#1
8th August 2014, 07:39 AM
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Thapar LEET Entrance Previous Year Papers
Hy Guy’s here I am searching for the Thapar LEET Entrance Previous Year Papers so can you give me the link to download the papers also provide me the papers if possible?
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#2
8th August 2014, 08:33 AM
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Re: Thapar LEET Entrance Previous Year Papers
As you required the Thapar LEET Entrance Previous Year Papers so here I am giving you the same. 1. The required enzyme to convert glucose into alcohol is : (1) Diastase (2) Maltase (3) Invertase (4) Zymase 2. Which of the following has strongest basic nature : (1) m-nitroamiline (2) p-nitroaniline (3) Aniline (4) Benzyl amine 3. Which of the following is formed by the reaction of n-propyl bromide with alcoholic KOH : (1) Propanol (2) Propane (3) Propene (4) Propyne 4. The free electron theory of metallic bond was given by : (1) Drude and Lorenz (2) Sommer field (3) Pauling (4) Stater 5. By which of the following Law’s 2-butene is the main product of dehydration of 2-butanol : (1) Saytzeff’s law (2) Markownikoff’s law (3) Anti Markownikoff’s (4) Peroxide effect 6. Which of the following is proper catalyst for alkylisation of benzene : (1) C6H5NO2 (2) AICI3 (3) Pt (4) Ni 7. In which of the following there is some value dipole moment : (1) C6H6 (2) CH4 (3) CO2 (4) H2O 8. Which of the following is the last product of reduction of nitrobenzene in basic medium : (1) Hydroazo benzene (2) Aniline (3) Phenityl hydroxyl amine (4) Nitrobenzene 9. The product of the reaction of chloroform with concentrate HNO3. (1) Nitromethane (2) Nitrosyl chloride (3) Methyl nitrite (4) Chloropicrin 10. The method of separation of a mixture of naphthalene and benzoic acid is : (1) by alcohol (2) by ether (3) by cold water (4) by Na2CO3 11. When C6H5OH is treated with CHCI3 and KOH salicyldehyde is formed. The reaction is known as : (1) Kolbe Schmidt reaction (2) Parkin reaction (3) Gatter mann reaction (4) Riemer tiemann reaction 12. Which of the following ion with NH3 give clear and coloured solution : (1) Mg+2 (2) Fe+2 (3) Cu+2 (4) Ag+2 13. Graphite is conductor of electric while diamond is not because in graphite : (1) there is ionic bond present (2) there is sp3 hybridisation (3) there are no free electrons (4) free electrons are present 14. Which of the following ions are present in the solution of neutral orthophosphoric acid : (1) Na+, HPO4 -2 (2) Na+, H2PO4 -, HPO4 -2 (3) Na+, PO3 -3, H2PO4 -, HPO4 -2 (4) Na+, HPO4 -2, PO4 -3 15. Which of the following property is similar in the hydroxides of N and P: (1) basic property (2) solubility in water (3) reduction properties (4) stability →→→ 16. A + B ←←←C + D In this reversible reaction initially 4-4 moles of A and B reacts to form 2-2 moles of product at equilibrium. The value of Kc will be : (1) ¼ (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 1 17. The Ksp value of a salt AB at 250 C is 1.21 x 10-6. The solubility of this salt in mole/liter will be : (1) 1.1 x 10-3 (2) 1.21 x 10-3 (3) 1.21 x 10-6 (4) 1.1 x 10-4 18. In which of the following there is positive dipole moment : (1) HF (2) C6H6 (3) CCI4 (4) BF3 19. A compound ‘A’ reacts with conc. H N O3 to form chloropicrin, compound A is : (1) CH3CHO (2) CHCI3 (3) CH3CI (4) C6H5OH 20. Which of the following units, which represents the concetration of a solution does not depends on temperature : (1) Molality (2) Formality (3) Normality (4) Molarity 21. Which of the following hydroxide has least Ksp value at 250 C : (1) Sr(OH)2 (2) Ca(OH)2 (3) Mg(OH)2 (4) Ba(OH)2 