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Probationary Officers (PO) Exam Solved Paper

(1) 576 (2) 895
(3) 783 (4) 394
(5) 632
7. If-A' is coded as 1, 'B' is 3, 'C as
5 and so on, which of the following
is the numerical value of the
word 'FAZED' ?
(1) 81 (2) 79
(3) 77 (4) 80
(5) None of these
8. Which of the following pairs of
words have the same relationship
as FAN : HEAT ?
(1) Water : Drink
(2) Light: Night
(3) Teach: Student
(4) Air: Breathe
(5) Food : Hunger
9. Q types faster than R but not as
fast as V, T types faster than R.
S types faster than V. Who
amongst the five of them types
the fastest ?
(1) V
(2) T
(3) S
(4) Data Inadequate
(5) None of these
10. If 'B x C means 'B is the daughter
of C, 'B + C means 'B is the
hushand of C and 'B - C means
'B is the sister of C\ then what
does 'M + N - P x Q' mean ?
(1) M is the brother-in-law of Q
(2) M is the uncle of Q
(3) M is the son-in-law of Q
(4) Q is the mother-in-law of M
(5) None of these
Directions (11 - 15): Study the
following arrangement carefully and
answer the questions given below :
R D A K 5 B I 2 M J E N 9 7
U Z V 1 W 3 H 4 F Y 8 P 6 T G
11. How many such numbers are
there in the above arrangement,
each of which is immediately preceded
by a consonant and immediately
followed by a vowel ?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three
12. Which of the following is the
eighth to the left of the seventeenth
from the left end ?
(1)M (2) J
(3) 8 (4) 5
(5) None of these
13. Four of the following five are alike
in a certain way based on their
positions in the above arrangement
and so form a group. Which
is the one that does not belong
to that group ?
(1)E9J (2) Z 1 U
(3) H W 4 (4) Y 4 8
(5) B 2K
14. Which of the following is the sixth
to the right of the nineteenth from
the right end ?
(1)5 (2)Z
(3) V (4) 1
(5) None of these
15. How many such consonants are
there in the above arrangement,
each of which is immediately preceded
by a number and immediately
followed by another consonant?
(l)None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three
Directions (16-20): Each of the
questions below consists of a question
and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide
whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question.
Read both the statements and —
Give answer (1) if the data in
statement I alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in
statement II alone are not sufficient to
answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in
statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to
answer the question.
1. In a certain code 'PLANT' is written
as '$@2*©' and 'YIELD' is
. written as '(364@%'. How is 'DELAY'
written in that code ?
(1) (34*-2% (2) |34@2%
(3) %42@p (4) %4@2|3
. (5) None of these
2. How many meaningful English
words can be formed with the
letters ARILT using each letter
only once in that word ?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three
3. D said, "As father is the only
brother of my sister's son." How
is As father related to D ?
(1) Cousin
(2) Nephew
(3) Aunt
(4) Data Inadequate
(5) None of these
Directions (4 - 6) : The followng
questions are based on the five
:hree digit numbers given below :
394 632 783 576 895
4. If the positions of the first and
the second digits within each
number are interchanged, which
of the following will be the second
highest number ?
(1) 632 (2) 783
(3) 576 (4) 895
(5) 394
5. If the first and second digits of
each of the numbers are added
the resulting sum of which of the
following numbers will not be
exactly divisible by 3 ?
(1) 895 (2) 394
(3) 576 (4) 632
(5) 783
6. If 2 is added to the last digit of
each number and then the positions
of the first and the third
digits are interchanged, which of
the following will be the highest
number ?
Give answer (3) if the data either
in statement I alone or in statement
II alone are sufficient to answer
the question.
Give answer (4) if the data given
in both the statements I and II together
are not sufficient to answer the
question, and
Give answer (5) if the data in
both the statements I and II together
are necessary to answer the question.
16. How is 'never' written in a code
language?
I. 'never ever go there' is writ-'
ten as 'na ja ni ho' in that code
language.
II. 'go there and come back' is
written as 'ma ho sa ni da' in
that code language.
17. Among M, P, K, J, T and W, who
is lighter than only the heaviest?
I. P is heavier than M and T.
II. W is heavier than P but lighter
than J who is not the
heaviest.
18. What does '$' mean in a code language?
I. '5 $ # 3' means 'flowers are
really good'.
II. '7 # 3 5 ' means 'good flowers
are available'.
19. How is P related to J ?
I. M is brother of P and T is
sister of P.
II. P's mother is married to J's
husband who has one son
and two daughters.
20. How many students are there
between Suresh and Mohan in a
row of fifty students ?
I. Suresh is twelfth from the
left end and Mohan is seventeenth
from the right end.
