#1
28th October 2014, 08:37 AM
| |||
| |||
UGC NET Management Exam Question Paper
Will you please provide the question paper of UGC NET Management Exam ?
|
#2
28th October 2014, 11:49 AM
| |||
| |||
Re: UGC NET Management Exam Question Paper
Here is the list of few questions of UGC NET Management Exam Question Paper which you are looking for . 1. During last five years per capita income of India is increasing, that means (A) National income growth of India is more than growth of population. (B) Growth in population is more than the growth in National income of India. (C) National income of India & population of India have grown at the uniform rate. (D) All of the above 2. In the short run firm considers the minimum of its average variable cost curve as (A) Break-even point (B) Shutdown point (C) Economies of scope (D) None of the above 3. The positive cross elasticity of demand between two products means (A) two products are substitutes (B) two products are complementary (C) two products are neither substitutes nor complementary (D) none of the above 4. A monopolist always operates in the (A) Inelastic segment of its demand curve (B) Elastic segment of its demand curve (C) Unitary elastic segment of its demand curve (D) None of the above 5. The price elasticity of demand for any product in the long run (A) is more than it’s short run value. (B) is less than its short run value. (C) is same as its short run value. (D) None of the above For the question paper , here is the attachment |
#3
28th October 2014, 12:25 PM
| |||
| |||
UGC NET Management Exam Question Paper
Will you please provide the question paper of UGC NET Management Exam ?
|
#4
28th October 2014, 01:56 PM
| |||
| |||
Re: UGC NET Management Exam Question Paper
Here I am providing the list of few questions of UGC NET Management Exam question paper which you are looking for . 1. In the case of an inferior commodity, the income elasticity of demand is (A) Positive (B) Unitary (C) Negative (D) Infinity 2. The slope of the iso-cost line is determined by (A) Prices of the two factors (B) Productivity of the two factors (C) Degree of substitutability of the two factors (D) None of these 3. Which one of the followingstatements is correct or more nearly correct ? (A) An increase in the price of commodity represents a fall in its value (B) Value has nothing to do with the price (C) If the price of a commodity falls, its value relative to other goods does not change (D) The price of a good is its value measured in terms of money For the question paper , here is the attachment |
#5
15th November 2014, 10:09 AM
| |||
| |||
UGC NET Management Exam Question Paper
Will you please provide the question paper of UGC NET Management Exam ?
|
#6
15th November 2014, 03:49 PM
| |||
| |||
Re: UGC NET Management Exam Question Paper
Here is the list of few questions of UGC NET Management Exam Question Paper which you are looking for . 1. Define industrial dispute. State the methods of dispute settlement. State the emerging issues in different type of retailing in India. What are the basic assumptions of Gordon’s model of dividend policy and valuation of firm ? How does Gordan’s model differ from Modigliani-Miller’s model ? Examine the role of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in controlling and regulating the foreign exchange rates. 2. What is performance appraisal ? Compare the different methods of performance appraisal. “Marketers need to identify and adapt significant changes in forces of the marketing Environment.” Elaborate. “Making financial decisions and managing working capital in international business are much more complicated and complex than those in domestic business.” Comment upon the statement and bring out the role of international finance manager. UGC NET Management Exam Question Paper For more questions , here is the attachment.................. |
#7
18th March 2015, 11:37 AM
| |||
| |||
Re: UGC NET Management Exam Question Paper
Can you provide me previous year question paper of UGC NET Management paper as I will be giving the exam this year and need for preparation?
