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  #2  
12th December 2014, 01:13 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: TTA Exam Papers

Here I am providing you previous year’s question papers of BSNL TTA Exam for your preparation.

1. What is the name of the software that allows us to browse through web pages?
(a) Browser
(b) Mail Client
(c) FTP Client
(d) Messenger

2. What is the address given to a network called?
(a) System Address
(b) SYSID
(c) Process ID
(d) IP Address

3. Which one of the following is a valid DOS command?
(a) LIST *.*
(b) LIST???.
(c) RECOVER A:
(d) RENAME A:SAMPLE.TXT C:TEST.DOC

4. All system settings in WINDOWS are stored in:
(a) CONTROL.INI
(b) MAIN.INI
(c) SYSTEM.INI
(d) SETTING.INI

5. Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer?
(a) 2
(b) 10
(c) 16
(d) 32

6. Which of the following is not an output device:
(a) Printer
(b) Scanner
(c) Flat Screen
(d) Touch Screen

7. A microprocessor is a processor with reduced
(a) instruction set
(b) power requirement
(c) MIPS performance
(d) none of the above

8. Which of the following is not an output of an assembler?
(a) executable program
(b) source listing with line numbers and errors
(c) a symbol table
(d) object program

9. Which layer of OSI model is responsible for routing and flow control:
(a) Presentation
(b) Transport
(c) Network
(d) Data Link

10. Arrays are passed as arguments to a function by
(a) value
(b) reference
(c) both a and b
(d) none of the above

11. Array is:
(a) linear data structure
(b) non-linear structure
(c) none of the above

12. A data structure in which elements are added and removed from only one end, is known as:
(a) Array
(b) Stack
(c) Queue
(d) None of the above

13. A diamond-shaped box in an Entity-Relationship diagram refers to:
(a) Entity
(b) Relationship
(c) Attribute

14. The principle means of identifying entities within an entity set is:
(a) Primary Key
(b) Record
(c) Attribute
(d) Tuple

15. Modem refers to:
(a) Modulator
(b) Modulation
(c) Demodulator
(d) Modulator and Demodulator

16. C language is available for which of the following Operating Systems?
(a) DOS
(b) Windows
(c) Unix
(d) All of the above

17. Which of the following have the fastest access time?
(a) Magnetic Tapes
(b) Magnetic Disks
(c) Semiconductor Memories
(d) Compact Disks

18. DMA stands for:
(a) Direct Memory Allocation
(b) Distinct Memory Allocation
(c) Direct Memory Access
(d) Distinct Memory Access

19. Array subscripts in C always start at:
(a):1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) Value provided by user

20. Which type of commands in DOS needs additional files for their execution?
(a) Batch Commands
(b) Internal Commands
(c) External Commands