II. Suresh is six places away
from Jayesh who is twentieth
from the left end.
Directions (21-25) : In each of
the following questions, a group of letters
is to be coded by number/symbol
codes as per the codes given below
and the conditions that follow. In
each question, a group of letters is given
followed by groups of number/symbol
code numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4).
The correct combination of codes is
your answer. If none of the four combinations
is correct, your answer is
(5), i.e. 'None of these'.
Conditions
(i) If the first letter is a vowel and
the last letter is a consonant, both
are to be coded as '0'.
(ii) If the first letter is a consonant
and the last letter is a vowel,
both are to be coded as ©'.
(iii) If the first as well as the last letters
are vowels, both are to be
coded as the code for first letter.-
21. KEDURT
(1) @16%7@ (2) 916%7@
(3) 916%79 (4) @16$79
(5) None of these
22. EDRTMP
(1) 167923 (2) 167921
(3) 067920 (4) 067923
(5) None of these
23. FHRAMU
(1) 847#28 (2) %47#28
(3) 847#2% (4) ©47#2©
(5) None of these
24. ULTPHE
(1) %$934% (2) 1$9341
(3) %$9341 (4) 1$934%
(5) None of these
25. HKEDLB
(1) 5@16$4 (2) 4@16$5
(3) ©@16$4 (4)0@16$5
(5) None of these
Directions (26-30) : Read the
following passage carefully and answers
the questions given below it.
A group of seven friends: A. B,
C. D, E, F and G work as-Economist.
Agriculture Officer, IT Officer. Terminal
Operator. Clerk, Forex Officer and
Research Analyst, for Banks L. M, N,
P, Q. R and S but not necessarily in
the same order. C works for Bank N
and is neither a Research Analyst nor
a Clerk. E is an IT Officer and works
for Bank R. A works as Forex Officer
and does not work for Bank L or Q.
The one who is an Agriculture Officer
works for Bank M. The one who works
for Bank L works as a Terminal Operator.
F works for Bank Q. G works
for Bank P as a Research Analyst. D
is not an Agriculture Officer.
26. Who amongst the following
works as an Agriculture Officer?
(1)C (2) B
(3) F (4) D
(5) None of these
Letter P D A F L H M R K T B E U
Code 3 6 # 8 $ 4 2 7 @ 9 5 1 %
27. What is the profession of C ?
(1) Terminal Operator
(2) Agriculture Officer
(3) Economist
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
28. For which bank does B work?
(1) M (2) S
(3)L (4) Either M or S
(5) None of these
29. What is the profession of the
person who works for Bank S '
(1) Clerk
(2) Agriculture Officer
(3) Terminal Operator
(4) Forex Officer
(5) None of these
30. Which of the following combina
tions of person, profession anc
bank is correct?
(1) A - Forex Officer - M
(2) D - Clerk - L
(3) F-Agriculture Officer-Q
(4) B-Agriculture Officer-S
(5) None of these
Directions (31-35) : In the fol
lowing questions, the symbols @, #
%, $ and © are used with the follow
ing meaning as illustrated below:
'P # Q' means 'P is neither great
er than nor equal to Q'.
'P © Q' means 'P is neither equa
to nor smaller than Q'.
'P % Q' means 'P is neither small
er than nor greater than Q'.
'P $ Q' means 'P is not smalle
than Q'.
'P @ Q' means 'P is not greate
than Q'.
Now in each of the following ques
tions assuming the given statement
to be true, find which of the three con
elusions I, II and III given below ther
is/are definitely true and give you
answer accordingly.
31. Statements:
R@D, D©W, B $W
Conclusions:
I. W # R
II. B © D
III. W. $ R
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only III is true
(4) Only either I or III is true
(5) All are true
32. Statements:
H $ V, V % M, K © M
Conclusions:
I. K © V
II. M @ H
III.H©K
(1) Only I and III are true
(2) Only II and III are true
(3) Only I and II are true
(4) All are true
(5) None of these
33. Statements :K#T, T $ B , B@F
Conclusions :
I. F $ T
II. K # B
III.T $ F
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only I and II are true
(4) Only II and III are true
(5) All are true
34. Statements: Z # F , R@F, D©R
Conclusions:
I. Z #R
II. F # D
III.D©Z
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only III is true
(4) Only either I or III is true
(5) All are true
35. Statements:
M © R, R % D, D @ N
Conclusions:
I. M © N
II. N $ R
III. M © D
(1) Only I and II are true
(2) Only II and III are true
(3) Only I and III are true
(4) All are true
(5) None of these
Directions (36 - 40) : Below in
each question are given two statements
(A) and (B). These statements may be
either independent causes or may be
effects of independent causes or a
common cause, One of these statements
may be the effect of the other
statement. Read both the statements
and decide which of the following answer
choice correctly depicts the relationship
between these two statements.
