TJSB bank question papers pdf

I want to collect Tjsb bank sample question papers for prepration of recruitment exam of trainee officer, so can you tell me from which sourses I can get the sample paper of it

[Quick Sam]

As you are doing prepration of Tjsb bank recruitment exam for trainee officer post and for it you want sample question paper , so on your demand here I am porovidng same for you:
TJSB bank sample question papers
Q.1. If the letters in the word TOPS can be rearranged to form a meaningful word beginning with O, the
last letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, M is the answer
and if no such word can be formed, X is the answer.
(1) T (2) P (3) M (4) S (5) X
Q.2. Some leaders are dishonest. Satyapriya is a leader. Which of the following inferences definitely
follows from these two statements ?
(1) Satyapriya is honest (2) Satyapriya is dishonest
(3) Some leaders are honest (4) Leaders are generally dishonest
(5) Satyapriya is sometimes dishonest
Composite
time of
Two Hours
Q.3. If the letters of the following alphabet intercharge positions, so that A takes the place of Z and Z
takes the place of A; B takes the place of Y and Y takes the place of B and so on, what will be the
13th letter from the right ?
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(1) M (2) N (3) O (4) L (5) None of these
Q.4. If the first and the second letters in the word ‘DEPRESSION’ were interchanged, also the third and
the fourth letters, the fifth and sixth letters and so on, which of the following would be the seventh
letter from the right ?
(1) R (2) O (3) S (4) I (5) None of these
Q.5. In a row of girls, if Seeta who is 10th from the left and Lina who is 9th from the right interchange
their seats, Seeta becomes 15th from the left. How many girls are there in the row ?
(1) 16 (2) 18 (3) 19 (4) 22 (5) None of these
Q.6-10. Read the information given below and answer the questions.
Six plays A, B, C, D, E and F of a famous playwright are to be staged one on each day from
Monday to Saturday. The schedule of the plays is to be in accordance with the following.
(1) A must be on the previous day of the on which E is staged.
(2) C must not be staged on Tuesday.
(3) B must be on a day which follows the day on which F is staged.
(4) D must be staged on Friday only and should not be immediately preceded by B.
(5) E must not be staged on the last day of the schedule.
Q.6. Which of the following is the schedule of plays, with the order of their staging from Monday ?
(1) E A B F D C (2) A F B E D C (3) A F B C D E (4) F A B E D C (5) None of these
Q.7. Play C cannot definitely be staged on which of the following days in addition to Tuesday ?
(1) Monday (2) Wednesday (3) Thursday (4) Friday (5) Saturday
Q.8. Play D is between which of the following pairs of plays ?
(1) C and E (2) E and F (3) A and E (4) B and E (5) C and F
Q.9. Which of the following plays is on Monday ?
(1) E (2) A (3) F (4) B (5) C
Q.10. Which of the following plays immediately follows B ?
(1) F (2) E (3) D (4) C (5) A
TEST OF QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
This test is designed to measure how fast and accurate you are in dealing with numbers, viz. computation,
quantitative reasoning, interpretation of tables and graphs.
Directions : In each of the following questions one number is missing. The place where the number is
missing is shown by a question mark (?). You have to find out which one of the answers shown against 1, 2,
3 and 4 can replace the question mark. If none of these four can replace the question mark, you will indicate
(5) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Q.11. 42 + 73 + 137 = ?
(1) 352 (2) 252 (3) 242 (4) 142 (5) None of these
Q.12. 20 ×
1
2
= ?
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 12 (4) 20 (5) None of these
Q.13. If the profit made by selling a pen for Rs.10 is as much as its cost, what is the cost price of the pen ?
(1) Rs.3/- (2) Rs.5/- (3) Rs.10/- (4) Rs.20/- (5) None of these
Also, there may be some questions based on graphs and tables.
Directions : Given below is a table showing percentages out of a total of 700 employees ranking six attributes
that help promotion. Rank I is the highest. Study the table carefully and answer questions that follow :
Attribute % of Employees Giving Different Ranks
I II III IV V VI
Seniority 32 17 22 19 5 5
Perseverance 14 19 17 9 27 14
Efficiency 15 19 21 14 14 17
Intelligence 10 14 10 14 17 35
Honesty 24 17 7 9 27 16
Sociability 5 14 23 35 10 13
Q.14. Which attribute for promotion has received the highest rank ?
(1) Perseverance (2) Seniority (3) Honesty (4) Sociability (5) Efficiency
Q.15. How many employees gave rank III to intelligence ?
(1) 119 (2) 98 (3) 77 (4) 70 (5) 10
Q.16. Which attribute is considered the least important for promotion ?
(1) Honesty (2) Intelligence (3) Perseverance (4) Efficiency (5) Sociability
TEST OF ENGLISH LANGUAGE
This is a test to see how well you know English. Your English language ability would be tested through
questions on grammar & vocabulary, synonyms, antonyms, sentence completion, comprehension of a passage
etc.
Q.17-18. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error,
if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error,
the answer is ‘5’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
Q.17. Most of the third world / country are experiencing / the ethnic or communal problem/
