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  #2  
28th October 2014, 11:49 AM
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Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: UGC NET Management Exam Question Paper

Here is the list of few questions of UGC NET Management Exam Question Paper
which you are looking for .

1. During last five years per capita income of India is increasing, that means
(A) National income growth of
India is more than growth of
population.
(B) Growth in population is
more than the growth in
National income of India.
(C) National income of India &
population of India have
grown at the uniform rate.
(D) All of the above

2. In the short run firm considers the minimum of its average variable
cost curve as
(A) Break-even point
(B) Shutdown point
(C) Economies of scope
(D) None of the above

3. The positive cross elasticity of demand between two products means
(A) two products are substitutes
(B) two products are
complementary
(C) two products are neither
substitutes nor
complementary
(D) none of the above

4. A monopolist always operates in the
(A) Inelastic segment of its
demand curve
(B) Elastic segment of its
demand curve
(C) Unitary elastic segment of
its demand curve
(D) None of the above

5. The price elasticity of demand for any product in the long run
(A) is more than it’s short run
value.
(B) is less than its short run value.
(C) is same as its short run
value.
(D) None of the above







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  #3  
28th October 2014, 12:25 PM
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UGC NET Management Exam Question Paper

Will you please provide the question paper of UGC NET Management Exam ?
  #4  
28th October 2014, 01:56 PM
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Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: UGC NET Management Exam Question Paper

Here I am providing the list of few questions of UGC NET Management Exam question paper which you are looking for .

1. In the case of an inferior commodity,
the income elasticity of demand is
(A) Positive (B) Unitary
(C) Negative (D) Infinity
2. The slope of the iso-cost line is determined by
(A) Prices of the two factors
(B) Productivity of the two factors
(C) Degree of substitutability of the two factors
(D) None of these
3. Which one of the followingstatements is correct or more nearly correct ?
(A) An increase in the price of commodity represents a fall in its value
(B) Value has nothing to do with the price
(C) If the price of a commodity falls, its value relative to other goods does not change
(D) The price of a good is its value measured in terms of money








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  #5  
15th November 2014, 10:09 AM
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UGC NET Management Exam Question Paper

Will you please provide the question paper of UGC NET Management Exam ?
  #6  
15th November 2014, 03:49 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: UGC NET Management Exam Question Paper

Here is the list of few questions of UGC NET Management Exam Question Paper which you are looking for .

1. Define industrial dispute. State the methods of dispute settlement.

State the emerging issues in different type of retailing in India.

What are the basic assumptions of Gordon’s model of dividend policy and valuation
of firm ? How does Gordan’s model differ from Modigliani-Miller’s model ?

Examine the role of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in controlling and regulating the
foreign exchange rates.

2. What is performance appraisal ? Compare the different methods of performance
appraisal.

“Marketers need to identify and adapt significant changes in forces of the marketing
Environment.” Elaborate.

“Making financial decisions and managing working capital in international business
are much more complicated and complex than those in domestic business.” Comment
upon the statement and bring out the role of international finance manager.
UGC NET Management Exam Question Paper



For more questions , here is the attachment..................
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  #7  
18th March 2015, 11:37 AM
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Re: UGC NET Management Exam Question Paper

Can you provide me previous year question paper of UGC NET Management paper as I will be giving the exam this year and need for preparation?
  #8  
18th March 2015, 11:40 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: UGC NET Management Exam Question Paper

Below I am providing you some questions of from question paper of UGC NET Management and attaching a PDF attachment which has detail information regarding this that you can down load for free:

In case a decrease in price of a
commodity results in an increase in
its demand on a negatively sloping
demand curve, it is called
(A) An increase in demand
(B) An increase in quantity
demanded
(C) Law of demand
(D) Any of the above

Production function is not based on
the assumption of the
(A) Substitutability of inputs
(B) Complementarity of inputs
(C) Marketability of products
(D) Specificity of inputs

Macroeconomics basically concerns
with which of following in an
economy ?
(A) Industry, Trade and Commerce
(B) Agriculture, Industry & Trade
(C) Employment, Inflation &
Growth
(D) Population, Income and
Economic Planning