BSNL TTA Exam Question Paper 1
(1) The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is
(a) FSK
(b) PSK.
(c) PCM
(d) single tone modulation
(e) Two tone modulation
(2)VSB is an abbreviation of vestigal sideband, is derived by filtering
(a) DSB
(b) AM
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) PM
(3) The Hartely law states that
(a) The maximum rate of information transmission depends on the depth of modulation
(b) The maximum rate of information depends on the channel bandwidth.
(c) Only binary codes may be used
(d) Redundancy is essential
(4) The FM signal with, a modulation index mf is passed through a frequency tripler. The wave in
the output of the tripler will have a modulation index of
(a) mf/9
(b) mf/3
(c) mf
(d) 3 mf
(e) 9mf
(5) In high power AM transmission, modulation is done at
(a) Buffer stage
(b) Oscillator stage
(c) RF power stage
(d) If stage
(6) Companding is used
(a) In delta modulator to combat noise
(b) To limit amplitude in PCM transmitters.
(c) In PWM for working it with TDM
(d) To protect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortion
(e) In PCM to reduce the SNR
(7) In PCM system the SNR of the output signal increases
(a) Inversely with bandwidth
(b) Exponential with bandwidth
(c) With rate of sampling
(d) At low frequencies only
(8) Armstrong modulator generates
(a) Phase modulated signal
(b) Frequency modulated signal
(c) Both of these
(d) Pulse code modulated signal
(e) AM and PCM signals
(9) A Klystron is a cavity acting as buncher and catcher is used as microwave tube for
(a) Guiding waves
(b) Velocity modulation
(c) frequency modulation
(d) impedance matching
(e) All of these
(10) Easily adjustable tuning component in a waveguide is
(a) plunger
(b) plunger and stub
(c) screw
(d) both (a) and (c)
(e) both (b) and (c)
(11) A ferrite is
(a) A non-conductor with magnetic properties
(b) A conductor with magnetic properties
(c) A semiconductors
(d) An insulator which attenuates magnetic fields
(e) A compound with good conductivity.
(12) Vacuum tubes eventually fail at microwave frequencies because of their
(a) Inter electrode capacitance
(b) Small series inductance
(c) Large shunt capacitance
(d) Short transit time
(e) Increased noise figure
(13) The biggest disadvantage the IMP ATT diode has is its
(a) Low Efficiency
(b) high noise
(c) Low BW
(d) inability to provide pulse operation
(e) low power handling ability
(14) In AM transmission the frequency, which is not transmitted is
(a) carrier frequency
(b) audio frequency
(c) upper side frequency
(d) lower side frequency
(15) FM broadcast band lies in
(a) VHF
(b) UHF
(c) SHF
(d) HF
(16) Automatic gain control is used
(a) to maintain the tuning correct
(b) to reduce the voltage of loud passage of music
(c) to maintain the same amount of output, when stations of different strength are received
(d) to increase the amplification at high frequencies
(17) The modulation system inherently is most noise resistant in
(a) SSB suppressed carrier
(b) FM
(c) PPM
(d) PCM
(18) In practical waveguide act as
(a) low pass filter
(b) high pass filter
(c)band pass filter
(d)band stop filter
(19) The antenna efficiencies achieved in practice depend upon
(a) wave length
(b) impedance
(c) frequency
(d) none of above
(20) The process of compressing the digital codes at the transmitter and then expanding them
back to their original form at receiver is known as
(a) Quantizing
(b) companding
(c) step sizing
(d) modulation
(21) Digital transmission efficiency is given by
(a) information bits/total bits
(b) total bits/information bits
(c) redundant bits/information bits
(d) none of the above
(22) The speed of BRI ISDN interface is
(a) 2B + D
(b) 2D + B
(c) 30B + D
(d) 30D + B
(23) Which of the following is not a microwave generation source?
(a) Klystron
(b) Magnetron
(c) TWT
(d) Diode
(24) A signal of maximum frequency of 1 KHz is sampled at Nyquist Rate. The interval between
two successive samples is:
(a) 50 micro seconds