|
#8
18th March 2015, 11:40 AM
| |||
| |||
Re: UGC NET Management Exam Question Paper
Below I am providing you some questions of from question paper of UGC NET Management and attaching a PDF attachment which has detail information regarding this that you can down load for free: In case a decrease in price of a commodity results in an increase in its demand on a negatively sloping demand curve, it is called (A) An increase in demand (B) An increase in quantity demanded (C) Law of demand (D) Any of the above Production function is not based on the assumption of the (A) Substitutability of inputs (B) Complementarity of inputs (C) Marketability of products (D) Specificity of inputs Macroeconomics basically concerns with which of following in an economy ? (A) Industry, Trade and Commerce (B) Agriculture, Industry & Trade (C) Employment, Inflation & Growth (D) Population, Income and Economic Planning The competition commission of India has no rule in regulating which of the following ? (A) Restrictive Trade Agreements (B) Abuse of Market Power (C) Unfair Trade Practices (D) Mergers and Acquisitions 1. In case a decrease in price of a commodity results in an increase in its demand on a negatively sloping demand curve, it is called (A) An increase in demand (B) An increase in quantity demanded (C) Law of demand (D) Any of the above 2. Production function is not based on the assumption of the (A) Substitutability of inputs (B) Complementarity of inputs (C) Marketability of products (D) Specificity of inputs 3. Match the items of the following two lists and indicate the correct code : List – I List – II a. Trade channel discounts i. Oligopoly pricing b. Tie-up sales ii. Locational price differentials c. Price being nonresponsive to changes in demand costs iii. Differential pricing d. Basing-point pricing iv. Product-line pricing Codes : a b c d (A) iv ii iii i (B) iii iv i ii (C) ii i iv iii (D) i iii ii iv 4. Indicate the correct code matching the items in List – I with those in List – II as follows : List – I List – II a. Competitive parity in advertising i. Variations in advertising b. Promotional elasticity of product ii. Advertising scheduling c. Optimal promotion mix iii. Advertising expenditure d. Pulsing advertising iv. Marginal equivalence of advertising media outlay Codes : a b c d (A) ii iii i iv (B) iii i iv ii (C) i iv ii iii (D) iv ii iii i 5. Macroeconomics basically concerns with which of following in an economy ? (A) Industry, Trade and Commerce (B) Agriculture, Industry & Trade (C) Employment, Inflation & Growth (D) Population, Income and Economic Planning 6. The competition commission of India has no rule in regulating which of the following ? (A) Restrictive Trade Agreements (B) Abuse of Market Power (C) Unfair Trade Practices (D) Mergers and Acquisitions 7. The ability to understand, communicate with, motivate and support other people, both individually and in groups, defines which of the following management skills ? (A) Hard Skills (B) Soft Skills (C) Conceptual Skills (D) Political Skills 8. As __________, managers receive a wide variety of information and serve as the nerve centres of internal and external information of the organization. (A) Leaders (B) Monitors (C) Distribution handlers (D) Resource allocators 9. Which one is the correct combination ? (A) Theory of Conditioning – Bernara (B) Operant Conditioning Theory – B.F. Skinner (C) Stimulus Response Theory – Hoodman (D) Theory of Associates – Marshall 10. Match the following : List – I List – II a. Evaluative statements or judgements concerning objects, people or events i. Attitudes b. The opinion or belief segment of an attitude ii. Cognitive Component c. The emotional or feeling segment of an attitude iii. Affective Component d. An intention to behave in a certain way towards someone or something iv. Behavioural component Codes : a b c d (A) i ii iii iv (B) iv iii ii i (C) iv ii iii i (D) i iii ii iv 11. As per Rorsach value survey, which of the following is not an instrumental value ? (A) Ambitious (B) Imagination (C) Wise (D) Capable 12. When we judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which he or she belongs, we are using the shortcut, called ________ (A) Selective Perceptive (B) Halo effect (C) Contrast effect (D) Stereotyping 13. Performance = f (m, a, e). In this expression ‘e’ stands for (A) Efficiency (B) Effectiveness (C) Environment (D) Entrepreneurship 14. Selecting a representative sample of jobs, preparing job descriptions for them, comparing them on the basis of the information in the job descriptions and placing them in order of their perceived