Thapar LEET Entrance Previous Year Papers

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1. The required enzyme to convert glucose into alcohol is :
(1) Diastase (2) Maltase (3) Invertase (4) Zymase
2. Which of the following has strongest basic nature :
(1) m-nitroamiline (2) p-nitroaniline (3) Aniline (4) Benzyl amine
3. Which of the following is formed by the reaction of n-propyl bromide with alcoholic KOH :
(1) Propanol (2) Propane (3) Propene (4) Propyne
4. The free electron theory of metallic bond was given by :
(1) Drude and Lorenz (2) Sommer field (3) Pauling (4) Stater
5. By which of the following Law’s 2-butene is the main product of dehydration of 2-butanol :
(1) Saytzeff’s law
(2) Markownikoff’s law
(3) Anti Markownikoff’s
(4) Peroxide effect
6. Which of the following is proper catalyst for alkylisation of benzene :
(1) C6H5NO2 (2) AICI3 (3) Pt (4) Ni
7. In which of the following there is some value dipole moment :
(1) C6H6 (2) CH4 (3) CO2 (4) H2O
8. Which of the following is the last product of reduction of nitrobenzene in basic medium :
(1) Hydroazo benzene (2) Aniline (3) Phenityl hydroxyl amine (4) Nitrobenzene
9. The product of the reaction of chloroform with concentrate HNO3.
(1) Nitromethane (2) Nitrosyl chloride (3) Methyl nitrite (4) Chloropicrin
10. The method of separation of a mixture of naphthalene and benzoic acid is :
(1) by alcohol (2) by ether (3) by cold water (4) by Na2CO3
11. When C6H5OH is treated with CHCI3 and KOH salicyldehyde is formed. The reaction is
known as :
(1) Kolbe Schmidt reaction
(2) Parkin reaction
(3) Gatter mann reaction
(4) Riemer tiemann reaction
12. Which of the following ion with NH3 give clear and coloured solution :
(1) Mg+2 (2) Fe+2 (3) Cu+2 (4) Ag+2
13. Graphite is conductor of electric while diamond is not because in graphite :
(1) there is ionic bond present
(2) there is sp3 hybridisation
(3) there are no free electrons
(4) free electrons are present
14. Which of the following ions are present in the solution of neutral orthophosphoric acid :
(1) Na+, HPO4
-2
(2) Na+, H2PO4
-, HPO4
-2
(3) Na+, PO3
-3, H2PO4
-, HPO4
-2
(4) Na+, HPO4
-2, PO4
-3
15. Which of the following property is similar in the hydroxides of N and P:
(1) basic property
(2) solubility in water
(3) reduction properties
(4) stability
→→→
16. A + B ←←←C + D In this reversible reaction initially 4-4 moles of A and B reacts to form 2-2
moles of product at equilibrium. The value of Kc will be :
(1) ¼ (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 1
17. The Ksp value of a salt AB at 250 C is 1.21 x 10-6. The solubility of this salt in mole/liter will
be :
(1) 1.1 x 10-3 (2) 1.21 x 10-3
(3) 1.21 x 10-6 (4) 1.1 x 10-4
18. In which of the following there is positive dipole moment :
(1) HF (2) C6H6 (3) CCI4 (4) BF3
19. A compound ‘A’ reacts with conc. H N O3 to form chloropicrin, compound A is :
(1) CH3CHO (2) CHCI3
(3) CH3CI (4) C6H5OH
20. Which of the following units, which represents the concetration of a solution does not
depends on temperature :
(1) Molality (2) Formality (3) Normality (4) Molarity
21. Which of the following hydroxide has least Ksp value at 250 C :
(1) Sr(OH)2 (2) Ca(OH)2 (3) Mg(OH)2 (4) Ba(OH)2