The competition commission of India
has no rule in regulating which of the
following ?
(A) Restrictive Trade Agreements
(B) Abuse of Market Power
(C) Unfair Trade Practices
(D) Mergers and Acquisitions

1. In case a decrease in price of a
commodity results in an increase in
its demand on a negatively sloping
demand curve, it is called
(A) An increase in demand
(B) An increase in quantity
demanded
(C) Law of demand
(D) Any of the above
2. Production function is not based on
the assumption of the
(A) Substitutability of inputs
(B) Complementarity of inputs
(C) Marketability of products
(D) Specificity of inputs
3. Match the items of the following two
lists and indicate the correct code :
List – I List – II
a. Trade
channel
discounts
i. Oligopoly
pricing
b. Tie-up sales ii. Locational
price
differentials
c. Price being
nonresponsive
to
changes in
demand costs
iii. Differential
pricing
d. Basing-point
pricing
iv. Product-line
pricing
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iv ii iii i
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) i iii ii iv
4. Indicate the correct code matching
the items in List – I with those in
List – II as follows :
List – I List – II
a. Competitive
parity in
advertising
i. Variations in
advertising
b. Promotional
elasticity of
product
ii. Advertising
scheduling
c. Optimal
promotion
mix
iii. Advertising
expenditure
d. Pulsing
advertising
iv. Marginal
equivalence of
advertising
media outlay
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii iii i iv
(B) iii i iv ii
(C) i iv ii iii
(D) iv ii iii i
5. Macroeconomics basically concerns
with which of following in an
economy ?
(A) Industry, Trade and Commerce
(B) Agriculture, Industry & Trade
(C) Employment, Inflation &
Growth
(D) Population, Income and
Economic Planning
6. The competition commission of India
has no rule in regulating which of the
following ?
(A) Restrictive Trade Agreements
(B) Abuse of Market Power
(C) Unfair Trade Practices
(D) Mergers and Acquisitions

7. The ability to understand,
communicate with, motivate and
support other people, both individually
and in groups, defines which of the
following management skills ?
(A) Hard Skills
(B) Soft Skills
(C) Conceptual Skills
(D) Political Skills
8. As __________, managers receive a
wide variety of information and serve as
the nerve centres of internal and external
information of the organization.
(A) Leaders
(B) Monitors
(C) Distribution handlers
(D) Resource allocators
9. Which one is the correct combination ?
(A) Theory of
Conditioning
– Bernara
(B) Operant
Conditioning
Theory
– B.F. Skinner
(C) Stimulus
Response
Theory
– Hoodman
(D) Theory of
Associates
– Marshall
10. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Evaluative
statements or
judgements
concerning
objects, people or
events
i. Attitudes
b. The opinion or
belief segment of
an attitude
ii. Cognitive
Component
c. The emotional or
feeling segment
of an attitude
iii. Affective
Component
d. An intention to
behave in a
certain way
towards someone
or something
iv. Behavioural
component
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) i iii ii iv
11. As per Rorsach value survey, which
of the following is not an
instrumental value ?
(A) Ambitious
(B) Imagination
(C) Wise
(D) Capable
12. When we judge someone on the basis
of our perception of the group to
which he or she belongs, we are
using the shortcut, called ________
(A) Selective Perceptive
(B) Halo effect
(C) Contrast effect
(D) Stereotyping
13. Performance = f (m, a, e). In this
expression ‘e’ stands for
(A) Efficiency
(B) Effectiveness
(C) Environment
(D) Entrepreneurship
14. Selecting a representative sample of
jobs, preparing job descriptions for
them, comparing them on the basis of
the information in the job
descriptions and placing them in
order of their perceived importance
represents which of the following job
evaluation methods ?
(A) Job grading method
(B) Job ranking method
(C) Points rating method
(D) Guide chart method

15. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. A pay plan in
which most
employees are
part of the same
compensation
system.
i. Elitest pay
system
b. A pay plan in
which different
compensation
systems are
established for
employees or
groups at
different
organizational
levels.
ii. Skill based
pay
c. A pay system in
which employees
are paid on the
basis of the jobs
they can do.
iii. Egalitarian
pay system
d. The perceived
fairness of the pay
structure within a
firm.
iv. Internal
equity
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iii i ii iv
(C) i iii ii iv
(D) iii ii i iv
16. ________ of an employee is the
process of evaluating the employee
performance of the job in terms of
the requirements of the job.
(A) Merit rating
(B) Job Evaluation
(C) Job Analysis
(D) Performance Appraisal
17. HRM is regarded as old wine in a
new bottle. This idea was formulated
by
(A) Armstrong
(B) Guest
(C) Storey
(D) Peter Drucker
18. The space for every worker
employed on the factory under the
Factories Act, 1948 should be atleast
(A) 9.9 cubic metre
(B) 10.2 cubic metre
(C) 13.2 cubic metre
(D) 14.2 cubic metre
19. Which of the following combinations
is correct ?
(A) The practice
of replacing
narrowly
defined job
descriptions
with broader
categories of
related jobs
– Job
Hierarchy
(B) A firm’s
decision to
pay above,
below or at the
market rate for
its jobs
– Pay Grades
(C) Groups of jobs
that are paid
within the
same pay
range
– Pay Policy
(D) A job that is
similar or
comparable in
content across
firms
– Key job
20. A technique for resolving conflict in
which the parties agree to have a
neutral third party hear the dispute
and make a decision is called
(A) Negotiation
(B) Arbitration
(C) Smoothing
(D) Collective Bargaining
21. Identify the major actor(s) of
industrial relation, from the
following :
(A) Employees
(B) Unions
(C) Government
(D) All of the above

22. The yield to maturity of a bond is the
interest rate
(A) that makes the total cash flows
receivable from owning the
bond equal to the price of the
bond.
(B) that makes the present value of
cash flows receivable from
owning the bond equal to the
price of the bond.
(C) that makes cash flows
receivable from the bond till
the first call equal to the face
value of the bond.
(D) none of the above
23. Match the correct options for the
following capital budgeting appraisal
criteria :
List – I List – II
a. The criterion
based on the cash
flows of a limited
period.
i. Internal Rate
of Return
b. The criterion
based on profit
over life of the
project.
ii. Pay-back
Method
c. The criterion that
considers cash
flows over the life
of project which
considered the
time value of
money.
iii. Accounting
Rate of
Return
d. The criterion that
derives the
outcomes in terms
of the rate of
return considering
the cash flows
over the life of
project with the
time value of
money.
iv. Net Present
Value
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) iv iii ii i
24. Match the following theories with
reference to the capital structure
theories :
List – I List – II
a. Traditional
Approach
i. Highly profitable
companies
generally use little
debt.
b. Trade-off
Theory
ii. Optimal capital
structure exists
c. Packingorder
theory
iii. Optimal debtequity
ratio of
profitable firm
that has stable,
tangible assets
would be higher
than the optimal
debt-equity ratio
of unprofitable
firm.
Codes :
a b c
(A) i ii iii
(B) ii iii i
(C) iii i ii
(D) i iii ii
25. Lintner Model shows that the current
dividend depends
(A) partly on current earnings and
partly on the previous year’s
dividend.
(B) partly on market rate of return
and partly on the expected rate
of return.
(C) partly on current earnings and
partly on the expected rate of
return.
(D) partly on previous year’s
dividend and partly on the
market rate of return.
26. “The difference between the forward
rate and the spot rate is just enough
to offset the difference between the
interest rate in the two currencies.”
This concept is known as
(A) Purchasing power parity
(B) Fisher effect
(C) Interest rate parity
(D) International Fisher effect