importance represents which of the following job evaluation methods ? (A) Job grading method (B) Job ranking method (C) Points rating method (D) Guide chart method 15. Match the following : List – I List – II a. A pay plan in which most employees are part of the same compensation system. i. Elitest pay system b. A pay plan in which different compensation systems are established for employees or groups at different organizational levels. ii. Skill based pay c. A pay system in which employees are paid on the basis of the jobs they can do. iii. Egalitarian pay system d. The perceived fairness of the pay structure within a firm. iv. Internal equity Codes : a b c d (A) i ii iii iv (B) iii i ii iv (C) i iii ii iv (D) iii ii i iv 16. ________ of an employee is the process of evaluating the employee performance of the job in terms of the requirements of the job. (A) Merit rating (B) Job Evaluation (C) Job Analysis (D) Performance Appraisal 17. HRM is regarded as old wine in a new bottle. This idea was formulated by (A) Armstrong (B) Guest (C) Storey (D) Peter Drucker 18. The space for every worker employed on the factory under the Factories Act, 1948 should be atleast (A) 9.9 cubic metre (B) 10.2 cubic metre (C) 13.2 cubic metre (D) 14.2 cubic metre 19. Which of the following combinations is correct ? (A) The practice of replacing narrowly defined job descriptions with broader categories of related jobs – Job Hierarchy (B) A firm’s decision to pay above, below or at the market rate for its jobs – Pay Grades (C) Groups of jobs that are paid within the same pay range – Pay Policy (D) A job that is similar or comparable in content across firms – Key job 20. A technique for resolving conflict in which the parties agree to have a neutral third party hear the dispute and make a decision is called (A) Negotiation (B) Arbitration (C) Smoothing (D) Collective Bargaining 21. Identify the major actor(s) of industrial relation, from the following : (A) Employees (B) Unions (C) Government (D) All of the above 22. The yield to maturity of a bond is the interest rate (A) that makes the total cash flows receivable from owning the bond equal to the price of the bond. (B) that makes the present value of cash flows receivable from owning the bond equal to the price of the bond. (C) that makes cash flows receivable from the bond till the first call equal to the face value of the bond. (D) none of the above 23. Match the correct options for the following capital budgeting appraisal criteria : List – I List – II a. The criterion based on the cash flows of a limited period. i. Internal Rate of Return b. The criterion based on profit over life of the project. ii. Pay-back Method c. The criterion that considers cash flows over the life of project which considered the time value of money. iii. Accounting Rate of Return d. The criterion that derives the outcomes in terms of the rate of return considering the cash flows over the life of project with the time value of money. iv. Net Present Value Codes : a b c d (A) i ii iii iv (B) ii iii iv i (C) iii iv i ii (D) iv iii ii i 24. Match the following theories with reference to the capital structure theories : List – I List – II a. Traditional Approach i. Highly profitable companies generally use little debt. b. Trade-off Theory ii. Optimal capital structure exists c. Packingorder theory iii. Optimal debtequity ratio of profitable firm that has stable, tangible assets would be higher than the optimal debt-equity ratio of unprofitable firm. Codes : a b c (A) i ii iii (B) ii iii i (C) iii i ii (D) i iii ii 25. Lintner Model shows that the current dividend depends (A) partly on current earnings and partly on the previous year’s dividend. (B) partly on market rate of return and partly on the expected rate of return. (C) partly on current earnings and partly on the expected rate of return. (D) partly on previous year’s dividend and partly on the market rate of return. 