the first' and the second digits of the highest number?
1) 11
2) 15
3) 10
4) 7
5) None of these
Ans.22 (2)

23. If the positions of the second and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the last digit of the lowest number?
1) 5
2) 1
3) 6
4) 4
5) 3
Ans.23 (1)


24. If the positions of the first and the second digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the second digit of the second highest number?
1) 8
2) 6
3) 7
4) 5
5) None of these
Ans.24 (5)


25. Which of the following is the difference between the first and the third digits of the third highest number?
1) 6
2) 4
3) 1
4) 7
5) None of these
Ans.25 (3)





Directions (Q. 26-31): In each of the questions below is given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and m. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

26. Statements:All stones are poles.
All poles are desks.
Some desks are nets.
All nets are days.
Conclusions: I. Some nets are stones.
II.Some desks are stones.
III.Some days are desks.

1) Only I and II follow
2) Only I and III follow
3) Only II and III follow
4) All I, II and III follow
5) None of these

Ans.26 (3)





27. Statements: Some months are weeks.
Some weeks are years.
All years are buses.
All buses are trains.
Conclusions: I. Some trains are weeks.
II. Some buses are weeks.
III.Some trains are months.
1) Only I and II follow
2) Only II and III follow
3) Only I and III follow
4) All, I, II and III follow
5) None of these
Ans.27 (1)


28. Statements: Some stations are rails.
All rails are rivers.
All rivers are papers.
Some papers are cards.
Conclusions: I. Some cards are stations.
II.Some rivers are stations.
III. Some cards are rivers.
1) Norte follows
2) Only I follows
3) Only II follows
4) Only III follows
5) Only II and III follow
Ans.28 (3)


29. Statements: All windows are roofs.
All roofs are glasses.
Some glasses are plates.
Some plates are carpets.
Conclusions: I. Some plates are windows.
II. Some glasses are windows.
III. Some carpets are roofs.
1) None follows
2) Only I follows
3) Only II follows
4) Only III follows
5) Only I and II follow
Ans.29 (3)


30. Statements: All trees are jungles.
All jungles are houses.
All houses are buildings.
All buildings are villages.
Conclusions: I. Some villages are houses.
II. Some buildings are jungles.
III. Some houses are trees.
1) Only I and II follow
2) Only II and III follow
3) Only I and III follow
4) All I, II and III follow
5) None of these
Ans.30 (4)


31. Statements: Some books are calendars.
No calendar is a paper.
All papers are pencils.
Some pencils are chairs.
Conclusions: I. Some chairs are books.
II. No chair is a book.
III. Some pencils are calendars.
1) None follows
2) Only either I or II follows
3) Only either I or II and III follow
4) Only III follows
5) Only n follows
Ans.31 (2)


Directions (Q. 32-37): Study the following arrangement and answer the questions given below:
M5%PU2A$43ZEK 19QRI@D7F88WN6#V©J*Y
32. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the seventeenth from the right end of the above arrangement?
1) N
2) $
3)4
4) W
5) None of these
Ans.32 (1)


33. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the sixth to the left of W in the above arrangement?
1) U
2) D
3) E
4) ©
5) None of these Ans.33 (5)



34. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Ans.34 (3)


35. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a symbol but not immediately preceded by a number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Ans.35 (3)


36. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) P5A
2) 4AE
3) QIK
4) F8@
5) VN*
Ans.36 (5)

37. If all the symbols and the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the twelfth from the left end?
1) E
2) K
3) Z
4) D
5) None of these
Ans.37 (5)


Directions (Q. 38-43): In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by four combinations of letters numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols, mark (5), ie 'None of these' , as your answer. Digit/Symbol : 5 @ 3 © 9 8 % 8 1 4 2 $ # 7 6 * Letter Code : P I MAE G F J H B D. N R Q T U .
Conditions: (i) If the first unit is a symbol and the last unit is an even digit both are to be coded as the code for the even digit.
(ii) If the first unit is all even digit and the last unit is an odd digit their codes are to be interchanged.
(iii) If the first unit is an odd digit and the last unit is a symbol both at e 1:0 be coded as the code for the symbol.
(iv) If both the first and the last units are symbols both are to be coded as Z.