22. The oxidation states of highest electronegative element present in the product of the reaction of BaO2 + H2SO4 is : (1) – 2, +1 (2) – 1 – 2 (3) 0, - 1 (4) – 2 0 23. Which of the following is found by the reaction of concentrate HNO3 and iodine : (1) HIO3 (2) HIO (3) HI (4) HIO2 24. The strongest bronsted base is : (1) CIO4 - (2) CIO2 - (3) CIO3 - (4) CIO- 25. The value of ∆ n for the below reaction will be : A(s) → B (g) + C(g) ← (1) 0 (2) 2 (3) – 1 (4) 1 26. Which of the following is not present in germansilver : (1) Mn (2) Zn (3) Ni (4) Cu 27. The oxidation states of iodine are : (1) – 1, + 1, + 3, + 5 (2) – 1 , + 1, + 3 (3) 1, + 3, + 5, + 7 (4) – 1 , + 1, + 3, + 5 28. The IUPAC name of (CH3)2C H – CH2 – CH2 – Br is : (1) 1-bromo-3-3-dimethyl propane (2) 2-methyl-4-bromo butane (3)1-bromo-3-methyl butane (4) none of above 29. Which of the following is the reaction when benzaldehyde is heated with (CH3C )2O in presence of CH3COONa : (1) Gattermann reaction (2) Clasien reaction (3) Knovenagel reaction (4) Parkin reaction 30. Methyl ketone is identified by : (1) the reaction with fehling solution (2) the reaction with benedict solution (3) heated with I2 + Na2CO3 (4) none of above 31. The testing of purity of a solid compound is done by : (1) specific density (2) crystl structure of metals (3) boiling point (4) melting point 32. In which of the following there is no addition according to Markownikoff’s law : (1) 1-butyne (2) 2-butene (3) 1-butene (4) propene 33. 23 gm. Of Na reacts with CH3OH to form : (1) 1 mole of H2 (2) ½ mole of H2 (3) ½ mole of O2 (4) 1 mole of O2 34. SiCl4 is hydrolysed while CCI4 does not because : (1) C is more electronegative than Si (2) C and Si are of the same group (3) The structure of CCI4 is tetrahedral (4) There are 3d orbitals in Si 35. Which of the following is formed when CH3Ona is heated with C2H5l : (1) Dimethyl ether (2) Ethyl-methyl ether (3) Methyl-propyl ether (4) Diethyl ether 36. The poisonous compound which is mixed in petrol is : (1) tetraethyl lead (2) n-octane (3) ethanol (4) propene 37. Which of the following salt is used for bead test in inorganic analysis : (1) Na2B4O7.10H2O (2) CaSO4. 2H2O (3) FeSO4. (NH2)2SO4.6H2O (4) K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3. 2H2O 38. To which of the following anti Markownikoff law is not applicable : (1) 2-pantene (2) 2-butene (3) butane (4) propene 39. The minimum no. of C atom which are required to show chain isomerism in alkyne : (1) 5C (2) 4C (3) 2C (4) 3C 40. The pH value of a solution to zero. The nature of the solution will be: (1) both acid and base (2) neutral (3) acidic (4) basic 41. The approximate pH value of 10-10 M NaOH solution will be: (1) – 10 (2) 7 (3) 4 (4) 10 42. The percentage of chlorine in bleaching power is : (1) 85% (2) 58% (3) 35% (4) 12% 43. A compound n-pentane is found from how much type of hexanoic acid: (1) 5 (2)4 (3) 2 (4) 3 44. Which of the following element has highest electron affinity : (1) I (2) CI (3) Br (4) F 45. If one liter of a solution contains 5 ml.. of N-HCI + 20 ml. of N/2 H2SO4 + 30 ml. of N/3 HNO3, the normality of this solution will be: (1) N (2) N (3) N (4) N_ 40 10 5 20 46. The volume concentration of H2O2 solution of 6.8 gm. per 100 ml. will be: (1) 20 (2) 5.44 (3) 11.2 (4) 22.4 47. Which of the following is strongest oxidant : (1) I2 (2) Cl2 (3) Br2 (4) F2 48. Froath floatation process is used to increase the concentration of the following are : (1) Chalcopyrite (2) Calamene (3) Hematite (4) Bauxite 49. Acetic acid is a weak acid because : (1) 1.85 gm. ions are formed by one lakh gms. Of acetic acid (2) It is not a good conductor of electricity (3) It