UPSC CMS Old Papers

The UPSC is released notification for Combined Medical Services (CMS) Exam recently. I want to apply for this Exam, but before applying, I want to collect all study material for this Exam. Now I have syllabus and some important. So I want old question papers of Combined Medical Services (CMS) Exam. Tell me can I download question papers from the official website of UPSC?

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UPSC CMS Old Question Papers

1.
Austin Flint Murmur occurs in:
(a) Severe Mitral Stenosis
(b) Severe Mitral Regurgitation
(c) Severe Aortic Regurgitation
(d) Severe Aortic Stenosis
2.
Which amongst the following should be considered in a patient with acute chest pain and ST
segment elevation in the precordial leads?
1. Acute myocardial infarction
2. Acute hyperkalemia
3. Pericarditis
4. Hypocalcemia
5. Oesophagitis
6. Pneumothorax
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 4 and 5
(d) 2, 3 and 6
3.
Which amongst the following is the most powerful independent risk factor for
atherosclerosis?
(a) Age
(b) Hypertension
(c) Gender
(d) Physical Activity
4.
In which of the following SA node dysfunction conditions, permanent pacing may NOT be
required?
1. Beta blocker drugs
2. Narcotic drugs
3. Iatrogenic–Post RT/Surgery
4. Hypothyroidism
5. Sick sinus syndrome
6. Raised Intracranial tension
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 6
(d) 3, 5 and 6
5.
Kartagener syndrome has the following features EXCEPT:
(a) Recurrent Sinusitis
(b) Transposition of Viscera
(c) Autosomal Dominant
(d) Bronchiectasis

6.
Which of the following pulmonary function set is characteristic of COPD?
(a) FEV1 / FVC < 70% ; FEV1 ↓ ; FVC ↓ ; TLC ↑ DLCO Normal
(b) FEV1 / FVC < 70% ; FEV1 ↑ ; FVC ↓ ; TLC ↓ DLCO ↓
(c) FEV1 / FVC < 70% ; FEV1 ↓ ; FVC ↑ ; TLC ↑ DLCO ↑
(d) FEV1 / FVC < 70% ; FEV1 ↓ ; FVC ↓ ; TLC ↓ DLCO ↓
7.
Which of the following drugs causes dry cough as a side effect?
(a) Fluconazole
(b) Ramipril
(c) Cefixime
(d) Atenolol
8.
For Acid Fast Bacilli (AFB) to be detected in sputum by the direct microscopy, the bacillary
burden in sputum typically is:
(a) 500–1,000 organisms
(b) 5,000–10,000 organisms
(c) 10,000–20,000 organisms
(d) Any number of organisms
9.
The pleural fluid is considered as empyema if following is present in it:
(a) Fluid glucose < 60 mg/dl
(b) Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH) of more than 1000 U/L
(c) Fluid pH of less than 7.0
(d) All of these
10.
Airway secretions contain all of the following antimicrobial peptides EXCEPT:
(a) Defensins
(b) Immunoglobulin A (IgA)
(c) Lysozyme
(d) Histidine
11.
The respiratory motor neuron associated with origin of respiratory cycle is located in:
(a) Pons
(b) Posterior Medulla oblongata
(c) Ventral Medulla oblongata
(d) Mid brain
12.
Consider the following statements regarding Weight Loss:
1. 4.5 kg over 6-12 months
2. 10 kg over 6-12 months
3. More than 5 % over 6-12 months
4. More than 10 % over 6-12 months
Which of the above constitute significant or clinically important weight loss?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4

13.
Which of the following Ascitic Fluid analysis is most compatible with a diagnosis of Ascites
secondary to portal hypertension?
(a) SAAG < 1.1 g/dl ; Ascitic Fluid Protein < 2.5 g/dl
(b) SAAG < 1.1 g/dl ; Ascitic Fluid Protein > 2.5 g /dl
(c) SAAG > 1.1 g/dl ; Ascitic Fluid Protein < 2.5 g /dl
(d) SAAG > 1.1 g/dl ; Ascitic Fluid Protein > 2.5 g /dl
14.
All are the causes of Interstitial lung disease EXCEPT:
(a) Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
(b) Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
(c) Sarcoidosis
(d) Bronchial Asthma
15.
The rhythmic activity recorded on scalp by EEG in a normal awake adult lying quietly with
eyes closed is:
(a) Less than 4Hz – Delta rhythm
(b) 4 to 7 Hz –Theta rhythm
(c) 8 to 13 Hz – Alpha rhythm
(d) More than 14 Hz –Beta rhythm
16.
Transient Monocular blindness may be due to small platelet emboli that occludes:
(a) Posterior Cerebellar artery
(b) Posterior Cerebral artery
(c) Ophthalmic artery
(d) Vertebral artery
17.
The phenomenon of sparing of macular vision is due to collateral circulation between:
(a) middle and posterior cerebral artery
(b) anterior and middle cerebral artery
(c) anterior and posterior cerebral artery
(d) anterior, middle and posterior cerebral artery