38. 9@374%
1) EIMQBF
2) FBQMIE
3) ZIMQBZ
4) FIMQBF
5) None of these
Ans.38 (4)



39. 29©$#1
1) HEANRD
2) DEANRH
3) DEANRD
4) HEANRH
5) None of these Ans.39 (1)


40. *479@©
1) UBQEIA
2) ZBQEIA
3) ZBQEIZ
4) ABQEIU
5) None of these Ans.40 (3)


41. % 286$3
1) FDGTNF
2) FDGTNM
3) FGDTNM
4) WGTNZ
5) None of these Ans.41 (2)


42. 54#*@6
1) PBURIT
2) PBRUIP
3) TBRUIP
4) TBRUIT
5) None of these Ans.42 (5)



43. $63©94
1) NTMAEN
2) BTMAEB
3) ZTMAEB
4) NTMAEB
5) None of these Ans.43 (2)


Directions (Q. 44-48): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is second to the right of A and third to the left of C. B is second to the left of C and fourth to the right of H. D is second to the right of G


44. Who is to the immediate left of D?
1) H
2) C
3) G
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these Ans.44 (2)


45. Who is second to the right of E?
1) B
2) G
3) H
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these Ans.45 (1)


46. Who is third to the left of B?
1) E
2) H
3) F
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these Ans.46 (5)


47. What is the position of G with respect to A?
1) Third to the left
2) Third to the right
3) Fifth to the left
4) Fourth to the right
5) Fifth to the right Ans.47 (4)


48. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first and the second persons?
1) BGC
2) EFB
3) DAH
4) AEF
5) GCD Ans.48 (3)


Directions (Q. 49-54): In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, $, % and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
'P $ Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'.
'P@Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q' means' P is not smaller than Q'.
'P © Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greeter than Q'.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

49. Statements: D # K K @ T, T $ M,. M '% .T
Conclusions: I. J @ T
II. J%T
III. D@T
1) Only I is true
2) Only II is true
3) Only either I or II is true
4) Only IV is true
5) Only either I or II and III are true Ans.49 (5)


50. Statements: R@N,N©D, O$J, J#B
Conclusions: I. R @ J
II. J@N
III. B@D
1) None is true
2) Only I is true
3) Only II is true
4) Only III is true
5) Only I and III are true Ans.50 (3)





51. Statements: W © B, B % V, V $ R, R@K
Conclusions: I. K © B
II. R#B
III.V@W
1) Only I and II are true
2) Only I and III are true
3) Only II and III are true
4) AII I, II and III are true
5) None of these Ans.51 (3)



52. Statements: H $ M, M # T, T @ D, D © R
Conclusions: I. D © M
II. R@M
III. H$T
1) None is true
2) Only I is true
3) Only II is true
4) Only III is true
5) Only I and II are true Ans.52 (2)





53. Statements: B % J, J @ K, K © T, T $ F
Conclusions: I. F @ K
II. B@K
III.B@F
1) Only I and II are true
2) Only I and III are true
3) Only II and III are true
4) All I, II and III are true
5) None of these Ans.53 (1)



54. Statements: F # B, B $ M, M @ K, J< e N
Conclusions: I. N @ M
II. F$M
III. K©B
1) Only I is true
2) Only II is true
3) Only III is true
4) Only II and III are true
5) None is true Ans.54 (5)





Directions (55-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an. input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of
input and rearrangement.
Input : sale data 1823 for 95 then 38
Step I : data sale 1823 for 95 then 38
Step II : data 95 sale 18 23 for then 38
Step III : data 95 for sale 18 23 then 38
Step IV : data 95 for 38 sale 18 23 then
Step V : data 95 for 38 sale 23 18 then
Step VI : data 95 for 38 sale 23 then 18
and step VI is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