reacts with reactive metals (4) It is insoluble in water 50. Which of the following is extracted by making complex : (1) Ag (2) Fe (3) Hg (4) Cu 51. By which of the following reagent colour of acidic KMnO4 is disappeared : (1) Microcosmic salt (2) Mohr’s salt (3) White vitriol (4) Bleaching powder 52. Which of the following bydride has reducing property: (1) HF (2) NH3 (3) SiH4 (4) CH4 53. The solution of sodium in liquid ammonja is appeared blue reason is : (1) presence of solvated e- (2) solvated Na+ (3) presence of NH4 + ion (4) presence of Na atom 54. Which of the following has octane no. zero : (1) n-hexane (2) n-heptane (3) iso-octane (4) n-octane 55. The nos. of sigma bonds in 1-butene are: (1) 12 (2) 10 (3) 8 (4) 11 56. The precipitate obtained when acetaldehyde is treated with fehling solution : (1) Ag (2) Cu2O (3) Cu (4) CuO 57. If the equilibrium constant of the reaction 2HI →→→2HI H2 + I2 is 0.25 then the equilibrium constant of the reaction H2 + I2 →→→2HI ←←←will be : ←←← (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 58. The similarity of C-bonds in benzene is due to : (1) delocalised electrons (2) alternate single and double bond in 6 CH groups (3) The closed chain structure of 6 CH group (4) All above 59. Primary amine when reacts with CHCl3 + KOH it forms: (1) cyanide (2) isocyante (3) isothiocyanate (4) isocyanide 60. The solid methane is : (1) not possible (2) amphoteric (3) basic (4) acidic 61. Froath floatation process is depend upon: (1) electric properties of ore particles (2) magnetic properties of ore particles (3) relative density of ore particles (4) the property by which ore particles become wet 62. Which of the following ion has strongest capacity to polarise : (1) Li+ (2) Ca+2 (3) Cs+ (4) Rb+ 63. The size of the sulphate ion is : (1) pyramidal (2) square planar (3) tetrahedral (4) triangular 64. Which of the following bond is present in N2O5 : (1) covalent and coordinate bond (2) covalent and ionic bond (3) covalent bond (4) ionic bond 65. By the theory of four quantum nos. which of the following orbital is not possible : (1) 4d (2) 3s (3) 3f (4) 3d 66. Which of the following compound is formed when AgCI is dissolved in hypo : (1) Na5[Ag(S2O3)]6 (2) Na3[Ag(S2O3)2] (3) Na2[Ag(S2O3)] (4) Na3[Ag(S2O3)]4 67. Natural gas is : (1) a mixture of methane and octane (2) n-octane (3) n-butane (4) none of these 68. C O2 is gas while SiO2 is solid because : (1) CO2 is a weak acid (2) Si atom have 3d orbitals (3) Intermolecular bonds in CO2 are strong (4) CO2and SiO2 are acidic in nature 69. Which of the following molecule is not pyramidal : (1) PH3 (2) NH3 (3) NCI3 (4) BCI3 70. Berylium carbide on hydrolysis gives : (1) Methane (2) Acetylene (3) Ethylene (4) Methyl acetylene 71. The best way to represent the concentration of a solution is : (1) Mole fraction (2) Molarity (3) Normality (4) Molality 72. A one liter solution contains 0.1 M CH3COONa and 0.05 M HCI. Pka value of acetic acid is 1.8 x 10-5 then the pH value of the solution will be : (1) 5.60 (2) 4.74 (3) 2.87 (4) 4.27 73. Which of the following flux is used in the extraction of iron : (1) flint (2) lime stone (3) feldspar (4) silica 74. If 1 mole urea is dissolved in 1000 gm. of pure water then the mole fraction of the water will be: (1) 1000 (2) .999 (3) 0.98 (4) 1.00 75. There is no dipole moment in CCI4 because of the : (1) electron affinity of C and CI are equal (2) lower size of C and CI (3) regular tetrahedral structure (4) planar structure of molecule 76. Which couple of the element shows oxidation state of + 8 : (1) Cu and Cr (2) Mn and Fe (3) Ru and Os (4) Cu and Zn 77. The shape of xenonhexfluoride is : (1) irregular