(b) 100 micro seconds
(c) 500 micro seconds
(d) 1000 micro seconds
(25) In order to get back the original signal, it is necessary to use:
(a) low pass filter
(b) high pass filter
(c) band pass filter
(d) band reject filter
(26) Man made noise id caused by:
(a) Solar eruptions
(b) Distant Stars
(c) Lightning Discharges
(d) Arc discharge in electric machines
(27) At microwave frequencies, the size of antenna becomes
(a) very large
(b) large
(c) small
(d) very small
(28) Due to curvature of earth, microwave repeaters are placed at distance of about
(a) l0 Km
(b) 50 Km
(c) 200 Km
(d) 500 Km
(29) For handling large microwave power, the best medium is
(a) coaxial line
(b) rectangular waveguide
(c) stripline
(d) circular wave guide
(30) An attenuator is used with TWT to
(a) prevent oscillations
(b) increase gain
(c) prevent saturation
(d) help bunching
(3l) TWT is basically
(a) an oscillator
(b) tuned amplifier
(c) wideband amplifier
(d) an audio amplifier
(32) The negative resistance in Gunn diode is due to
(a) electron transfer to a less mobile energy level
(b) high reverse bias
(c) electron domain formation at the junction
(d) tunneling across the junction
(33) Which of the following sinusoidal oscillator is preferred for microwave frequencies?
(a) resonant circuit oscillator
(b) RC phase shift oscillators
(c) negative resistance oscillators
(d) all of the above
(34) When electromagnetic waves are propagated in a waveguide
(a) they travel along the walls of the waveguide
(b) they travel through the dielectric without touching the walls
(c) they are reflected from the walls but do not travel along the walls
(d) none of above
(35) Wave guides are generally made of
(a) Cast iron or steel
(b) White metal or gun metal
(c) bronze or aluminium
(d) plastic or bakelite
(36) The cut off frequency of a wave guide means
(a) lower frequencies will not be propagated
(b) it determines the dimensions of the wave guide
(c) frequency at which zero transmission takes place
(d) None of above
(37) In case of matched load
(a) Transmission is zero
(b) reflection is zero
(c) reflection is unity
(d) transmission is equivalent to reflection
(38) In an AM wave with 100% modulation, the carrier is suppressed. The percentage of power
saving will be
(a) 100%
(b) 50%
(c) 25%
(d) 66.7%
(39) The function of AM detector circuit is
(a) to rectify the input signal
(b) to discard the carrier
(c) to provide the audio signal
(d) All of the above
(40) In FM, the noise can be further decreased by
(a) decreasing deviation
(b) increasuig deviation
(c) keeping deviation constant
(d) none of these
(41) In PPM, message resides in
(a) Pulses
(b) time location of pulse edges
(c) none of these
(42) Which of the following pulse systems is preferred for communication in presence of noise?
(a) PAM
(b) PDM
(c) PPM
(d) none of above
(43) Which of the following pulse systems requires higher bandwidth
(a) PAM
(b)PDM
(c)PPM
(d)none of these
(44) The audio frequency range lies between
(a) 20 to 20,000 Hz
(b) 20 to 20,000 KHz
(c) 400 to 8,000Hz
(d) 500 to 5,000 Hz
(45) Maximum undistorted power output of a transmitter is obtained when its modulation is:
(a) more than 100%
(b) 100%
(c) less than 100%
(d) 50%
(46) The AGC voltage in a radio receiver is proportional to
(a) the amount of modulation
(b) the amplitude of audio signal
(c) the amplitude of IF carrier
(d) none of these
(47) An FM transmitter has maximum frequency deviation of 75 KHz and reproduces audio
signal up to 15 KHz. Minimum channel width required, in KHz is
(a) 180
(b) 120
(c) 90
(d) 60
(48) With 100% modulation, ratio of side band power to total power transmitted in an amplitude
modulated wave is
(a) 2/3
(b) l/3
(c) l/2
(d) l/4
(49) To increase the Q factor of an induction, it wound with
(a) thicker wire
(b) thinner wire
(c) longer wire
(d) wire with heavy insulation
(50) Power factor of a purely resistive circuit is:
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) 0.5
(d) infinity


