WBCS Judicial exam Sample question papers

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Here I am giving you sample question paper for WBCS Judicial examination.

Question Number: 01-10


1. Which of the following countries is not the party to the 'Peace Pipeline Agreement?
(a) Afghanistan
(b) India
(c) Pakistan
(d) Iran

2. The country which recently came into news for attacks on Indian students is
(a) Canada
(b) England
(c) Australia
(d) Germany

3. Which of the following countries is not a part of G-5 developing nations grouping?
(a) Mexico
(b) Indonesia
(c) India
(d) Brazil

4. Who among the following was elected as first women Speaker of Lok Sabha?
(a) Dayavi Verma
(b) Saumya Thangam
(c) Meira Kumar
(d) Jyoti Amuba

5. Whose record did Roger Federer level by winning his 14thGrand Slam title in 2009?
(a) Bjorn Borg
(b) Andre Agassi
(c) John McEnroe
(d) Pete Sampras

6. On November 25, 2009 Indian President Pratibha Patil became the first woman head of State to fly in a fighter jet. The jet she flew in was
(a) MIG
(b) Vajra
(c) Falcon
(d) Sukhoi

7. Which of the following has been brought within the ambit of the Right to Information by the recent Verdict of Delhi High Court?
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(d) None of the above

8. V.K. Singh is the new Chief of
(a) Army
(b) Navy
(c) Air Force
(d) B.S.F.

9. Under which Section of the Civil Procedure Code a second appeal can be filed
(a) Section 99
(b) Section 99-A
(c)Section 100
(d) Section 100-A

10. A decree can be
(a) preliminary
(b) final
(c) either preliminary or final
(d) none of the above


11. A judgment passed by a court can be reviewed
(a) by the court passing the judgment
(b) by the court of District Judge
(c) by the High Court
(d) All of the above

12. A necessary party is one in whose
(a) absence no order can be made effectively
(b) absence an order can be made but whose presence is necessary for the complete decision of the case
(c) only (b) is correct
(d) none of the above

13. A suit through 'next friend' can be filed by
(a) a minor
(b) a lunatic
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) none of the above

14. A temporary injunction can be granted to a party establishing
(a) a prima facie case in his favour
(b) balance of convenience in his favour
(c) irreparable injury to him in the event of non-grant of injunction
(d) all of the above

15. Abatement means
(a) suspension or termination of proceedings in an action for want of proper parties
(b) the process of bringing on record legal representatives of the deceased party
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above

16. An executing court
(a) can modify the terms of the decree
(b) can vary the term of the decree
(c) can modify and vary the terms of the decree
(d) can neither modify nor vary the terms of the decree

17. Civil Procedure Code provides for
(a) temporary injunction
(b) permanent injunction
(c) mandatory injunction
(d) none of the above

18. In case the suit has been instituted in a court having no jurisdiction, territorial or pecuniary, the plaint is liable to be
(a) returned
(b) rejected
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above

19. In which of the following cases res-judicata is not applicable
(a) consent/compromise decree
(b) dismissal in default
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) none of the above

20. Pleading can be amended
(a) before the trial court
(b) before the first appellate court
(c) before the second appellate court
(d) all of the above


(a) can be used as a substantive evidence without being formally proved
(b) cannot be used as a substantive evidence at all
(c) cannot be used as a substantive evidence without being formally proved
(d) either (b) or (c)

22. A proclamation under Section 82 CLP.C. can be issued against a person against whom a warrant has been issued. Thus a proclamation can be issued against
(a) accused offender
(b) a surety
(c) a witness
(d) all the above

23. A Public Prosecutor for the High Court is appointed under Section 24 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 by the
(a) Central Government without consultation with the High Court
(b) State Government without consultation with the High Court
(c) State Government after consultation with the Central Government
(d) State Government or Central Government after consultation with the High Court

24. Cognizable offence has been defined
(a) under Section 2(a)
(b) under Section 2(c)
(c) under Section 2(i)
(d) under Section 2(k)

25. Compounding of offence under Section 320 of Cr.P.c. results in
(a) acquittal of the accused under all circumstances
(b) acquittal of the accused only where the charge has already been framed
(c) discharge of the accused where the charge has not yet been framed
(d) either (b) or (c)

26. FIR can be filed under which Section of Cr.P.C.
(a) Section 151
(b) Section 154
(c) Section 155
(d) Section 54

27. FIR is not a substantive evidence, it can be used during trial (
(a) to corroborate the informant
(b) to contradict the informant
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