octahedral (2) square planer (3) tetrahedral (4) triangular 78. C5H10O reacts with NH2OH but does not perform silver and iodoform test. The possible name of it is : (1) secondary alcohol (2) ketone (3) gldehyde (4) primary alcohol 79. Which of the following is meta-directive group : (1) –NH 2 (2) –CH3 (3) –OH (4) –NO2 80. The work of sodium thisulphale in photography is : (1) to toning (2) to do still (3) as reducing agent (4) as developer 81. Which of the following isomerism is present in lactic acid : (1) chain (2) position (3) geometric (4) optical 82. When FeCI3 is heated violet with one of the following colour is obtained : (1) Benzene (2) Benzaldehyde (3) Aniline (4) Phenol 83. Benzene sulphonic acid is heated with NaOH to form : (1) Ethanol (2) Benzoic acid (3) Benzene (4) Phenol 84. When benzenediazonium chloride is heated with H2O it forms : (1) Diazobenzene (2) Nitrobenzene (3) Aniline (4) Phenol 85. By which of the following method sugar units are separated : (1) Biuret (2) HNO3 (3)Tollen’s reagent (4) Hydrolysis 86. Aniline is separated by which of the following method : (1) filter funnel (2) fractional distillation (3) steam distillation (4) none of above 87. Two compounds of different solubility is separated by : (1) extraction by solvent (2) fractional crystallization (3) sublimation (4) none of above 88. Preparation of ethane by CH3CI in presence of anhydrous ether is known as : (1) Clemmenson’s reduction (2) Decarbosylation (3) Kolbe’s electrolysis method (4) Wurtz reaction 89. The product of the reaction of CH2=CH2 and dil. Basic KMnO4 solution will be : (1) epoxide (2) propanol (3) ethylene glycol (4) ethyl alcohol 90. The nos. of optical isomers of a compound having two chiral carbon atoms are : (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2 91. Which of the following is used as an indicator for titration of Na2CO3 and H2SO4 : (1) Bromothimol blue (2) phenol red (3) Phenolphthalein (4) Methyl orange 92. Osmosis pressure relation is : (1) P = RT (2) P = CT (3) R = PT (4) P = RC C R C T 93. In which of the following salt if dilution is increased there is no change in pH : (1) CuSO4 (2) (NH)2SO4 (3)BaSO4 (4) K2CO3 94. Formula of oleum is : (1) H2S2O8 (2) H2SO5 (3) H2S2O4 (4) S2S2O7 95. An anhydride of CHIO4 is : (1) Cl2O6 (2) Cl2O (3) Cl2O7 (4) All 96. The IUPAC name of CH3-O-C2H5 : (1) Methyl ethyl ketone (2) Ethyl methyl ether (3) Methoxyethane (4) Ethoxy methane 97. How many isomers are possible of C4H10O : (1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 3 98. The hybridization of Br in BrF5 is : (1) sp3d2 (2)sp3d (3) sp2d (4) sp3 99. A neutron is added in an element 90X232. How many particles is to be removed, to form it 90X233 : (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 2 100. Electrolysis of the fused mixture of Na3AIF6 and Al2O3 give . Al at cathode. What will be found at anode : ANSWER SHEET 1.(4) 2.(4) 3.(3) 4.(1) 5.(1) 6.(2) 7.(4) 8.(1) 9.(4) 10.(4) 11.(4) 12.(1) 13.(4) 14.(3) 15.(3) 16.(1) 17.(1) 18.(1) 19.(2) 20.(1) 21.(4) 22.(2) 23.(4) 24.(1) 25.(2) 26.(1) 27.(3) 28.(3) 29.(4) 30.(1) 31.(1) 32.(2) 33.(4) 34.(4) 35.(2) 36.(1) 37.(1) 38.(2) 39.(1) 40.(3) 41.(2) 42.(2) 43.(4) 44.(2) 45.(1) 46.(4) 47.(4) 48.(1) 49.(1) 50.(1) 51.(4) 52.(2) 53.(1) 54.(2) 55.(4) 56.(2) 57.(1) 58.(1) 59.(4) 60.(1) 61.(4) 62.(1) 63.(3) 64.(1) 65.(3) 66.(2) 67.(4) 68.(2) 69.(4) 70.(2) 71.(3) 72.(2) 73.(3) 74.(4) 75.(4) 76.(4) 77.(2) 78.(3) 79.(4) 80.(3) 81.(4) 82.(4) 83.(4) 84.(4) 85.(4) 86.(3) 87.(2) 88.(4) 89.(3) 90.(2) 91.(4) 92.(1) 93.(3) 94.(4) 95.(3) 96.(3) 97.(1) 98.(1) 99.(4) 100(4) For more detailed information I am uploading PDF file which are free to download: |