55. Input: year 39 stake47 house full 94 55 How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
1) Five
2) Six
3) Four
4) Seven
5) None of these Ans.55 (2)


56. Step II of an input is: car 83 lost ever 324674 now How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
1) Three
2) Four
3) Five
4) Six
5) None of these Ans.56 (2)


57. Step III of an input is : and 79 code 27 18 new goal 34 Which of the following will definitely be the input?
1) code and 79 27 18 new goal 34
2) code 27 18 new goal 34 and 79
3) code 27 and 1879 new goal 34
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these Ans.57 (4)





58. Input: water full never 35 78 16 height 28 Which of the following steps will be the last?
1) VI
2) VII
3) VIII
4) IX
5) None of these

Ans.58 (1)





59. Step II of an input is: high 69 store pay 36 43 15 there Which of the following will be step VI?
1) high 69 pay 43 store 36 there 15
2) high 69 pay 43 store 36 15 there
3) high 69 pay 36 43 store 15 there
4) There will be no such step
5) None of these Ans.59 (4)

60. Input: train more 2953 fast gear 3784 Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
1) IX
2) VIII
3) VII
4) VI
5) None of these

Ans.60 (5)



Directions (Q. 61-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Following are the conditions for selecting Assistant General Manager-HR in an organisation.
The candidate must
(i) be at least 40 years and not more than 50 years old as on 01-05-2010.
(ii) be postgraduate in Personnel
Management /HR with at least 60 per cent marks.
(iii) have post-qualification work experience of at least fifteen years out of which at least five years as Senior Manager-HR in an organization.
(iv) have successfully implemented HR-System in his/ her organisation sometime during the past three years.
(v) have secured at least 45 per cent marks in the selection process.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions EXCEPT at
(A) (ii) above but has secured at least 50 per cent marks in postgraduation and at least 65 per cent marks in the selection process, the case is to be referred to Executive Director.
(B) (iii) above but has at least twelve years' post qualification work experience out of which at least eight years as Senior Manager-HR in an organisation, the case is to be referred to Chairman.
In each question below details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of the courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01-0572010.
Mark answer 1) if the candidate is to be selected.
Mark answer 2) if the candidate is not to be selected.
Mark answer 3) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.
Mark answer 4) if the case is to be referred to Executive Director.
Mark answer 5) if the case is to be referred to Chairman.





61. Pranab Ghosh was born on 8th March 1968. He has been working for the past eighteen years in an organisation out of which last seven years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent marks. He had successfully implemented HR-System last year in his organisation. He has secured 50 per cent marks in the selection process.

62. Sheetal Jha has been working in an organisation for the past twenty years out of which ten years as Senior Manager-HR after completing her postgraduation in Personnel Management with 70 per cent marks. She was born on 2nd December 1965. She has secured 45 percent marks in the selection process.

63. Prabir Sengupta was born on 8th May 1963. He has secured 65 percent marks in the selection process. He has been working for the past fifteen years in an organisation, out of which twelve years as Senior Manager HR, after completing his post graduation in HR with 55 per cent marks. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation during the last two years.

64. Shailesh Kumar has been working in an organisation for the past thirteen years, out of which nine years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent marks. He was born on 15th September 1968. He has secured 48 per cent marks in the selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organization two years back.

65. Navin Chopra was born on 12th June 1967. He has been working for the past sixteen years, out of which seven years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his post-graduation in Personnel Management with 75 per cent marks. He has secured 44 per cent marks in the selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation last year.

66. Meera Kulkarni has been working for the past seventeen years, out of which eight years as Senior Manager-HR, after completing her postgraduation in Personnel Management with 66 per cent marks. She has successfully implemented HR-System in her organisation during the last two years. She has secured 49 per cent marks in the selection process. She was born on 14th December 1971.

67. Akash Shastri was born on 12th April 1967. He has been. working for the past sixteen years, out of which six years as Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation after completing his postgraduation in HR with 58 per cent marks. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organization last year. He has secured 65 per cent marks in the selection process.