28. Hearing on sentence by a Magistrate is required, on conviction
(a) in a summons trial case under Section 255(2) of Cr.P.C.
(b) in a warrant trial case under Section 248(2) of Cr.P.C.
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

29. Power under Section 311 of Cr.P.C. can be exercised by the Court
(a) to recall any witness(es) already examined
(b) to summon any witness who has been cited as a witness but not produced or examined before the evidence is closed
(c) to summon any witness who has not been cited as witness
(d) all the above

30. A communication made to the spouse during marriage, under Section 122 of Evidence Act
(a) remains privileged communication after the dissolution of marriage by divorce or death
(b) does not remain privileged after the dissolution of marriage by divorce or death
(c) does not remain privileg~d after the dissolution of marriage by divorce, but remains privileged even after death
(d) remains privileged after the dissolution of marriage by divorce but not so on after death


(a) if made in the presence of a doctor
(b) if made in the presence of a captain of a vessel
(c) if made in the presence of a Magistrate
(d) none of the above

32. A dumb person is a competent witness as provided under
(a) section 118 of the Evidence Act
(b) section 119 of the Evidence Act
(c) section 120 of the Evidence Act
(d) section 121 of the Evidence Act

33. A dying declaration is admissible
(a) only in criminal proceedings
(b) only in civil proceedings
(c) both in civil as well as criminal proceedings
(d) in criminal proceedings alone and not in civil proceedings

34. Admissibility of electronic record has been prescribed under
(a) section 64 of Evidence Act
(b) section 65 of Evidence Act
(c) section 65B of Evidence Act
(d) section 65A of Evidence Act

35. An accomplice is a person
(a) who participates in the commission of crime with the charged accused
(b) who is a prefended confederate
(c) who is an informer
(d) all the above

36. Court question under section 165 of Evidence Act can be put to
(a) any witness
(b) any party
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

37. Define who in the following cases is not competent to testify:
1. A lunatic who is prevented by his lunacy from understanding the questions put to him
2. A child above 7 years but below 12 years able to exhibit maturity and understanding
3. A dumb person capable of putting things in writing
4. A witness who is related to the deceased

(a) 1 alone
(b) 2 alone
(c) 1 and 2
(d) All

38. In criminal proceedings, the burden of proof is
(a) on the prosecution to prove the guilt of the accused
(b) on the accused to prove his innocence
(c) on both the parties
(d) Court decides on whom the burden of proof lies

39. Opinion of an expert under section 45 of Evidence Act
(a) is a conclusive proof
(b) is not a conclusive proof
(c) is supportive & corroborative in nature
(d) is not admissible

40. Oral account of the contents of a document is admissible
(a) when given by a person who has seen & read the document
(b) when given by a person who has seen but not read the document
(c) when given by a person to whom the document was read over
(d) is not admissible in either of the above cases

41. Under section 32 of Evidence Act, a statement of a person who is dead, to be admissible
(a) must relate to the cause of his own death
(b) may relate to the cause of someone else's death
(c) may relate to the cause of his own death or someone else's death
(d) both (b) & (c) are correct

42. When the Court obtains a sample of handwriting or signature of a person under section 73 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the Court
(a) itself may compare the same
(b) itself may compare the same or may refer it to an expert under section 45
(c) can not refer it to an expert under Section 45
(d) must refer the same to an expert under section 45

43. A bigamous marriage contracted before the commencement of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(a) ipso facto becomes void
(b) becomes voidable
(c) remains valid
(d) neither of them

44. A Hindu ceases to be a Hindu by
(a) renunciation
(b) abandonment
(c) conversion
(d) neither of these

45. Spinda relationship includes relationship by
(a) half or uterine blood
(b) full blood
(c) adoption
(d) all the above

46. Venereal disease to be a ground for divorce under section 13(1)(v) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(a) must be in communicable form
(b) must be in non-communicable form
(c) must be in either (a) or (b)
(d) form is not relevant

47. When two persons are the descendents of a common ancestor but by different wives, they are said to be related to each other by
(a) half blood
(b) full blood
(c) uterine blood
(d) either (b) or (c)

48. Which school of law does not recognise the talaq pronounced under compulsion or undue influence or by
(a) Shia
(b) Malikis
(c) Shafiis
(d) All the above

49. For divorced women not subject to menstruation "Iddat period" means -- lunar months after her divorce
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) nine

50. Set -off can be
(a) legal set-off
(b) equitable set-off
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above