BSNL TTA Exam Question Paper 2
1. An open loop control system has its
(a) control action independent of the output or desired quantity
(b) controlling action, depending upon human judgment
(c) internal system changes automatically taken care of
(d) both (a) and (b)
(e) all (a),(b) and (c)
2. A servo system must have
(a) feedback system
(b) power amplifier to amplify error
(c) capacity to control position or its derivative
(d) all of these
(e) none of these
3. The major disadvantage of a feedback system may be
(a) Inaccuracy
(b) inefficiency
(c) Unreliability
(d) instability
(e) Insensitivity
4. Properties of a transfer function
(a) It is ratio of two polynomials is S and assumes zero initial conditions
(b) It depends on system elements and not input and output of the system
(c) Coefficients of the powers of S in denominator and numerator are all real constant. The order of
denominator is usually greater than or equal to the order of numerator
(d) All of these
(e) It is a function which transfer one physical system into another physical system.
5. The classical analogous of a simple lever is
(a) Capacitor bridge
(b) transformer
(c) mutual inductor
(d) either of these
6. Two blocks G1(s) and G2(s) can be cascaded to get resultant transfer function as
(a) G1(s) + G2(s)
(b) G1(s) / G2(s)
(c) G1(s) G2(s)
(d) 1+G1(s) G2(s)
(e) 1-G1(s)G2(s)
(f) two blocks cannot be cascaded
7. The principles of homogeneity and super position can be applied to
(a) linear time invariant system
(b) non-linear time invariant system
(c) digital control system
(d) both (a) and (b)
8. Pick up the nonlinear system
(a) automatic voltage regulator
(b) d.c. servomotor with high field excitation
(c) temperature control of a furnaces using thermistor
(d) speed control using SCR
(e) all of these
9. Signal flow graph (SFG) is a
(a) polar graph
(b) semi log graph
(c) log log graph
(d) a special type of graph for analyzing modem control system
(e) a topological representation of a set of differential equations
10. Disadvantages of magnetic amplifier
(a) time lag, less flexible, non-sinusoidal waveform
(b) low power consumption and isolation of the active circuit
(c) saturation of the core
(d) all of these
11. Pick up false statement regarding magnetic amplifiers
(a) The gate coil of an ideal magnetic amplifier has either zero or infinite inductance
(b) Resistance of control and gate winding is very small
(c) Magnetic amplifier gas dropping load characteristics
(d) Magnetic amplifiers are not used to control the speed of d.c. shunt motor
(e) Magnetic amplifiers can be used in automatic control of electric drivers of higher rating.
12. High power amplification is achieved by using
(a) push pull amplifier
(b) amplidyne
(c) magnetic amplifier
(d) DC amplifier
(e) D.C. generator
13. Pick up false statement regarding servomotors
(a) The d.c. servomotors are lighter than equivalent a.c. servomotors
(b) The d.c. servomotors develops higher starting and reversing torque than equivalent a.c. servomotor.
(c) A drag cup a.c. servomotor has one windings on stator and other on rotor
(d) Output power of servomotors varies from 1/20 W to 100 W
14. To reduce steady state error
(a) decrease natural frequency
(b) decrease damping
(c) increase damped frequency
(d) increase time constant
(f) increase gain constant of the system
15. A good factor for Mp should be
(a) less than 1
(b) lying between 1.1 and 1.5
(c) more than 2.2
(d) zero
(e) infinity
16. Pick up false statement. Routh-Hurwitz criterion
(a) is used for determining stability of a system
(b) is an algebraic procedure
(c) gives the exact location of roots of the characteristic equation
(d) does not indicate relative degree of stability or instability
17. Which of the following is the time domain method of determining stability of a control system
(a) Bode plot
(b) Nyquist plot
(c) Nicholos chart
(d) Routh-Hurwitz array
(e) Constant M and (fy) locus
(f) Root locus technique
18. The technique which gives transient response quickly as well as stability information is
(a) Nyquist plot
(b) Routh-Hurwitz criteria
(c) Bode plot
(d) Root locus plot
(e) Nichols plot
19. The bandwidth can be increased by use of
(a) phase lag network
(b) phase lead network
(c) both (a) and (b) in cascade
(d) both (a) and (b) in parallel
(e) none of these
20. Nyquist plot is drawn on
(a) semi log graph paper
(b) log log graph paper
(c) polar graph paper
(d) centimeter graph paper
21. If the gain margin is positive and the phase margin is negative the system is
(a) stable
(b) unstable
(c) indeterminist
22. The Bode plot is applicable to