22. The oxidation states of highest electronegative element present in the product of the reaction
of BaO2 + H2SO4 is :
(1) – 2, +1 (2) – 1 – 2 (3) 0, - 1 (4) – 2 0
23. Which of the following is found by the reaction of concentrate HNO3 and iodine :
(1) HIO3 (2) HIO (3) HI (4) HIO2
24. The strongest bronsted base is :
(1) CIO4
- (2) CIO2
- (3) CIO3
- (4) CIO-
25. The value of ∆ n for the below reaction will be :
A(s) → B (g) + C(g)
←
(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) – 1 (4) 1
26. Which of the following is not present in germansilver :
(1) Mn (2) Zn (3) Ni (4) Cu
27. The oxidation states of iodine are :
(1) – 1, + 1, + 3, + 5 (2) – 1 , + 1, + 3
(3) 1, + 3, + 5, + 7 (4) – 1 , + 1, + 3, + 5
28. The IUPAC name of (CH3)2C H – CH2 – CH2 – Br is :
(1) 1-bromo-3-3-dimethyl propane
(2) 2-methyl-4-bromo butane
(3)1-bromo-3-methyl butane
(4) none of above
29. Which of the following is the reaction when benzaldehyde is heated with (CH3C )2O in
presence of CH3COONa :
(1) Gattermann reaction (2) Clasien reaction
(3) Knovenagel reaction (4) Parkin reaction
30. Methyl ketone is identified by :
(1) the reaction with fehling solution
(2) the reaction with benedict solution
(3) heated with I2 + Na2CO3
(4) none of above
31. The testing of purity of a solid compound is done by :
(1) specific density
(2) crystl structure of metals
(3) boiling point
(4) melting point
32. In which of the following there is no addition according to Markownikoff’s law :

(1) 1-butyne (2) 2-butene (3) 1-butene (4) propene
33. 23 gm. Of Na reacts with CH3OH to form :
(1) 1 mole of H2 (2) ½ mole of H2 (3) ½ mole of O2 (4) 1 mole of O2
34. SiCl4 is hydrolysed while CCI4 does not because :
(1) C is more electronegative than Si
(2) C and Si are of the same group
(3) The structure of CCI4 is tetrahedral
(4) There are 3d orbitals in Si
35. Which of the following is formed when CH3Ona is heated with C2H5l :
(1) Dimethyl ether
(2) Ethyl-methyl ether
(3) Methyl-propyl ether
(4) Diethyl ether
36. The poisonous compound which is mixed in petrol is :
(1) tetraethyl lead (2) n-octane (3) ethanol (4) propene
37. Which of the following salt is used for bead test in inorganic analysis :
(1) Na2B4O7.10H2O (2) CaSO4. 2H2O
(3) FeSO4. (NH2)2SO4.6H2O (4) K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3. 2H2O
38. To which of the following anti Markownikoff law is not applicable :
(1) 2-pantene (2) 2-butene (3) butane (4) propene
39. The minimum no. of C atom which are required to show chain isomerism in alkyne :
(1) 5C (2) 4C (3) 2C (4) 3C
40. The pH value of a solution to zero. The nature of the solution will be:
(1) both acid and base (2) neutral (3) acidic (4) basic
41. The approximate pH value of 10-10 M NaOH solution will be:
(1) – 10 (2) 7 (3) 4 (4) 10
42. The percentage of chlorine in bleaching power is :
(1) 85% (2) 58% (3) 35% (4) 12%
43. A compound n-pentane is found from how much type of hexanoic acid:
(1) 5 (2)4 (3) 2 (4) 3
44. Which of the following element has highest electron affinity :
(1) I (2) CI (3) Br (4) F
45. If one liter of a solution contains 5 ml.. of N-HCI + 20 ml. of N/2 H2SO4 + 30 ml. of N/3
HNO3, the normality of this solution will be:
(1) N (2) N (3) N (4) N_

40 10 5 20
46. The volume concentration of H2O2 solution of 6.8 gm. per 100 ml. will be:
(1) 20 (2) 5.44 (3) 11.2 (4) 22.4
47. Which of the following is strongest oxidant :
(1) I2 (2) Cl2 (3) Br2 (4) F2
48. Froath floatation process is used to increase the concentration of the following are :
(1) Chalcopyrite (2) Calamene (3) Hematite (4) Bauxite
49. Acetic acid is a weak acid because :
(1) 1.85 gm. ions are formed by one lakh gms. Of acetic acid
(2) It is not a good conductor of electricity
(3) It reacts with reactive metals
(4) It is insoluble in water
50. Which of the following is extracted by making complex :
(1) Ag (2) Fe (3) Hg (4) Cu
51. By which of the following reagent colour of acidic KMnO4 is disappeared :
(1) Microcosmic salt (2) Mohr’s salt (3) White vitriol (4) Bleaching powder
52. Which of the following bydride has reducing property:
(1) HF (2) NH3 (3) SiH4 (4) CH4
53. The solution of sodium in liquid ammonja is appeared blue reason is :
(1) presence of solvated e-
(2) solvated Na+
(3) presence of NH4
+ ion
(4) presence of Na atom
54. Which of the following has octane no. zero :
(1) n-hexane (2) n-heptane (3) iso-octane (4) n-octane
55. The nos. of sigma bonds in 1-butene are:
(1) 12 (2) 10 (3) 8 (4) 11
56. The precipitate obtained when acetaldehyde is treated with fehling solution :
(1) Ag (2) Cu2O (3) Cu (4) CuO
57. If the equilibrium constant of the reaction 2HI →→→2HI H2 + I2 is 0.25 then the equilibrium
constant of the reaction H2 + I2 →→→2HI ←←←will be :
←←←
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
58. The similarity of C-bonds in benzene is due to :
(1) delocalised electrons