18.
Characteristic features of Horner’s Syndrome are:
(a) partial ptosis, enophthalmos, constricted pupil, decreased sweating
(b) partial ptosis, exophthalmos, constricted pupil, decreased sweating
(c) partial ptosis, enophthalmos, dilated pupil, decreased sweating
(d) partial ptosis, enophthalmos, constricted pupil, increased sweating
19.
All of the following statements are true EXCEPT:
(a) Dorsal column fibres synapse at the cuneate and gracile nuclei
(b) Pain and temperature sensations are carried by lateral spinothalamic tract
(c) Spinal cord ends at lower level of 5th lumbar vertebrae
(d) Dorsal spinocerebellar tract carries fibres from the same side of the body
20.
The following conditions usually present with proximal muscle weakness, EXCEPT:
(a) Facio-scapulo-humeral dystrophy
(b) Myotonia dystrophica
(c) Duchene’s muscular dystrophy
(d) Becker muscular dystrophy
21.
Pel-Ebstein fever is seen in:
(a) Hodgkin’s disease
(b) Malaria
(c) Kalazar
(d) Typhoid fever
22.
All of the following are true regarding acute leukaemias, EXCEPT:
(a) Promyelocytic leukaemia may present with DIC
(b) Gum hypertrophy is a feature of monocytic leukaemia
(c) Translocation is a common chromosomal abnormality in acute myeloid leukaemia
(d) Auer rods suggest acute lymphocytic leukaemia
23.
All of the following are clinical features of Polycystic ovarian syndrome EXCEPT:
(a) Menorrhagia
(b) Hirsutism
(c) Glucose intolerance
(d) Infertility


24.
Clinical features of Turner syndrome include all EXCEPT:
(a) Webbing of Neck
(b) Narrow carrying angle of Elbow
(c) Coarctation of Aorta
(d) Short stature
25.
Pretibial myxedema is a clinical feature of:
(a) Hypothyroidism
(b) Graves disease
(c) Cushing disease
(d) Conn syndrome
26.
Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List I List II
(disease) (signs)
A. Conn syndrome 1. Anosmia
B. Turner syndrome 2. Tetany
C. Kallman syndrome 3. Lymphoedema
D. Cushing syndrome 4. Avascular necrosis of hip
Code:
(a) A-4 B-1 C-3 D-2
(b) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4
(c) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4
(d) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
27.
Which of the following is NOT a part of Koch’s postulates?
(a) The same organism must be present in every case of the disease
(b) The organism must be isolated from the diseased host and grown in culture
(c) The isolate must cause the disease when incubated
(d) The organism may not be reisolated from the incubated diseased host
28.
All of the following cause dementia EXCEPT:
(a) Huntington’s disease
(b) Alzheimer’s disease
(c) Vitamin D toxicity
(d) Thiamine deficiency

29.
The therapeutic level of Digoxin in blood is:
(a) 1–2 ng/ml
(b) 4–6 ng/ml
(c) 6–8 ng/ml
(d) 8–10 ng/ml
30.

A 40-year old woman presents with sudden onset palpitations. An ECG done reveals narrow-
QRS complex tachycardia. The most likely diagnosis is:

(a) Ventricular tachycardia
(b) Pre-excited tachycardia
(c) Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia with aberrancy
(d) AV rentry tachycardia
31.
Which of the following statements are true about management of acute pulmonary oedema?
1. Put the patient in relaxed, supine position
2. Give high flow, high concentration oxygen
3. Administer Furosemide intravenously
4. No role of Nitrates
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
32.
Which of the following does NOT cause prolongation of QT interval?
(a) Hypomagnesaemia
(b) Hyperkalaemia
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Amiodarone