26. “The difference between the forward rate and the spot rate is just enough to offset the difference between the interest rate in the two currencies.” This concept is known as (A) Purchasing power parity (B) Fisher effect (C) Interest rate parity (D) International Fisher effect 27. Match the following terms : List – I List – II a. Forward contract i. An agreement between two parties to exchange one set of cash flows for another b. Futures contract ii. A standardized contract c. Swap iii. The seller of an instrument grants the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to buy or sell some asset at a pre-determined price during the specified period d. Options iv. A tailor made contract Codes : a b c d (A) i iii ii iv (B) ii iv iii i (C) iii i iv ii (D) iv ii i iii 28. An analysis of percentage financial statement where all the Balance Sheet items are divided by the total assets and all the income statement items are divided by net sales or revenue is known as (A) Index Analysis (B) Trend Analysis (C) Ration Analysis (D) Common size Analysis 29. A company collecting cash from customers within two days and paying to suppliers in 35 days, will have (A) Negative operating cycle (B) Negative cash cycle (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of (A) or (B) 30. Match the following expressions : List – I List – II a. Venture capital i. Emphasises on Corporate governance b. Private equity ii. Issue of securities to a select group of persons not exceeding 49 c. Private placement iii. Emphasises on Management capability Codes : a b c (A) i ii iii (B) ii iii i (C) iii i ii (D) i iii ii 31. The fundamental determinant of a person’s wants and behaviour is (A) Perception (B) Personality (C) Culture (D) Social Group 32. Consider the following statements : (1) Exclusive dealing amounts to a restrictive agreement under the Competition Act, 2002. (2) The rate of growth in the service sector in India is highest among all the other sectors of economy. (3) Predatory pricing is not regulated under any law. (4) A company using sales force promotion and trade promotion is using “Pull” strategy. Indicate the correct answer out of the following : (A) While statements (1) and (2) are true, (3) and (4) are not. (B) While statements (1) and (3) are true, rest are not. (C) While statement (2) is true, others are not. (D) All the statements are true. 33. Personal influence is most important at the _____ stage of the consumer adoption process. (A) Adoption (B) Awareness (C) Evaluation (D) Trial 34. The price setting method most closely corresponding of the concept of product positioning is (A) Cost-plus pricing (B) Psychological pricing (C) Going-rate pricing (D) Perceived-value pricing 35. Use of mail, telephone and other non-personal contact tools to communicate with, or solicit a response from, specific customers and prospects is called (A) Advertising (B) Direct Marketing (C) Sales Promotion (D) Public Relations 36. _________ marketing describes the employees’ skills in serving the clients. (A) External (B) Interactive (C) Internal (D) Relationship 37. Match the two sets of concepts : List – I List – II i. Evaluation of Alternatives a. Perception ii. Post-purchase behaviour b. Cognitive Dissonance iii. Selective distortion c. Life style iv. Psychographic segmentation d. Expectancy- value model Codes : a b c d (A) i ii iii iv (B) ii iii iv i (C) iii ii iv i (D) iv iii ii i 38. Which of the following determinants of service quality is the most important ? (A) Empathy (B) Reliability (C) Responsiveness (D) Tangibility 39. While developing customer loyalty programmes, database is often not helpful in (A) Identifying prospective customers (B) Deepening customer loyalty (C) Avoiding serious customer mistakes (D) Creating consumer associations 40. The problem caused by a redundant constraint is that (A) the problem shall have no feasible solution. (B) the problem shall have a bounded solution. (C) the redundant constraint can never be satisfied. (D) none of the above. 42. A company uses rivets at a rate of 15,000 kg per year, rivets costing ` 6 per kg. If the cost of placing an order is ` 60 and the carrying cost of the inventory is 30 percent per annum, the Economic Order Quality will be (A) 1000 × 2 kg (B) 1000 kg (C) 100 10 kg (D) 200 5 kg 43. The arrival rate of customers at a service window of a cinema hall follows a probability distribution with a mean rate of 45 per hour. If the service rate of the clerk follows Poisson distribution, with a mean of 60 per hours, what is the probability of having no customer in the system ? (A) 0.75 (B) 0.60 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.45 44. From which of the following can retailers immediately determine, how many packets they should stock each day to maximize the profit ? (i) Expected profit from each stocking action (ii) Expected loss from each stocking action. (iii) Conditional-profit table Codes : (A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i) and (iii) 45. (i) In PERT, it is assumed that the activity times follow the beta distribution. (ii) In CPM, two time and cost estimates are made for each activity, which are called the optimistic and pessimistic estimates. (iii) Time is the only variable used in PERT. (iv) While in PERT the emphasis is on event, in CPM the emphasis is on activity. (A) All of the above are true. (B) While (i) and (ii) are false, (iii) and (iv) are true. (C) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are true. (D) All the above are false. 