(2) alternate single and double bond in 6 CH groups
(3) The closed chain structure of 6 CH group
(4) All above
59. Primary amine when reacts with CHCl3 + KOH it forms:
(1) cyanide (2) isocyante (3) isothiocyanate (4) isocyanide
60. The solid methane is :
(1) not possible (2) amphoteric (3) basic (4) acidic
61. Froath floatation process is depend upon:
(1) electric properties of ore particles
(2) magnetic properties of ore particles
(3) relative density of ore particles
(4) the property by which ore particles become wet
62. Which of the following ion has strongest capacity to polarise :
(1) Li+ (2) Ca+2 (3) Cs+ (4) Rb+
63. The size of the sulphate ion is :
(1) pyramidal (2) square planar (3) tetrahedral (4) triangular
64. Which of the following bond is present in N2O5 :
(1) covalent and coordinate bond
(2) covalent and ionic bond
(3) covalent bond
(4) ionic bond
65. By the theory of four quantum nos. which of the following orbital is not possible :
(1) 4d (2) 3s (3) 3f (4) 3d
66. Which of the following compound is formed when AgCI is dissolved in hypo :
(1) Na5[Ag(S2O3)]6 (2) Na3[Ag(S2O3)2]
(3) Na2[Ag(S2O3)] (4) Na3[Ag(S2O3)]4
67. Natural gas is :
(1) a mixture of methane and octane
(2) n-octane
(3) n-butane
(4) none of these
68. C O2 is gas while SiO2 is solid because :
(1) CO2 is a weak acid
(2) Si atom have 3d orbitals
(3) Intermolecular bonds in CO2 are strong
(4) CO2and SiO2 are acidic in nature
69. Which of the following molecule is not pyramidal :

(1) PH3 (2) NH3 (3) NCI3 (4) BCI3
70. Berylium carbide on hydrolysis gives :
(1) Methane (2) Acetylene (3) Ethylene (4) Methyl acetylene
71. The best way to represent the concentration of a solution is :
(1) Mole fraction (2) Molarity (3) Normality (4) Molality
72. A one liter solution contains 0.1 M CH3COONa and 0.05 M HCI. Pka value of acetic acid is
1.8 x 10-5 then the pH value of the solution will be :
(1) 5.60 (2) 4.74 (3) 2.87 (4) 4.27
73. Which of the following flux is used in the extraction of iron :
(1) flint (2) lime stone (3) feldspar (4) silica
74. If 1 mole urea is dissolved in 1000 gm. of pure water then the mole fraction of the water will
be:
(1) 1000 (2) .999 (3) 0.98 (4) 1.00
75. There is no dipole moment in CCI4 because of the :
(1) electron affinity of C and CI are equal
(2) lower size of C and CI
(3) regular tetrahedral structure
(4) planar structure of molecule
76. Which couple of the element shows oxidation state of + 8 :
(1) Cu and Cr (2) Mn and Fe (3) Ru and Os (4) Cu and Zn
77. The shape of xenonhexfluoride is :
(1) irregular octahedral
(2) square planer
(3) tetrahedral
(4) triangular
78. C5H10O reacts with NH2OH but does not perform silver and iodoform test. The possible
name of it is :
(1) secondary alcohol (2) ketone (3) gldehyde (4) primary alcohol
79. Which of the following is meta-directive group :
(1) –NH 2 (2) –CH3 (3) –OH (4) –NO2
80. The work of sodium thisulphale in photography is :
(1) to toning (2) to do still (3) as reducing agent (4) as developer
81. Which of the following isomerism is present in lactic acid :
(1) chain (2) position (3) geometric (4) optical
82. When FeCI3 is heated violet with one of the following colour is obtained :