68. Shekhar Jena has been working for the past fifteen years, out of which last seven years as Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent marks. He has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection process. He was born on 16th.

69. Sunetra Govil was born on 5th April 1964. She has been working for the past seventeen years, out of which nine years as Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation. She has secured 48 per cent marks in the selection process. She has also secured 69 per cent marks in her post- graduation in Personnel Management. She successfully implemented HR-System in her organisation last year.

70. Mohit Saxena was born on 27th July 1963. He has been working for the past thirteen years, out of which nine years as Senior Manager-HR, after completing his post- graduation in HR with 67 per cent marks. He has secured 49 per cent marks in the Selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation during the past three years.
Answers Q.61-70)
Q.No. Person (i) (ii)/(A) (iii)/(B) (iv) (V) Ans
61. Pranab √ √ √ √ √ 1
62. Sheetal √ √ √  √ 3
63. Prabir √ (√) √ √ √ 4
64. Shailesh √ √ (√) √ √ 5
65. Navin √ √ √ √ × 2
66. Meera × √ √ √ √ 2
67. Akash √ (√) √ √ √ 4
68. Shekhar √ √ √ √ √ 1
69. Sunetra √ √  √ √ 3
70. Mohit √ √ (√) √ √ 5

Directions (Q. 71-75): Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
Mark answer 1) if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.
Mark answer 2) if statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.
Mark answer 3) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
Mark answer 4) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
Mark answer 5) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.

71. (A) The Govt has marginally increased the procurement price of wheat for the current crop.
(B) The current wheat crop is expected to be twenty per cent more than the previous wheat crop.
Ans.71 (1)
72. (A) The municipal authority demolished the tea stall located on the footpath on the busy road.
(B) A large number of people have been taking their evening tea at the tea stall located on the footpath on the main road, blocking pedestrian movement.
Ans.72 (2)
73. (A) Majority of the students left the local school as the school building was in a dilapidated condition.
(B) The school authority decided to close down the school immediately and shift the remaining students to a make-shift school.
Ans.73 (1)
74. (A) The braking system of the tourist bus carrying 40 passengers failed while negotiating a stiff climb on a hilly road.
(B) The tourist bus fell into the gorge killing at least ten passengers and seriously injuring all the remaining.
Ans.74 (1)

75. (A) The state govt has decided to boost English language education in all the schools from the next academic year.
(B) The level of English language of the school students of the State is comparatively lower than that of the neighbouring states.
Ans.75 (2)