(1) (2) (3)
in varying degrees. / No error.
(4) (5)
Q.18. The regaining of freedom / as we well know has given rise for / many dormant issues /
(1) (2) (3)
and conflicts in our society. No error.
(4) (5)
Q.19-20. Pick out from the words given below each sentence the word which would complete the sentence
correctly and meaningfully.
Q.19. Continuous unemployment has induced in the people a kind of _____ which is most depressing.
(1) laziness (2) encouragement (3) satisfaction (4) anger (5) awakening
Q.20. He wants me to look ____ his garden during his absence.
(1) at (2) over (3) after (4) into (5) from
Q.21-26. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are
printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The true (21) of rights is duty. If we all (22) our duties, rights will not be (23) to seek. If leaving duties
unperformed we run (24) rights, they will (25) us like an elusive person. The more we pursue them,
the farther (26) they fly.
Q.21. (1) end (2) source (3) joy (4) purpose (5) power
Q.22. (1) deny (2) devote (3) discharge (4) imagine (5) fulfill
Q.23. (1) far (2) close (3) easy (4) against (5) common
Q.24. (1) as (2) after (3) at (4) from (5) for
Q.25. (1) hold (2) grab (3) fight (4) escape (5) chase
Q.26. (1) off (2) can (3) did (4) could (5) towards
TEST OF GENERAL AWARENESS
This test is designed to measure your awareness about the past and present events.
Q.27. To combat the menace of money laundering, which of the following financial institutions has introduced the
‘Know Your Customer’ Scheme ?
(1) IDBI (2) RBI (3) NABARD 4) SIDBI (5) None of these
Q.28. Which of the following sectors contributes maximum in deciding the growth in income of the states in
India ?
(1) Energy (2) Tourism (3) Service (4) Transport (5) Agriculture
Q.29. In which of the following states is the number of people living below poverty line the maximum ?
(1) Bihar (2) Andhra Pradesh (3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Rajasthan (5) Orissa
Q.30. OSCAR awards are given for best performance in which of the following field ?
(1) Films (2) Literature (3) Sports (4) Science (5) Social Service
Q.31. Who among the following is the current Prime Minister of India ?
(1) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (2) Dr. Manmohan Singh (3) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi
(4) Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee (5) None of these
(A) Details of the On-line Examination Pattern
(1) The examination would be conducted on-line i.e. on a computer.
(2) All tests will be in English.
(3) All the questions will have multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one will be the
correct answer. The candidate has to select the most appropriate answer and ‘mouse click’
that alternative which he/ she feels is appropriate/ correct. The alternative/ option that is clicked
on will be highlighted and will be treated as the answer to that question. Answer to any question
will be considered for final evaluation, only when candidates have submitted the answers by
clicking on “Save & Next” or “Mark for Review & Next”.
(4) The clock has been set at the server and the countdown timer at the top right corner of your screen
will display the time remaining for you to complete the exam. When the clock runs out the exam ends
by default - you are not required to end or submit your exam.
(5) The question palette at the right of screen shows one of the following statuses of each of the questions
numbered:
You have not visited the question yet.
You have not answered the question
You have answered the question
You have NOT answered the question but have marked the question for review
You have answered the question but marked it for review.
The Marked for Review status simply acts as a reminder that you have set to look at the question
again. If an answer is selected for a question that is Marked for Review, the answer will be considered
in the final evaluation.
(6) To select a question to answer, you can do one of the following :
(a) Click on the question number on the question palette at the right of your screen to go to that
numbered question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer to the
current question.
(b) Click on ‘Save & Next’ to save answer to current question and to go to the next question in
sequence.
(c) Click on ‘Mark for Review and Next’ to save answer to current question, mark it for review,
and to go to the next question in sequence.
(7) You can view the entire paper by clicking on the Question Paper button.
(8) To select your answer, click on one of the option buttons
(9) To change your answer, click the another desired option button
(10) To save your answer, you MUST click on Save & Next
(11) To deselect a chosen answer, click on the chosen option again or click on the Clear Response
button.
(12) To mark a question for review click on Mark for Review & Next. If an answer is selected for a
question that is Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in the final evaluation.
(13) To change an answer to a question, first select the question and then click on the new answer option
followed by a click on the Save & Next button.
(14) Questions that are saved or marked for review after answering will ONLY be considered for
evaluation.
(15) Sections will be displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a section can be viewed by