(1) Benzene (2) Benzaldehyde (3) Aniline (4) Phenol
83. Benzene sulphonic acid is heated with NaOH to form :
(1) Ethanol (2) Benzoic acid (3) Benzene (4) Phenol
84. When benzenediazonium chloride is heated with H2O it forms :
(1) Diazobenzene (2) Nitrobenzene (3) Aniline (4) Phenol
85. By which of the following method sugar units are separated :
(1) Biuret (2) HNO3 (3)Tollen’s reagent (4) Hydrolysis
86. Aniline is separated by which of the following method :
(1) filter funnel
(2) fractional distillation
(3) steam distillation
(4) none of above
87. Two compounds of different solubility is separated by :
(1) extraction by solvent
(2) fractional crystallization
(3) sublimation
(4) none of above
88. Preparation of ethane by CH3CI in presence of anhydrous ether is known as :
(1) Clemmenson’s reduction
(2) Decarbosylation
(3) Kolbe’s electrolysis method
(4) Wurtz reaction
89. The product of the reaction of CH2=CH2 and dil. Basic KMnO4 solution will be :
(1) epoxide (2) propanol (3) ethylene glycol (4) ethyl alcohol
90. The nos. of optical isomers of a compound having two chiral carbon atoms are :
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2
91. Which of the following is used as an indicator for titration of Na2CO3 and H2SO4 :
(1) Bromothimol blue (2) phenol red (3) Phenolphthalein (4) Methyl orange
92. Osmosis pressure relation is :
(1) P = RT (2) P = CT (3) R = PT (4) P = RC
C R C T
93. In which of the following salt if dilution is increased there is no change in pH :
(1) CuSO4 (2) (NH)2SO4 (3)BaSO4 (4) K2CO3
94. Formula of oleum is :
(1) H2S2O8 (2) H2SO5 (3) H2S2O4 (4) S2S2O7

95. An anhydride of CHIO4 is :
(1) Cl2O6 (2) Cl2O (3) Cl2O7 (4) All
96. The IUPAC name of CH3-O-C2H5 :
(1) Methyl ethyl ketone
(2) Ethyl methyl ether
(3) Methoxyethane
(4) Ethoxy methane
97. How many isomers are possible of C4H10O :
(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 3
98. The hybridization of Br in BrF5 is :
(1) sp3d2 (2)sp3d (3) sp2d (4) sp3
99. A neutron is added in an element 90X232. How many particles is to be removed, to form it
90X233 :
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 2
100. Electrolysis of the fused mixture of Na3AIF6 and Al2O3 give . Al at cathode. What will be
found at anode :

ANSWER SHEET
1.(4) 2.(4) 3.(3) 4.(1) 5.(1) 6.(2) 7.(4) 8.(1) 9.(4) 10.(4) 11.(4)
12.(1) 13.(4) 14.(3) 15.(3) 16.(1) 17.(1) 18.(1) 19.(2) 20.(1) 21.(4) 22.(2)
23.(4) 24.(1) 25.(2) 26.(1) 27.(3) 28.(3) 29.(4) 30.(1) 31.(1) 32.(2) 33.(4)
34.(4) 35.(2) 36.(1) 37.(1) 38.(2) 39.(1) 40.(3) 41.(2) 42.(2) 43.(4) 44.(2)
45.(1) 46.(4) 47.(4) 48.(1) 49.(1) 50.(1) 51.(4) 52.(2) 53.(1) 54.(2) 55.(4)
56.(2) 57.(1) 58.(1) 59.(4) 60.(1) 61.(4) 62.(1) 63.(3) 64.(1) 65.(3) 66.(2)
67.(4) 68.(2) 69.(4) 70.(2) 71.(3) 72.(2) 73.(3) 74.(4) 75.(4) 76.(4) 77.(2)
78.(3) 79.(4) 80.(3) 81.(4) 82.(4) 83.(4) 84.(4) 85.(4) 86.(3) 87.(2) 88.(4)
89.(3) 90.(2) 91.(4) 92.(1) 93.(3) 94.(4) 95.(3) 96.(3) 97.(1) 98.(1) 99.(4)
100(4)

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