Mark answer (1) if statement (A)
is the cause and statement (B) is its
effect.
Mark answer (2) if statement (B)
is the cause and statement (A) is its
effect.
Mark answer (3) if both the
statements (A) and (B) are independent
causes.
Mark answer (4) if both the
statements (A) and (B) are effects of
independent causes.
Mark answer (5) if both the
statements (A) and (B) are effects of
some common cause.
36. (A) State Government has ordered
immediate ban on airing
of certain movie channels
on television.
(B) Few social activists have come
together and demanded ban
on telecasting 'Adult' movies
on television.
37. (A) Employment scenario in the
country has remarkably improved
recently.
(B) The number of prospective
job-seekers going abroad has
increased recently.
38. (A) Government has tightened
security checks at all important
places and also at various
public places.
(B) Incidences of terrorist attacks
are increasing day by day.
39. (A) High court has fixed a time
limit for repairing all the roads
in the city.
(B) Road Development Authorities
in the city are carrying
out road repair work on urgent
basis.
40. (A) There is an outbreak of several
epidemics in the country.
(B) There was a worst flood situation
ever experienced in the
past in most parts of the
country.
Directions (41-45) : Study the
following information carefully and answer
the questions which follow:
A Research Institute is recruiting
a librarian to digitise its information
resources among other duties.
Candidates must possess the following
criteria. The candidate must —
(i) be not less than 35 years
and not exceed 40 years as
on 01 .11 .2009.
(ii) have a Bachelor's Degree in
Library and Information Science
with 65 percent marks.
(iii) have a Ph.D. in Library Science.
(iv) have post qualification experience
of at least 4 years in a
University Library.
However if the candidate fulfills
the above mentioned criteria except—
(A) at (ii) above but the candidate
has a UGC NET certification
with all the other above criteria
fulfilled he/she may be
referred to the Dean.
(B) at (iv) above but all the eligibility
criteria are met and the
candidate has at least one
year's experience in a research
institute he/she may
be offered contractual appointment
for a year.
Based on the above criteria study
carefully whether the following candidates
are eligible for the recruitment
process and mark your answer as follows.
You are not to assume anything
other than the information provided in
each question. All cases are given to
you as on 01.11.2009.
Mark answer (1) if he/she is to
be shortlisted.
Mark answer (2) if he/she is not
to be shortlisted.
Mark answer (3) if he/she should
be referred to the Dean.
Mark answer (4) if he/she may
be offered contractual appointment if
required.
Mark answer (5) if the data provided
is inadequate to take a decision.
41. Anil Rath has a doctorate in Library
Science from Karnataka
University in 2003. Born on July
21,1969, he graduated in Library
and Information Science from
Karnataka University where he
was Assistant Librarian for four
years since 2005.
42. Dr. Samir Bali has a Ph.D. in Library
Science and has been with
the Institute of Fundamental Research
as Assistant Librarian
since October 2008. He graduated
with a degree in Library and
Information Science in 1994 at
the age of 22. He obtained 70
percent in his graduation.
43. Vaishali Shetty has been a librarian
at STS University since 2007
when she qualified in the UGC
NET examination. She has a degree
in Library and Information
Science with 60 percent. Her
first job was as junior librarian
at TRP Institute of Development
Research from October 2000 to
December 2001.
44. Vivek J h a has a Ph.D. in Library
and Information Science. He
graduated in Library and Information
Science in 1992 with 65
percent. He was born on
01.10.1974. Since July 2005,
he has been working as Deputy
Librarian at a deemed University.
45. A graduate in Library Science.
with 69 percent, Dr. M. Puri has
been working at Ranchi University
for 4 years as Deputy Librarian.
She earned her doctorate
while working for the Labour
Research Institute for 5 years as
Assistant Librarian. She is 38
years old as on the required date.
46. Megha Vaidya has a graduate degree
in Library Science from Punjab
University where she has
been a librarian for the past 5
years. In 2002 she obtained her
UGC NET qualification at the age
of 29. She obtained 72 percent
in graduation.
47. Anup Gupta is obtaining his
Ph.D. from YCM University
where he has been Junior Librarian
since 2004. He qualified
in the UGC NET exam in June
2000. He has a degree in Library
and Information Science with 62
percent. His date of birth is
17.10.1973.
48. Kirti Shukla obtained her doctorate
and Bachelor's degree from
Patna University. She obtained
63 percent at graduation'.'She
obtained her UGC NET qualification
in 1998 when she was 26.