(a) all phase network
(b) minimum phase network
(c) maximum phase network
(d) lag lead network
(e) none of these
23. The valid relation between setting time ts and rise time tr is
(a) tr>ts
(b) ts>tr
(c) ts=tr
(d) none of these
24. As a root moves further away from imaginary axis the stability
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) not affected
(d) none of these
25. Flat frequency response means that the magnitude ratio of output to input over the
bandwidth is
(a) variable
(b) zero
(c) constant
(d) none of above
26. How many octaves are between 200 Hz and 800 Hz
(a) Two octave
(b) One octave
(c) Four octave
(d) None of above
27. Human system can be considered as
(a) open loop system
(b) close loop system with single feedback
(c) close loop system with multivariable feedback
(d) none of these
28. In a feedback system the transient response
(a) Decays at constant rate
(b) gets magnified
(c) decays slowly
(d) decays more quickly
29. Transfer function of a system is used to calculate
(a) the steady state gain
(b) the main constant
(c) the order of system
(d) the output for any given input
(e) all of the above
30. Transfer function of a system is defined as the ratio of output to input in
(a) Laplace transform
(b) Z-transform
(c) Fourier transform
(d) Simple algebraic form
31. Introduction of feedback decreases the effect of
(a) disturbances
(b) noise signals
(c) error signals
(d) all the above
32. The system response of a system can be best tested with
(a) unit impulse input signal
(b) ramp input signal
(c) sinusoidal input signal
(d) exponentially decaying input signal
33. Which of the following is a closed loop system
(a) electric switch
(b) car starter
(c) de generator
(d) auto-pilot for an aircraft
34. Which of the following is used as an error detector
(a) potentiometer
(b) field controlled ac motor
(c) amplidyne
(d) armature controlled ac motor
35. The break away point of root loci are
(a) open loop poles
(b) closed loop poles
(c) open loop zeros
(d) closed loop zeros
36. Noise in a control system can be kept low by
(a) reducing the bandwidth
(b) attenuating such frequencies at which external signals get coupled into the system
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
37. Main cause of absolute instability in the control system is
(a) parameters of controlling system
(b) parameters of controlled system
(c) parameters of feedback system
(d) error detector where the two signals are compared
38. Basically a controller is
(a) a amplifier
(b) a clipper
(c) a comparator
(d) a summer
39. A system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin close to zero is
(a) highly stable
(b) highly oscillatory
(c) relatively stable
(d) none of these
40. Which of following elements is not used in an automatic control system
(a) sensor
(b) error detector
(c) oscillator
(d) final control element
41. AC systems are usually preferred to the DC systems in control applications because
(a) AC systems are cheaper
(b) AC systems are more stable
(c) AC systems have better performance characteristics and smaller in size
(d) all of these
42. A system has the transfer function (1-s)/(1+s); It is known as
(a) low pass system
(b) high pass system
(c) all pass system
(d) none of the above
43. In control systems, excessive bandwidth should be avoided because
(a) noise is proportional to bandwidth
(b) it leads to low relative stability
(c) it leads to slow speed of response
(d) none of these
44. In most systems, an increase in gain leads to
(a) larger damping ratio
(b) smaller damping ratio
(c) constant damping ratio
(d) none of these
45. A step function is applied to the input of a system and output is of the form y = t, the system is
(a) stable
(b) unstable
(c) not necessarily stable
(d) conditionally stable
46. Which of the following can be magnified by magnetic amplifier
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) power
(d) none of above
47. The inductance is not used in lag network because of
(a) big size
(b) time delay and hysteresis losses
(c) high reactance
(d) none of these
48. Saturation in a stable control system can cause
(a) conditional stability
(b) over damping
(c) low level oscillations
(d) high level oscillations
49. Excessive noise in control systems can cause
(a) reduction in bandwidth
(b) reduction in gain
(c) saturation in amplifying stages
(d) oscillations
50. The type-0 system has
(a) net pole at the origin
(b) no pole at the origin
(c) simple at one origin
(d) two poles at the origin
  #3  
22nd May 2015, 09:58 AM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Re: TTA Exam Papers