clicking on the section name. The section you will view will be highlighted.
(16) After clicking the Save & Next button on the last question for a section, you will automatically be
taken to the first question of the next section.
(17) You can move the mouse cursor over the section names to view the status of the questions for that
section.
(18) You can shuffle between sections and questions anytime during the examination as per your
convenience.
(19) The candidates are requested to follow the instructions of the “Test Administrator” carefully. If any
candidate does not follow the instructions / rules, it would be treated as a case of misconduct/ adoption
of unfair means and such a candidate would be liable for debarment from appearing for examinations
for a period as decided by Bank.
(20) The candidates may ask the Test Administrator about their doubts or questions only before the
commencement of the test. No query shall be entertained after the commencement of the examination.
(21) After the expiry of 120 minutes, the candidates will not be able to attempt any question or check their
answers. The answers of the candidate would be saved automatically by the computer system even
if he/ she has not clicked the “Submit” button.
(22) Please note :
(a) Candidates will not be allowed to “finally submit” unless they have exhausted the actual
test time.
(b) Under no circumstances should a candidate click on any of the ‘keyboard keys’ once
the exam starts as this will lock the exam.
B] General Instructions:
(1) Please note your roll number, password, date, time and venue address of the examination given
in the call letter.
(2) You may visit the venue one day before the Online Examination to confirm the location so that
you are able to report on time (as printed on the call letter) on the day of the examination. Late
comers will not be allowed.
(3) The call letter should be brought with you to the examination venue along with your recent
passport size photograph duly pasted on it.
(4) You must scrupulously follow the instructions of the Test Administrator and Bank Representative
at the examination venue. If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified and will be asked
to leave the examination venue.
(5) No use of calculators (separate or with watch), books, note books or written notes, cell phones
(with or without camera facility), or any other electronic device will be allowed during the
examination.
(6) Please bring the call letter with your photograph affixed thereon, currently valid Photo identity
proof in original and a photocopy of the same ID proof which you bring in original - THIS IS
ESSENTIAL. Please hand over the call-letter alongwith photocopy of photo identity proof duly
stapled together to the invigilator. Currently valid photo identity proof may be PAN Card/Passport/
Driving Licence/Voter’s Card/Bank Passbook with photograph/Photo Identity proof issued by a
Gazetted Officer on official letterhead /Photo Identity proof issued by a People’s Representative
on official letterhead/Valid recent Identity Card issued by a recognised College/University/Aadhar
Card with a photograph/Employee ID/Bar Council Identity card with photograph. Please note
that your name as appearing on the call letter (provided by you during the process of registration)
should exactly match the name as appearing on the photo identity proof. Female candidates
who have changed first/last/middle name post marriage must take special note of this. If there is
any mismatch between the name indicated in the Call Letter and Photo Identity Proof you will not
be allowed to appear for the exam.
(7) Your responses (answers) will be analysed with other candidates to detect patterns of similarity
of right and wrong answers. If in the analytical procedure adopted in this regard, it is inferred/
concluded that the responses have been shared and scores obtained are not genuine/valid, your
candidature may be cancelled. Any candidate who is found copying or receiving or giving
assistance or engaging in any behaviour unbecoming of a candidate will not be considered for
assessment. The Bank may take further action against such candidates as deemed fit by it.
(8) You should bring with you a ball-point pen. A sheet of paper will be provided which can be used
for rough work or taking down the question number you would like to review at the end of the test
before submitting your answers. After the test is over you MUST hand over this sheet of paper to
the Test Administrator before leaving the venue.
(9) The possibility for occurrences of some problem in the administration of the examination cannot
be ruled out completely which may impact test delivery and/or result from being generated. In
that event, every effort will be made to rectify such problem, which may include the conduct of
another examination if considered necessary. Decision of the test conducting body in this regard
shall be final. Candidates not willing to accept such change shall loose his/her candidature for
this exam.
(10) If the examination is held in more than one session, the scores across various sessions will be
equated to adjust for slight differences in difficulty level of different test batteries used across
sessions. More than one session are required if the nodes capacity is less or some technical
disruption takes place at any centre or for any candidate.