27. Match the following terms :
List – I List – II
a. Forward
contract
i. An agreement
between two parties
to exchange one set
of cash flows for
another
b. Futures
contract
ii. A standardized
contract
c. Swap iii. The seller of an
instrument grants
the buyer the right,
but not the
obligation, to buy
or sell some asset at
a pre-determined
price during the
specified period
d. Options iv. A tailor made
contract
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) iv ii i iii
28. An analysis of percentage financial
statement where all the Balance
Sheet items are divided by the total
assets and all the income statement
items are divided by net sales or
revenue is known as
(A) Index Analysis
(B) Trend Analysis
(C) Ration Analysis
(D) Common size Analysis
29. A company collecting cash from
customers within two days and
paying to suppliers in 35 days, will
have
(A) Negative operating cycle
(B) Negative cash cycle
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of (A) or (B)
30. Match the following expressions :
List – I List – II
a. Venture
capital
i. Emphasises on
Corporate
governance
b. Private
equity
ii. Issue of securities
to a select group
of persons not
exceeding 49
c. Private
placement
iii. Emphasises on
Management
capability
Codes :
a b c
(A) i ii iii
(B) ii iii i
(C) iii i ii
(D) i iii ii
31. The fundamental determinant of a
person’s wants and behaviour is
(A) Perception
(B) Personality
(C) Culture
(D) Social Group
32. Consider the following statements :
(1) Exclusive dealing amounts to a
restrictive agreement under the
Competition Act, 2002.
(2) The rate of growth in the
service sector in India is
highest among all the other
sectors of economy.
(3) Predatory pricing is not
regulated under any law.
(4) A company using sales force
promotion and trade promotion
is using “Pull” strategy.
Indicate the correct answer out of the
following :
(A) While statements (1) and (2)
are true, (3) and (4) are not.
(B) While statements (1) and (3)
are true, rest are not.
(C) While statement (2) is true,
others are not.
(D) All the statements are true.

33. Personal influence is most important
at the _____ stage of the consumer
adoption process.
(A) Adoption (B) Awareness
(C) Evaluation (D) Trial
34. The price setting method most
closely corresponding of the concept
of product positioning is
(A) Cost-plus pricing
(B) Psychological pricing
(C) Going-rate pricing
(D) Perceived-value pricing
35. Use of mail, telephone and other
non-personal contact tools to
communicate with, or solicit a
response from, specific customers
and prospects is called
(A) Advertising
(B) Direct Marketing
(C) Sales Promotion
(D) Public Relations
36. _________ marketing describes the
employees’ skills in serving the
clients.
(A) External
(B) Interactive
(C) Internal
(D) Relationship
37. Match the two sets of concepts :
List – I List – II
i. Evaluation of
Alternatives
a. Perception
ii. Post-purchase
behaviour
b. Cognitive
Dissonance
iii. Selective
distortion
c. Life style
iv. Psychographic
segmentation
d. Expectancy- value model
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii ii iv i
(D) iv iii ii i
38. Which of the following determinants
of service quality is the most
important ?
(A) Empathy
(B) Reliability
(C) Responsiveness
(D) Tangibility
39. While developing customer loyalty
programmes, database is often not
helpful in
(A) Identifying prospective
customers
(B) Deepening customer loyalty
(C) Avoiding serious customer
mistakes
(D) Creating consumer associations
40. The problem caused by a redundant
constraint is that
(A) the problem shall have no
feasible solution.
(B) the problem shall have a
bounded solution.
(C) the redundant constraint can
never be satisfied.
(D) none of the above.

42. A company uses rivets at a rate of
15,000 kg per year, rivets costing ` 6
per kg. If the cost of placing an order
is ` 60 and the carrying cost of the
inventory is 30 percent per annum,
the Economic Order Quality will be
(A) 1000 × 2 kg
(B) 1000 kg
(C) 100 10 kg
(D) 200 5 kg

43. The arrival rate of customers at a
service window of a cinema hall
follows a probability distribution
with a mean rate of 45 per hour. If
the service rate of the clerk follows
Poisson distribution, with a mean of
60 per hours, what is the probability
of having no customer in the system ?
(A) 0.75 (B) 0.60
(C) 0.25 (D) 0.45
44. From which of the following can
retailers immediately determine, how
many packets they should stock each
day to maximize the profit ?
(i) Expected profit from each
stocking action
(ii) Expected loss from each
stocking action.
(iii) Conditional-profit table
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iii)
45. (i) In PERT, it is assumed that the
activity times follow the beta
distribution.
(ii) In CPM, two time and cost
estimates are made for each
activity, which are called the
optimistic and pessimistic
estimates.
(iii) Time is the only variable used
in PERT.
(iv) While in PERT the emphasis is
on event, in CPM the emphasis
is on activity.
(A) All of the above are true.
(B) While (i) and (ii) are false, (iii)
and (iv) are true.
(C) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are true.
(D) All the above are false.
46. If a = 4 and b = 2 for a particular
estimating line with one independent
variable, and the value of the
independent variable is 2, what will
be the value of the dependent
variable ?
(A) –1
(B) 0
(C) 8
(D) 10
47. For estimating an equation to be a
perfect estimator of the dependent
variable, which of the following is
true ?
(i) The standard error of the
estimate is zero.
(ii) All the data points are on the
regression line.
(iii) The co-efficient of determination
is (–1).
Codes :
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
48. The ‘F’ ratio contains :
(i) Two estimates of the
population variance
(ii) Two estimates of the
population mean
(iii) One estimate of the population
mean and one estimate of the
population variance
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i) only
(D) (iii) only