Will you provide me the sample paper of General Engineering section of the BSNL TTA exam as I am looking for the same ?
  #4  
22nd May 2015, 09:59 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: TTA Exam Papers

As you want I am here providing you sample paper of the General Engineering section of the BSNL TTA exam.


General Engineering

1. The probability of hitting a target from one gun 9/10, from another gun is 7/10. If both gun are fired at the same time, the probability of hitting the target is

(A) 2/20 (B) 63/100
(C) 16/20 (D) 63/20

2. If the three vectors a, b and c are coplanar , then the missed product a x b. c is

(A) Zero (B) Non-Zero
(C) Unity (D) Non of these

3. Limit sin x/x is
x?0

(A) not defined (B) 1
(c) zero (D) -1

4. When a body hits an obstacle, the force with which it hits the obstacle depends upon its

(A) average velocity
(B) velocity at the instant of collision
(C) initial velocity
(D) all of these

5. The wavelength of visible light is of the order of

(A) 1µm (B) 100 µm
(C) 1mm (D) 1 Å

6. Whenever a source of sound moves towards an observer

(A) the frequency heard by the observer is less than that of the source
(B) the frequency heard by the observer is greater than that of the source
(C) the frequency heard by the observer is unchanged
(D) the wavelength of sound heard is greater than that of the sound emitted

7. Moving electric charges will interact with

(A) electric field only
(B) magnetic field only
(C) both of these
(D) none of these

8. Gamma radiation is most similar to

(A) sound waves (B) X-ray
(C) Alpha particles (D) neutrons

9. The fundamental particle responsible for keeping the nucleus together is

(A) meson (B) anti proton
(C) positron (D) muon

10. Air contains 21% oxygen by volume and the rest nitrogen. If the barometer pressure is 740 mm of Hg the partial pressure of oxygen is close to

(A) 155 mm of Hg
(B) 310 mm of Hg
(C) 465 mm of Hg
(D) 162 mm of Hg

11. In the electrolytic cell

(A) electrical energy is converted into chemical energy
(B) chemical energy is converted into electrical energy
(C) mechanical energy is converted into potential energy
(D) potential energy is converted into kinetic energy

12. The force required to maintain a body at constant speed in free space is equal to

(A) the mass of the body
(B) zero
(C) the weight of the body
(D) the force required to stop it

13. If the length of a spring is halved, the spring constant becomes

(A) half (B) 1/4th
(C) double (D) four times

14. The coefficient of static friction depends on

(A) the material of the bodies in contact
(B) the quality of surface finish of the bodies
(C) the presence of foreign matter between the surface
(D) all of these

15. The units of angular impulse in SI system are

(A) Nms (B) Ns
(C) Nm/s (D) Ns/m

16. Stainless steel contains iron and

(A) Chromium and nickel
(B) Chromium and carbon
(C) Nickel and carbon
(D) Chromium and manganese

17. The property of material by which it offers resistance to scratching or indentation is called

(A) Brittleness
(B) Hardness
(C) Toughness
(D) Resilience

18. The failure of a material due to repeated stressing is known as

(A) Creep
(B) Fracture
(C) Fatigue
(D) Brittle Fracture

19. The electric device which blocks DC but allows AC is called

(A) Capacitor
(B) Inductor
(C) Amplifier
(D) Transducer

20. When a charge is moved from one point to another in an electric field, the work done is

(A) independent of the path
(B) zero along the direction of the field
(C) measured in Joules per metre
(D) measure in Volt per metre

21. A capacitor with lowest leakage is

(A) Paper (B) Ceramic
(C) Polyester (D) Mica

22. A zener diode operates

(A) In an extremely high forward bias
(B) In an extremely low reverse bias
(C) In an extremely low forward bias
(D) In a reverse bias higher than laid down voltage

23. The specific gravity of a lead acid cell is often used as a measure of its

(A) Rate of discharge
(B) Operating temperature
(C) State of charge
(D) Life expectancy

24. An uniformly distributed load is one which

(A) Acts at a point on a beam
(B) Spreads uniformly over the whole length of a beam
(C) Varies uniformly over the whole length of a beam
(D) loads the beam from one end only

25. A steam engine device which keeps the speed of the engine, all loads, constant is known as

(A) Flywheel
(B) Eccentric
(C) Connecting rod
(D) Governor

26. The refrigerant hiving the lowest freezing point is

(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Freon – 11
(D) Freon – 22

27. Heat and work are

(A) Path functions
(B) Properties of a substance
(C) Point functions
(D) Absolute units


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