Hello sir ! I want to apply for TJSB bank exams will you please provide me TJSB bank question paper ?

[Shaleen]

Hello buddy as you want here we provides you TJSB bank question paper here we provides you as follows

Directions for questions 1 to 5 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
I. The ratio of people doing all 3 activities to people doing atleast 2 activities is 1 : 6.
II. The ratio of people doing only one activity to people doing atleast 2 activities is 3 : 2
III. Number of people doing only CAT/MBA exceeds number of people doing GRE/MS only by 990.
IV. Number of people doing only GRE/MS exceeds number of people seeking jobs only by 360.
1. Number of people doing all 3 activities is :
1] 500
2] 1000
3] 1500
4] Cannot be determined
2. Number of people doing no more than on activity is :
1] 10,000
2] 9,760
3] 14,000
4] 12,000
3. Number of people doing exactly two activities is :
1] 6000
2] 5000
3] 9000
4] 10,000
4. The number of people not doing any activity is :
1] 760
2] 570
3] 1000
4] Data Insufficient
5. The number of people who are both seeking employment and trying for GRN/MS is :
1] 1610
2] 2430
3] 1720
4] Data Insufficient
Explanatory Answers :
For answers to questions 1 to 5 :
Let the different sections be represented by the variables.
Given
1. p : (x + y + z + p) = 1 : 6
2. (a + b + c) : (x + y + z + p) = 3 : 2
∴ (a + b + c) : p : (x + y + z + p) = 9 : 1 : 6
Since P = 1
x + y + z + p 6
Since P = 1
x + y + z 5
∴ (a + b + c) : (x + y + z) : p = 9 : 5 : 1 ------ (I)
Again, the total of all areas is :
(a + b + c) + 2 (x + y + z) + 3p = 6810 + 7070 + 8120
(a + b + c) + 2 (x + y + z) + 3p = 22000
Using (I)
9p + 2(5p) + 3p = 22p = 22000
∴ p = 1000
x + y + z = 5000 } (II)
a + b + c = 9000
Again,
c - b = 990
b - a = 360
On solving
a = 2430
b = 2790
c = 3780
p = people doing all 3 activities = 1000
a + b + c = people doing exactly 1 activity = 9000
x + y + z = people doing exactly 2 activities = 5000
people not doing any activity = EU - (1000 + 9000 + 5000)
= 15760 - 15000 = 760
x, y, z cannot be determined without additional data.
Hence,
1- [2] 2-[2] 3-[2] 4-[1] 5-[4]
Directions for questions 6 to 9 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Palaash never knew he would be in such trouble. He has to sing in seven different languages. The Assamese song would be a hit if and only if it is preceded by a Telugu song. Konkani song would be a hit only if a Hindi song came before it. English has to be preceded by Hindi and Punjabi is the last song he sings. There is one song between English and Punjabi and of the three only two were hit. Konkani song is a failure. Tamil is the seventh language. If the Assamese song is a hit and his first song was Telugu then:
6. Which song did he sing after English?
1] Telugu
2] Konkani
3] Tamil
4] Assamese
7. Which song did he sing after Konkani?
1] Tamil
2] Punjabi
3] Hindi
4] English
8. If each hit had two points in the Grammy awards, then how many points did Palaash get?
1] 4
2] 6
3] 8
4] Can't say
9. What were the total number of assured hit songs as per the question?
1] 3
2] 4
3] 5
4] 6
Explanatory Answers :
For answers to questions 6 to 9 :
From the clues we can see Telugu is the first song, while Punjabi is the last song. Assamese would be second followed by Konkani, Hindi and English. Thus Tamil, the seventh language would be the sixth song. In terms of points there is no information regarding whether Telugu and Hindi songs were a hit or not. Thus we can't say. But regarding the number of assured hits as per the question it would be Assamese, and two songs out of English, Tamil and Punjabi. Thus the answers are
6- [3] 7-[3] 8-[4] 9-[1]
Directions for questions 10 to 14 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
A six digit (with no digit repeated) number is such that every alternate digit is a prime number. The difference between the digit on the tens place and the digit on the thousands place is the digit on the lakh place. The units digit is the product of the digit on the lakh place and the digit on the ten-thousands place, which is also a prime number. Also tens place digit is greater than the thousandth place digit.
10. The digit on the lakh place is :
1] 1
2] 2
3] 3
4] 4
11. The digit on the units place is :
1] 2
2] 4
3] 6
4] 8
12. The positive difference of the the digit on the ten-thousandth place and the the ten's place is :
1] 3
2] 4
3] 6
4] 7
13. The digit on the hundred's place is :
1] 3
2] 4
3] 8
4] Can't say
14. The number is divisible by :
1] 2
2] 3
3] 4
4] Both [1] and [3]
Explanatory Answers :
For answers to questions 10 to 14 :
As the unit digit is not a prime number, thus the lakh digit, the thousands digit and the ten's digit will be a prime number.
As the lakh digit is the difference of two prime numbers and still is a prime number, it is 2. Also the digits on the thousandth and the ten's place can be either 3 and 5 or 5 and 7. As the unit digit is the product of the digit on the lakh place and the digit on the ten-thousandth 7 (as 5 x 2 = 10, 7 x 2 = 14). Thus it has to be 3. Therefore we see that the digit on the thousandth place is 5 and that on the ten's place is 7. We don't know anything about the digit on the hundredth place. Therefore the number is 235 x 76.
Thus the answer are :
10- [2] 11-[3] 12-[2] 13-[4] 14-[4]
Directions for questions 15 to 19 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
In a gathering of 8 people, A, B, C and D are Software professionals and P, Q, R and S are Hardware professionals. Each person shows atleast one of the following features viz. HK, JM, GS and CP.
HW : Hardware professional SW : Software Professional
HK : Has Kids JM : Just Married
GS : Has grand sons CP : One of the Couples