49. From the following statements,
identify the correct answer :
Statement I : The chi-square and
‘t’ distributions are always
symmetrical distributions.
Statement II : If we have large
enough sample sizes, the
assumption that “the samples
are drawn from a normal
population” can be discarded
with ANOVA testing.
Codes :
(A) Both the Statements I and II are
correct.
(B) Statement I is correct, but
Statement II is wrong.
(C) Statement II is correct, but
Statement I is wrong.
(D) Both the Statements I and II are
wrong.
50. Arrange the following steps involved
in the ‘information system
development cycle’ in the ascending
order :
(i) Installation of the system
(ii) Operations of the system
(iii) Definition and objectives of the
system
(iv) Review and evaluation
(v) Development of the system
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii), (v), (iv), (ii)
(B) (iii), (i), (v), (ii), (iv)
(C) (v), (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(D) (iii), (v), (i), (ii), (iv)
51. Match the items given in List – I with
the most suitable items in List – II :
List – I List – II
a. Wireless
networking
i. Ring
b. Network
devices
ii. Infrared
c. Network
models
iii. Network
Repeater
d. Network
Topology
iv. TCP/IP
4 layered
protocol
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) iv ii iii i
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) iii iv i ii
52. Which one is not the item to be
necessarily included in the report on
Corporate Governance in the Annual
Report of listed companies ?
(A) Board of Directors
(B) Audit Committee
(C) Shareholders’ Committee
(D) All of the above
53. According to the BCG matrix, and
given your knowledge of the
technological environment, a
business unit that manufactures
typewriters would be an example of a
(A) Cash cow
(B) Dog
(C) Question mark
(D) Star

54. Assertion (A) : Vertical integration
is considered as a growth
strategy because the firms
operations are expanded
beyond primary business.
Reasoning (R) : Vertical integration is
the mixed empirical result to
ascertain whether the strategy
helps or hinders the performances.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct,
and (R) is the right explanation
of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct,
but (R) is not the right
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not
correct.
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is not
correct.
55. In the context of strategic
management, a stakeholder can be
defined as :
(A) An individual or a group have
financial interest in the
organisation.
(B) An external individual or a
group that is able to impose
constraints on the organisation.
(C) An internal group or individual
that is able to influence
strategic direction of the
organisation.
(D) An individual or group with an
interest in the organizations
activities and who seeks to
influence them.
56. What are the stages 2, 3 and 4 of the
active strategic process ?
(A) Generate process, select
strategy, implement strategy
(B) Strategy selection, strategy
implementation, strategy
control
(C) Deliberate strategy, emergent
strategy, realized strategy
(D) Appraisal of strength and
weaknesses, choice of strategic
direction, strategic
implementation
57. The first step in the development of a
business mission is
(A) a SWOT analysis
(B) Goal formulation
(C) Marketing Research
(D) Strategy Formulation
58. At which level in the company
should market oriented strategic
planning begin ?
(A) Corporate level
(B) Functional level
(C) Marketing department level
(D) Strategic business limit
59. Which of the following technique
stimulates people to greater creativity
by meeting with others and
participating in organised group
experiences ?
(A) Brain writing
(B) Gordon method
(C) Brain storming session
(D) Big-dream approach
60. Match the following :
List – I
(Types of
Qualities)
List – II
(Features)
a. Physical i. Sharp memory
b. Ethical ii. Coordinator
c. Social iii. Personality
d. Mental iv. Character
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) iii iv i ii