46. If a = 4 and b = 2 for a particular estimating line with one independent variable, and the value of the independent variable is 2, what will be the value of the dependent variable ? (A) –1 (B) 0 (C) 8 (D) 10 47. For estimating an equation to be a perfect estimator of the dependent variable, which of the following is true ? (i) The standard error of the estimate is zero. (ii) All the data points are on the regression line. (iii) The co-efficient of determination is (–1). Codes : (A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only (C) (i) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) 48. The ‘F’ ratio contains : (i) Two estimates of the population variance (ii) Two estimates of the population mean (iii) One estimate of the population mean and one estimate of the population variance Codes : (A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (i) only (D) (iii) only 49. From the following statements, identify the correct answer : Statement I : The chi-square and ‘t’ distributions are always symmetrical distributions. Statement II : If we have large enough sample sizes, the assumption that “the samples are drawn from a normal population” can be discarded with ANOVA testing. Codes : (A) Both the Statements I and II are correct. (B) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is wrong. (C) Statement II is correct, but Statement I is wrong. (D) Both the Statements I and II are wrong. 50. Arrange the following steps involved in the ‘information system development cycle’ in the ascending order : (i) Installation of the system (ii) Operations of the system (iii) Definition and objectives of the system (iv) Review and evaluation (v) Development of the system Codes : (A) (i), (iii), (v), (iv), (ii) (B) (iii), (i), (v), (ii), (iv) (C) (v), (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) (D) (iii), (v), (i), (ii), (iv) 51. Match the items given in List – I with the most suitable items in List – II : List – I List – II a. Wireless networking i. Ring b. Network devices ii. Infrared c. Network models iii. Network Repeater d. Network Topology iv. TCP/IP 4 layered protocol Codes : a b c d (A) ii i iii iv (B) iv ii iii i (C) ii iii iv i (D) iii iv i ii 52. Which one is not the item to be necessarily included in the report on Corporate Governance in the Annual Report of listed companies ? (A) Board of Directors (B) Audit Committee (C) Shareholders’ Committee (D) All of the above 53. According to the BCG matrix, and given your knowledge of the technological environment, a business unit that manufactures typewriters would be an example of a (A) Cash cow (B) Dog (C) Question mark (D) Star 54. Assertion (A) : Vertical integration is considered as a growth strategy because the firms operations are expanded beyond primary business. Reasoning (R) : Vertical integration is the mixed empirical result to ascertain whether the strategy helps or hinders the performances. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the right explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the right explanation of (A). (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct. (D) (R) is correct, but (A) is not correct. 55. In the context of strategic management, a stakeholder can be defined as : (A) An individual or a group have financial interest in the organisation. (B) An external individual or a group that is able to impose constraints on the organisation. (C) An internal group or individual that is able to influence strategic direction of the organisation. (D) An individual or group with an interest in the organizations activities and who seeks to influence them. 56. What are the stages 2, 3 and 4 of the active strategic process ? (A) Generate process, select strategy, implement strategy (B) Strategy selection, strategy implementation, strategy control (C) Deliberate strategy, emergent strategy, realized strategy (D) Appraisal of strength and weaknesses, choice of strategic direction, strategic implementation 57. The first step in the development of a business mission is (A) a SWOT analysis (B) Goal formulation (C) Marketing Research (D) Strategy Formulation 58. At which level in the company should market oriented strategic planning begin ? (A) Corporate level (B) Functional level (C) Marketing department level (D) Strategic business limit 59. Which of the following technique stimulates people to greater creativity by meeting with