33.
A 21-year young man presents in emergency with high grade fever with inflammation of
knee and ankle joints which is fleeting in nature. There is history of occasional palpitations.
There is no history of antecedent sore throat. On examination, splenomegaly is present. The
ECG shows prolongation of PR interval. What is the most likely diagnosis in India?
(a) Still disease
(b) Enteric fever
(c) Rheumatic fever
(d) Reiter’s syndrome
34.
A 50-year gentleman with Type-2 Diabetes mellitus for 5 years presents in medical
emergency with sudden onset of dyspnoea at rest, orthopnoea, and prostration. On
examination, pulse is rapid and very weak in volume. His blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg.
There are diffuse crepitations at lung bases. What is the most likely diagnosis of his
conditions?
(a) Mitral stenosis with bacterial endocarditis
(b) Right heart failure
(c) Left heart failure
(d) Constrictive pericarditis
35.
The ‘Y’ descent in JVP waveform represents:
(a) Atrial relaxation
(b) Atrial systole
(c) Atrial emptying
(d) Apical displacement of tricuspid valve
36.
While distinguishing a venous pulsation from the arterial pulsation in neck, which of the
following is NOT correct?
(a) The height of venous pulse varies with respiration
(b) Abdominal pressure causes rise in venous pulse
(c) Venous pulse has a single peak in each cardiac cycle
(d) Venous pulse is not easily palpable

37.
Which of the following does NOT cause pulmonary infiltrates with eosinophilia?
(a) Bronchial asthma
(b) Postradiation pneumonitis
(c) Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis
(d) Cystic fibrosis
38.
Total lung capacity is decreased in which one of the following conditions?
(a) Asthma
(b) Chronic bronchitis
(c) Pulmonary fibrosis
(d) Emphysema
39.
Which one of the following is the minimum spirometry criterion for diagnosis of bronchial
asthma?
(a) Decrease in FEV1 ≥ 20 % after 6 minutes of exercise
(b) Increase in FEV1 ≥ 12 % following administration of inhaled bronchodilators
(c) Increase in 500 ml of FEV1 after glucocorticoids inhalation
(d) Less than 20 % diurnal variation on more than 3 days a week on PEF diary
40.
Modified Blatchford score is used for the risk stratification of:
(a) Pancreatitis
(b) Sepsis
(c) Upper gastrointestinal bleeding
(d) Cholangitis
41.
Long term use of proton pump inhibitor in elderly puts the patient at risk of which of the
following?
1. Community acquired pneumonia
2. Clostridium difficile associated disease
3. Urinary tract infection
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

42.
Regardless of the infectious agent, the most characteristic symptom of infectious esophagitis
is:
(a) Dysphagia
(b) Chest pain
(c) Odynophagia
(d) Haematemesis
43.
The parameters used in modified Child-Pugh classification for staging cirrhosis are:
(a) Serum bilirubin, serum albumin only
(b) Serum albumin, serum bilirubin, prothrombin time only
(c) Serum albumin, serum bilirubin, prothrombin time, ascities only
(d) Serum albumin, Serum bilirubin, prothrombin time, ascities, hepatic encephalopathy
44.
All of the following are consistent with a diagnosis of Irritable Bowel Syndrome EXCEPT:
(a) Recurrent lower abdominal pain
(b) Altered bowel habits
(c) Symptoms during periods of stress
(d) Weight loss
45.
A 26-year old HIV infected male presents with odynophagia. Upper GI endoscopy
demonstrates serpiginous ulcers in a normal surrounding mucosa in distal esophagus. The
most likely diagnosis is:
(a) Gastro esophageal reflux disease
(b) Cytomegalovirus esophagitis
(c) Candida esophagitis
(d) Herpetic esophagitis
46.
Cytomegalovirus esophagitis is particularly common in which group of patients?
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Chronic liver disease
(c) Alcoholics
(d) Organ transplant recipients

47.
Which of the following is the most important complication in a patient with coeliac disease,
who was previously doing well on a gluten-free diet and is now not responding to gluten
restriction?
(a) Intestinal infection
(b) Intestinal lymphoma
(c) Resistant coeliac disease
(d) Type II Diabetes mellitus
48.
Which of the following are potential side effects of Anti-TNF therapies?
1. Infusion reactions
2. Melanoma
3. T-cell lymphoma
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
49.
Presence of gastrinoma tumor should be suspected in which of the following conditions?
1. Ulcers in unusual location
2. Ulcers in the presence of H. pylori
3. Ulcers with frank complication like perforation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

50.
Coeliac disease is associated with which of the following medical conditions?
1. Dermatitis herpetiformis
2. Diabetes mellitus type II
3. Turner syndrome
4. IgA deficiency