A 'CP' may be JM (and vice versa) but definitely not HK or GS.
A GS can not be JM.
Neither JM nor CP can be HK or GS.
GS implies HK but the reverse need not be true.
P, Q, R, D and S hav only one feature where as others show atleast 1.
A is JM, where as one of C and D is both CP and JM.
B is GS but D and A are not HK.
D and Q always show the same feature.
R is JM and S is HK.
The 4 features are shown by atleast one of the SW or HW.
No professional can show more than two features.
15. How many professionals are definitely not HK?
1] 2
2] 3
3] 5
4] 5 or 6
16. A does not show all of the features except :
1] JM
2] GS
3] Data insufficient
4] None of these
17. If A does not show CP then Q does show :
1] HK
2] JM
3] GS
4] Data insufficient
18. P can show all of the following except :
1] JM
2] GS
3] CP
4] None of these
19. If P is the only HW who is a CP then which of the following is definitely true?
I. A does not show CP
II. B may show CP
III. D show JM
1] I only
2] II only
3] III only
4] None of these
Explanatory Answers :
For answers to questions 15 to 19 :
The following matrix can be formed based on the given information
SW HW A B C D P Q R S HK × ü × × × ü JM ü × ü ü × GS × ü × × × × × × CP × ü × ×
15. Five professionals are definitely not HK, P may or may not be HK. Hence, [3].
16. Now A may or may not be CP. Hence [3].
17. We don't know whether Q is JM or CP. Hence, [4].
18. P cannot show GS. Hence, [2].
19. I : A may or may not show CP. Hence, I may be false.
II : B cannot show more than 2 features. Hence, II is false.
III : D should show JM as Q will show JM. Hence, III is true. Hence, [3].
Directions for questions 20 to 23 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
I have got two uncles, Joe and John and two aunts, Jane and Jill. While uncle Jose is not married, uncle John is married and has two sons as well. Aunt Jane is a widow and has only one daughter. My mother is the only one in the family who has a real sister while she has no brothers. My father works in the diamond factory while my paternal grandparents live with us. We are a joint family. Then :
20. How many members are there in our family?
1] 10
2] 11
3] 12
4] 13
21. How many cousin sisters do I have?
1] None
2] One
3] Two
4] Three
22. Who is married to Uncle John?
1] Jane
2] Jill
3] None of these
4] Can't Say
23. How many children do my paternal grandparents have?
1] Two
2] Three
3] Four
4] Five
Explanatory Answers :
For answers to questions 20 to 23 :
The family heirarchy will be like this :