others and participating in organised group experiences ? (A) Brain writing (B) Gordon method (C) Brain storming session (D) Big-dream approach 60. Match the following : List – I (Types of Qualities) List – II (Features) a. Physical i. Sharp memory b. Ethical ii. Coordinator c. Social iii. Personality d. Mental iv. Character Codes : a b c d (A) ii i iii iv (B) iii iv ii i (C) ii i iv iii (D) iii iv i ii 61. Which of the following Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha in 1985, with the objective to make a special provision to secure timely detection of sick and potentially sick companies and for setting up a board of experts for speedy determination of the preventive ameliorative and remedial measures ? (A) The Industrial Reconstruction Bank of India Bill (B) NABARD Bill (C) The Sick Industrial Companies (special provisions) Bill (D) None of the above 62. Indicate the person who is considered as pioneer in the herbal beauty care in India and has achieved unprecedented international acclaim for her application of Ayurveda (the ancient Indian ‘Science of Life’ based on herbal remedies) in cosmetology and trichology : (A) Sumati Morarji (B) Shahnaz Hussain (C) Yamutai Kirloskar (D) Neena Malhotra 63. Which of the following items is not included in project cost estimation of a new business ? (A) Preference Dividend (B) Margin money for working capital (C) Anticipated initial losses (D) Pre-operative expenses 64. Which of the following is the main function of State Financial Corporations ? (A) Provide short-term finance to large-sized industrial units (B) Provide long-term finance to small and medium sized industrial units. (C) Undertake variety of promotional activities, like preparation of feasibility reports, conducting industrial potential surveys, etc. (D) Develop industrial estates for providing land to a building Entrepreneurs. 65. Which one of them was not a Corporate Fraud ? (A) Satyam Case (B) Abdul Karim Telgi case (C) Saradha Chit Fund (D) Ketan Parikh 66. The first social audit in India to evaluate role and success of company towards moral responsibility of employees conducted by (A) Birla Group (BALCO) (B) Wipro (C) Infosys (D) TISCO 67. SEBI asked entire group “A” companies to submit a corporate governance report in addition to their annual reports from the date : (A) April 1, 2001 (B) April 1, 2000 (C) January 13, 2006 (D) April 1, 2008 68. The practice of willingly hiding relevant information by being secretive and deceitful known as _________, occur when organization punishes individual who is open and honest and rewards the one who has unethical behaviour. (A) ‘Window Dressing’ (B) ‘Counter Norms’ (C) ‘Stone-walling’ (D) None of the above 69. Corporate Governance Committee appointed on May 7, 1999 was headed by (A) Aditya Birla (B) Kumar Mangalam Birla (C) Rajendar Sachar (D) J.S. Mehta 70. The term ‘Corporate Governance’ comes closest to (A) Corporate Management (B) Corporate Administration (C) Corporate Planning (D) Corporate System 71. The highest amount of FDI in India comes from (A) Japan (B) U.S.A. (C) Indonesia (D) Mauritius 72. ‘Free trade’ means (i) Opening different sectors for the FDI in flow (ii) greater competition which, in turn, enhances efficiency (iii) Development of new industries (iv) Incentives for Imports and Exports Codes : (A) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (B) Both (i) and (ii) (C) Only (ii) (D) Only (i) 73. Statement I : ‘Free trade’ leads to specialisation and thereby to increased output. Statement II : Import restrictions are both long term and short term measures of balances of payment adjustments. Codes : (A) Statement I is true, but II is false. (B) Statement II is true, but I is false. (C) Both the statements I and II are false. (D) Both the statements I and II are true. 74. In terms of the increasing competitions, among the MNCs, rank the followings in the ascending order : (i) Mobile Technology (ii) Business Intelligence (iii) Cloud Computing (iv) Social Media (A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (B) (iv), (iii), (ii) and (i) (C) (iv), (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iv) and (iii) 75. Statement I : ‘Trade creation’ and ‘Trade Diversion’ both, have welfare implications. Statement II : Regional partners should be competitive, and not complementary, for the purpose of the most efficient use of economic resources within a Customs Union. Codes : (A) Statement I is true, but statement II is false. (B) Statement II is true, but statement I is false. (C) Both the statements I and II are true. (D) Both the statements I and II are false. |