61. Which of the following Bill was
introduced in the Lok Sabha in 1985,
with the objective to make a special
provision to secure timely detection
of sick and potentially sick
companies and for setting up a board
of experts for speedy determination
of the preventive ameliorative and
remedial measures ?
(A) The Industrial Reconstruction
Bank of India Bill
(B) NABARD Bill
(C) The Sick Industrial Companies
(special provisions) Bill
(D) None of the above
62. Indicate the person who is considered
as pioneer in the herbal beauty care
in India and has achieved
unprecedented international acclaim
for her application of Ayurveda (the
ancient Indian ‘Science of Life’
based on herbal remedies) in
cosmetology and trichology :
(A) Sumati Morarji
(B) Shahnaz Hussain
(C) Yamutai Kirloskar
(D) Neena Malhotra
63. Which of the following items is not
included in project cost estimation of
a new business ?
(A) Preference Dividend
(B) Margin money for working
capital
(C) Anticipated initial losses
(D) Pre-operative expenses
64. Which of the following is the main
function of State Financial Corporations ?
(A) Provide short-term finance to
large-sized industrial units
(B) Provide long-term finance to
small and medium sized
industrial units.
(C) Undertake variety of
promotional activities, like
preparation of feasibility
reports, conducting industrial
potential surveys, etc.
(D) Develop industrial estates for
providing land to a building
Entrepreneurs.
65. Which one of them was not a
Corporate Fraud ?
(A) Satyam Case
(B) Abdul Karim Telgi case
(C) Saradha Chit Fund
(D) Ketan Parikh
66. The first social audit in India to
evaluate role and success of company
towards moral responsibility of
employees conducted by
(A) Birla Group (BALCO)
(B) Wipro
(C) Infosys
(D) TISCO
67. SEBI asked entire group “A”
companies to submit a corporate
governance report in addition to their
annual reports from the date :
(A) April 1, 2001
(B) April 1, 2000
(C) January 13, 2006
(D) April 1, 2008
68. The practice of willingly hiding
relevant information by being
secretive and deceitful known as
_________, occur when organization
punishes individual who is open and
honest and rewards the one who has
unethical behaviour.
(A) ‘Window Dressing’
(B) ‘Counter Norms’
(C) ‘Stone-walling’
(D) None of the above

69. Corporate Governance Committee
appointed on May 7, 1999 was
headed by
(A) Aditya Birla
(B) Kumar Mangalam Birla
(C) Rajendar Sachar
(D) J.S. Mehta
70. The term ‘Corporate Governance’
comes closest to
(A) Corporate Management
(B) Corporate Administration
(C) Corporate Planning
(D) Corporate System
71. The highest amount of FDI in India
comes from
(A) Japan
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Indonesia
(D) Mauritius
72. ‘Free trade’ means
(i) Opening different sectors for
the FDI in flow
(ii) greater competition which, in
turn, enhances efficiency
(iii) Development of new industries
(iv) Incentives for Imports and
Exports
Codes :
(A) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) Both (i) and (ii)
(C) Only (ii)
(D) Only (i)
73. Statement I : ‘Free trade’ leads to
specialisation and thereby to
increased output.
Statement II : Import restrictions
are both long term and short
term measures of balances of
payment adjustments.
Codes :
(A) Statement I is true, but II is
false.
(B) Statement II is true, but I is
false.
(C) Both the statements I and II are
false.
(D) Both the statements I and II are
true.
74. In terms of the increasing
competitions, among the MNCs, rank
the followings in the ascending order :
(i) Mobile Technology
(ii) Business Intelligence
(iii) Cloud Computing
(iv) Social Media
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (iv), (iii), (ii) and (i)
(C) (iv), (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iv) and (iii)
75. Statement I : ‘Trade creation’
and ‘Trade Diversion’ both,
have welfare implications.
Statement II : Regional partners
should be competitive, and not
complementary, for the
purpose of the most efficient
use of economic resources
within a Customs Union.
Codes :
(A) Statement I is true, but
statement II is false.
(B) Statement II is true, but
statement I is false.
(C) Both the statements I and II are
true.
(D) Both the statements I and II are
false.
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