1) T20 related to - Cricket
2) chairman of fed reserve – Ben Bernanke(present) next is Janet Yellen –the first woman nominated by
Obama
3) Who received the national award for Best entertainment Movie- Vicky Donor
4) MICR stands for – Magnetic Ink Character Recognization
5) Author of book”The lowland” – Shortlisted for the 2013 Man Booker Prize From the Pulitzer Prize-winning,
wrote by jhumpa lahiri
6) Who invented the Mouse - Douglas Engelbart
7) Bank Rate on 20th September, 2013- 9.00
8) SLR stands for – Statutory Liquid Ratio
9) who is not a MP(options-Amitab bachan, dharmendra,etc)- Amitabh Bachan
10) About SARFAESI act – The Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security
Interest Act, 2002, allows banks and financial institutions to auction properties (residential and commercial) when
borrowers fail to repay their loans. It enables banks to reduce their non-performing assets (NPAs) by adopting
measures for recovery or reconstruction.
11) loan limit for housing to a person in metropolitan city
12) who keeps all credit information of persons – CIBIL
13) which award Zubin mehta got recently – Tagore award 2013
14) which among below a microprocessor manufacturing company(options-intel, microsoft etc) – Intel
15) Name of tablet made by Microsoft – Microsoft Surface
16) Term associated with cricket – T20
17) where is national institute of sports – Patiala
18) The Union Budget of India, referred to as the Annual Financial Statement in Article 112 of the Constitution of
India, is the annual budget of the Republic of India, presented each year on the last working day of February by the
Finance Minister of India in Parliament. The budget, which is presented by means of the Financial Bill and the
Appropriation bill has to be passed by the House before it can come into effect on April 1, the start of India’s
financial year.
19) ) about “aam admi bima yogana” – AAM ADMI BIMA YOJANA, a prestigious scheme of the Central and
State / Union Territory Governments and administered by LIC brings a ray of hope and smile to these households.
a) on death due to accident Rs.75,000/-
b) Permanent total disability due to accident Rs.75,000/-
c) Loss of one eye or one limb in an accident Rs.37,500/-
20) transfer & withdrawl limit i BSBDA account –
21) what is the main thing focused in Raghuram Rajans recent RBI monitary policy – Inflation
22) Target fiscal deficit of govt in FY 2013-14 – The Government aims to bring the fiscal deficit down to 4.8 per
cent of GDP (gross domestic product) in 2012-13 against 4.9 per cent in 2012-13.so answer is4.8%
23) ) who among following are major applicant in new banking license(option-tatason, mahindra etc) – Mahindra &
Mahindra
24) which of the following not considered as proof of identity while opening account in bank(options-passport,
electicity bill, adhar card ,pan card,driving license) – electricity bill–it is address poof not prrof of identity remaining
are proof of identity
25) 28th Prime Minister of Australia – Tony Abbott
Jobsun.in Jobsun.in Jobsun.in
Jobsun.in Jobsun.in Jobsun.in
26) CCTV- Close Circuit Television
27) Largest Producer of Gold – China
October 19th IBPS PO exam questions asked in
evening shift
1. Swarnajayanthi Gram Swarosgar Yojana program has changed to – National Rural Livelihood Mission
(NRLM)
2. What is the chemical used in Syrian attack- Sarin Gas
3. Prime Minister of Bhutan – Tshering Tobgay
4. Geeta Phogat related to which game – Wrestling
5. IFSC stands for – Indian Financial System Code
6. BTM stands for – Business Transaction Management
7. President of Pakistan- Mamnoon Hussain
8. Bangoli director died- Rituparno Ghosh
9. 2020 Olympics going to be held in – Tokyo, Japan
10. Current Rate of SLR - 23%
11. Banking Ombudsman issued by –
12. RBI is going to issue plastic notes of __10___ Rupees (10,100, 5,20)
13. Indian Institute of Film is situated at – Pune
14. Winner of Jnapith award 2012- Ravuri Bharadwaj
15. Current MSF rate – 9%
16. Bharatiya Mahila Bank Headquarters is located at – New Delhi
17. Nokia recently merged with – Microsoft
18. RIDF is maintained by – NABARD
19. How much people are benefited by food security bill – 67%
20. Pranab Mukherjee recommended reconstruction of which university- Nalanda University
  #3  
23rd May 2015, 03:39 PM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Re: IBPS question paper for PO exam

I want to appear in IBPS PO Exam next year, but I want to start preparation now. So I want some question papers of IBPS PO Exam. So some one provides me IBPS PO Question Papers?
  #4  
23rd May 2015, 03:43 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: IBPS question paper for PO exam

As you want to get question papers of IBPS PO Exam, so here I am providing some question papers to you:

IBPS PO Question Paper I
1) Successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 20% are equal to a single discount of __
a. 57.6%
b. 42.4%
c. 50%
d. none
2) A person allows discount of 20% on the already discounted MP. What is the initial discount given if he
totally gains 20% and MP is double the CP?
a. 25%
b. 20%
c. Data inadequate
d. none
3) If a group of 24 men working 8 hrs a day can complete building a wall in 12 days then in how many
days 16 men working 6 hrs a day can complete 3 such walls?
a. 24
b. 48
c. 72
d. none
4) 2, 9, 28, 65, 126, ____
a. 217
b. 212
c. 144
d. none
(5-8)Read the following information and answer the questions given below it :
(i) ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the father of B’
(ii) ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’
(iii) ‘A ´ B’ means ‘ A is the brother of B’
(iv) ‘A ¸ B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’
5.If P ¸ R + S + Q, which of the following is true?
a. P is the daughter of Q b. P is the mother of Q
b. P is the aunt of Q d. Q is the ant of P
6.If P – R + Q, which of the following statement is true?
a. P is the mother of Q b. P is the sister of Q
b. Q is the daughter of P d. P is the aunt of Q
7.If ‘P ´ R ¸Q’, which of the following is true?
a. P is the uncle of Q b. P is the father of Q
b. P is the son of Q d. P is the brother of Q
8.If ‘P ´ R – Q’, which of the following is true?
a. P is the brother-in-law of Q b. P is the father of Q
b. P is the brother of Q d. P is the uncle of Q
9. The average of 13 papers is 40. The average of the first 7 papers is 42 and of the last seven papers is
35. Find the marks obtained in the 7th paper?
a. 23
b. 38
c.19
d. None of these
10. In a mixture of 40 liters, the ratio of milk and water is 4:1. How much water much be added to
this mixture so that the ratio of milk and water becomes 2:3
a. 20 liters
b. 32 liters
c. 40 liters
d. 30 liters
11. A shop owner sells two puppies at the same price making a profit of 20% on one and a loss of 20%
on the other. Find his loss or gain percent on the whole transaction.
a. Gain of 4%
b. No profit no loss
c. Loss of 10%
d. Loss of 4%
12. N, at a speed of 20 km/h reaches his office 10 min late. Next time he increases his speed by 5 km/h,
but is still late by 4 min. What is the distance of office from his house?
a. 20 km
b. 6 km
c. 12 km
d.None of these
13. 4 men and 3 women finish a job in6 days, and 5 men and 7 women can do the same job in 4 days.
How long will 1 man and 1 woman take to do the work?
a. 22(2/7) days
b. 19(1/2) days
c. 5(1/7) days
d. 12(7/22) days
14. If the code for BLUE is 240, that for TEA is 18 then the code for MATCH is _____
a. 3100
b. 3120
c. 3210
d. none
15. Two equal sums were borrowed at 8% simple interest per annum for 2 years and 3 years
respectively. The difference in the interest was Rs.56. the sum borrowed were
a. 690/-
b. 700/-
c. 740/-
d. 780/-
(16-20) Study the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting on a wall and all of them are facing east.
(ii) C is on the immediate right of D.
(iii) B is at an extreme end and has E as his neighbour.
(iv) G is between E and F.
(v) D is sitting third from the south end.
16. Who is sitting to the right of G?
a. A
b. C
c. D
d. F
17. Which of the following pairs of people are sitting at the extreme ends?
a. AB
b. AE
c. CB
d. FB
18. Person who should exchange with C such that he gets the third place from north .
a. E
b. F
c. G
d. D
19. Immediately between which of the following pairs of people is D sitting?
a. AC
b. AF
c. CE
d. CF
20. Which of the conditions above is not required to find the place in which A is sitting?
a. (i)
b. (ii)
c. (iii)
d. All are required
(21-24) A solid cube is painted black on two opposite faces and green on the other four faces. It is then
cut into 216 equal cubes.
21. How many small cubes have exactly one green face?
a. 48
b. 96
c. 64
d. none
22. How many small cubes have two black faces?
a. 24
b. 0
c. 32
d. none
23. How many small cubes have two faces painted with different colours?
a. 42
b. 36
c. 54
d. none
24. How many small cubes have no paint on them?
a. 27
b. 48
c. 64
d. none
25. At what angle are the hands of a clock inclined at 50 minutes past 8?
a.150
b. 22 ½0
c. 350
d. 450
1) B
2) A
3) B
4) A
5) C
6) A
7) C
8) A
9) C
10) C
11) D
12) D
13) B
14) A
15) B
16) D
17) A
18) G
19) C
20) D
21) B
22) B
23) D
24) C
25) C
more paper detail to attached in a pdf file;
Attached Files
File Type: pdf IBPS question paper for PO exam.pdf (1.29 MB, 99 views)


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