20. 12 members in the family. Hence, [3].
21. Only one cousin sister. Hence, [2].
22. Aunt Jill is married to Uncle John. Hence, [2].
23. 3 sons, my father, Uncle Joe and Uncle John. Hence, [2].
24. The total number of female members in the family is 5. Hence, [4].
25. The years can be calculated as:
1980 - 15 + 1 + 10 + 2 + 6 = 1984. Hence, [3]
Directions for questions 24 to 25 : Choose the correct alternative.

24. Mr. Gupta is Rita and Sita's father-in-law. Amit is married to Sita and has got two daughters. Rita has only one son. If Mr. Gupta has only two sons and Mrs. Gupta is alive then how many female members are there in the Gupta faimly?
1] 2
2] 3
3] 4
4] 5

25. I build a time machine in 1980. The peculiar ;thing about the time machine was that it had a range of twenty years into the future and 30 years into the past. I used the machine and went back 15 years. After spending a year in the past, I gain used it and went 10 years into the future. There I spend around two years and finally went to the future by 6 years. In which year did I land up?
1] 1980
2] 1983
3] 1984
4] None of these
Directions for questions 23 to 30 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Cars and motorcycles continued to surge ahead even as "Made in India" automobiles like commercial vehicles, multi-utility vehicles, scooters, mopeds and three-wheelers failed to attract overseas buyers this fiscal. Car exports shot up by a huge 105% at 42,444 units during 2001-02 on the back of a superb performance by Ford India, which accounted for more than half of the total exports. Ford shipped 27,572 units of its mid-size car "Ikon" to countries like South Africa and Mexico. Car market leader Maruti Udyog, however, posted a 35.7% dip at 8,559 units during 2001-02. South Korea's Hyundai also witnessed a 14.5% decline in exports at 4,494 units (5250 cars last year). Car exports of Telco surged ahead by 261.6% at 1,689 cars (467 cars last year) while that of General Motors slipped to 40 cars year-on-year from 69 units. In sharp contrast to passenger car segment, commercial vehicle exports slumped by 19.9% at 9,683 units. While medium and heavy (M&H) vehicles exports went down by 18.2% to 3,891 units, that of light commercial vehicles (LCVs) declined by 22.3% at 5,792 units. Telco's M&H exports fell by 24.4% to 2,118 units while LCVs dipped by 36.2% to 4,036 vehicles during 2001-02. Ashok Leyland, India's second largest commercial vehicle marker, reported a 6.7% land 4.8% drop in M&H and LCV exports at 1,725 units and 98 units respectively. However, exports of LCV markers like Eicher, Swaraj Mazda and Mahindra & Mahindra rose by 61.6%, 56.5% and 68.2% at 1,062, 321 and 274 units respectively. Two-wheeler exports went down by 9.2% to 91,731 units as scooter and moped exports declined by 15.7% and 41.7% at 19,369 units and 22,801 unit5s respectively. Howeer, exports of motorcycles recorded a 13% rise at 17,490 units while tha tof Bajaj Auto rose by 158% to 15,951 units. Hero Honda posted a 29.4% rise at 11,833 units. Exports of TVS Motors dipped by 13.7% to 2,273 units while Royal Enfield saw a rise of 63.6% to 1,357 units. Scooter markers like Bajaj and TVS posted a 31.5% and 137% jump in exports at 7,996 and 897 units respectively while LML and Kinetic exports dipped by 27.8% and 57.5% to 6,709 and 3,702 units.
26. If only 5 companies, Ford, Maruti Udyog, Hyundai, Telco and General Motors exported cars in 2000-01, how many cars did Ford export in 2000-01?
1] 1645
2] 1607
3] 1700
4] 1555
27. By how much were the total vehicle exports by Telco in 2001-02, higher or lower than those in 2000-01? (Telco manufactures only cars and commercial vehicles)
1] 18.3% lower
2] 15% lower
3] 12% higher
4] almost same
28. What were the total vehicle exports in 2000-01?
1] 133940
2] 135000
3] 132750
4] 131680
29. If the average export realization of motorcycles has reduced from Rs.45,000 per unit in 2000-01 to Rs.40,000 per unit in 2001-02, what is the change in export volumes?
1] Rs.218 million increase
2] Rs.218 crore increase
3] Rs.2.18 billion increase
4] Rs.2180 million increase
30. If the average export realization per car for Maruti Udyog has increased by 40%, then what is the percentage change in car exports for Maruti in value terms?
1] 10% increase
2] 10% decrease
3] 5% decrease
4] 5% Increase
Explanatory Answers :
For answers to questions 20 to 23 :
Car 2001-02 20000-01 M&H 2001-02 20000-01 Ford 27572 1607 Telco 2118 2802 Maruti 8559 13311 Ashok Ley. 1725 1849 Hyundai 4494 5250 Telco 1689 467 3891 4757 GM 40 69 90 42444 20704

LCV 2001-02 20000-01 Motorcycles 2001-02 20000-01
Scooters
2001-02 20000-01 Telco 4036 63265 Yamaha 17490 Bajaj 7996 Ashok Ley. 98 103 TVS 15951 TVS 897 Eicher 1062 657 Royal Enfield 11833 LML 6709 Swaraj 321 205 Kinetic 3702 M&M 274 163 49561 39200 19369 22976 5792 7454 Mopeds 22801 39110

42444
26. Total car exports in 2000-01 = (1 + 1.05) = 20704
Car exports by Maruti in 2000-01 = 8559 = 8559/0.643 = 13311
(1 - 0.357)
Car exports by Hyundai in 2000-01 = 5250
Car exports by Telco in 2000-01 = 467
Car exports by General Motors in 2000-01 = 69
Therefore, car exports by Ford in 2000-01 = 20704 - 13311 - 5250 - 467 - 69 = 1607 units. Hence, [2].

27. Number of vehicles exported by Telco in 2001-02 = 1689 + 2118 + 4036 = 7843
Car exported by Telco in 2000-01 = 467
Multi-utility vehicles exported by Telco in 2000-01 = 2118 = approx. 2118/0.756 = 2802
(1-0.244)
LCVs exported by Telco in 2000-01 = 4036 = approximately 4036 = 6326
(1-0.362) 0.64
Total vehicle exports by Telco in 2001-01 = 467 + 2802 + 6326 = 9595
Therefore, ratio of Telco's exports in 2001-02 to those in 2000-01 = 7843 = approximately 7845 = 0.817 = 81.7%
9595 9600
Therefore, Telco's exports in 2001-02 were 18.3% lower. Hence, [1].

28. Car exports in 2000-01 = 20704
M&H vehicle exports in 200-01 = 3891 ≈ 3900/0.82 = 4756
(1-0.182)
LCV exports in 2000-01 = 5792 = 7454
(1-0.223)
Two-wheeler exports in 2000-01 = 91731 = 101025
(1-0.092)

Therefore, total vehicle exports in 2000-01 = 20704 + 4757 + 7454 + 101025 = 133939. Hence, [1].

29. Motorcycle export value in 2001-02 = 49561 × 4000 = 1982440000 or Rs.1982.44 million
Motorcycle exports in 2000-01 = 49561 ≈ 49000/1.25 = 39,200
1.272
Motorcycle exports value in 2000-01 = 39200 × 45000 = 1764000000 or Rs.1764 million
Therefore, motorcycle exports have increased by (1982-1764) = Rs.218 million. Hence [1].

30. Let x units be exported by Maruti Udyog for an average realization of y rupees per car in 2000-01. Therefore, exports of Maruti Udyog in 2000-01 = x × y rupees
Exports of Maruti Udyog in 2001-02 = x × (1-0.357) × y × 1.40 = 0.90 × x × y Therefore, exports of Maruti Udyog have decreased in value terms by about 10%. Hence,[2].