49. Prakash Sinha has been a librarian
for a government institution
for three years. Prior to this he
was a University Librarian for 7
years after completing his Ph.D.
in Library Science. He graduated
in 1991 with 68 percent in
Library Science. He is exactly 40
years of age on the specified
date.
50. Rohan Sachdev obtained his
UGC NET qualification after his
graduation in 1998 when he began
working. He has been Assistant
Librarian for the past two
years with a research institute.
He obtained 65 percent in his
graduation in Library Science. He
earned his Ph.D. in Library Science
in 2007. His date of birth
is 22.10.1974.
Directions (51-55) : Study the
following information carefully and
answer the questions given below:
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F,
G and H are sitting around a rectangular
table in such a way that two persons
sit on each of the four sides of
the table facing the centre. Persons
sitting on opposite sides are exactly
opposite to each other.
D' faces North and sits exactly
opposite to H. E is to the immediate
left of H. A and G sit on the same side.
G is exactly opposite of B who is to
the immediate right of C. A is next to
the left of D.
51. Who is sitting opposite to A ?
(1) G (2) D
(3) E (4) A
(5) None of these
52. Who is next to E in clockwise
direction?
(1) G (2) B
(3) F (4) Aor F
(5) None of these
53. Which of the following pairs of
persons has both the persons
sitting on the same side with first
person sitting to the right of second
person ?
(1) DF (2) CB
(3)FC (4) AG
(5) None of these
54. Who is sitting opposite to E ?
(1) D (2) A
(3) F (4) A or D
(5) None of these
55. Which of the following statements
is definitely true?
(1) A is facing North
(2) E is sitting opposite to F
(3) F is to the left of G
(4) C is to the left of A
(5) None of these
Directions (56-60) : Below is
given a passage followed by several
possible inferences which can be
drawn from the facts stated in the
passage. You have to examine each
inference separately in the context of
the passage and decide upon its degree
of truth or falsity.
Mark answer (1) if the inference
is 'definitely true', i.e. it properly follows
from the statement of facts given..
Mark answer (2) if the inference
is 'probably true' though not 'definitely
true' in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (3) if the data are
inadequate' , i.e. from the facts given
you cannot say whether the inference
is likely to be true or false.
Mark answer (4) if the inference
is 'probably false', though not 'definitely
false' in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (S) if the inference
is 'definitely false', i.e. it cannot possibly
be drawn from the facts given or it
contradicts the given facts.
Aviation is important, both as an
industry in its own right and as a facilitator
for the success and competitiveness
of other industries. The success
of the aviation industry is also
integral to national competitiveness,
economic development and social
progress. More importantly, aviation
supports those new economy sectors
on which India's future, prosperity relies,
like information technology, biotechnology,
finance and electronics.
That India's air transport industry is
on the rise is an undisputable fact.
However the Indian economy will only
achieve its true potential if we are able
to compete in the industries of the
future. We need to be strong in the
areas with potential to grow and the
role of India's aviation sector is
critical in this regard.
56. India needs to make massive investments
in infrastructural development.
57. Growth in India's aviation sector
is important to its economic development.
58. India has made substantial development
in the biotechnology
sector.
59. India has tremendous potential
to grow in the emerging industries.
60. Aviation sector in India has not
fulfilled its role in the past in its
economic development.
Directions (61 - 75) : In each of the questions given below which one of
the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on
the left, if the sequence were continued ?
Problem Figures Answer Figures
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Directions (76 - 85): What should
come in place of the question mark (?)
in the following questions ?
(1) 4.5 (2) 5.7
(3) 2.5 (4) 6.8
(5) None of these
77. ?% of 280 + 18% of 550 = 143.8
(1) 11 (2) 18 •
(3) 21 (4) 16
(5) None of these
78. 8.88 x 88.8 x 88 = ?
(1) 68301.142 (2) 79391.642
(3) 65365.824 (4) 76218.414
(5) None of these
(1) 81 (2) 3
(3) 6561 (4) 9
(5) None of these
(5) None of these
81. 15 : 66 : : 185 : ?
(1) 824 (2) 644
• (3) 604 . (4) 814
(5) None of these
(1) 9 (2) 3
(3) 12 . (4) 7
(5) None of these
83. 14% of 80 + ?% of 90 = 31.9
(1) 16 (2) 23
(3) 18 (4) 26
(5) None of these
(1) 302 (2) 322
(3) 292 (4) 342
(5) None of these
(5) None of these
Directions (86-90) : What
should come in place of the question
mark (?) in the following number series
?
86. 15 18 16 19 17 20 ?
(1) 23 (2) 22
(3) 16 (4) 18
(5) None of these
87. 1050 420 168 67.2 26.88
10.752 ?
(1) 4.3008 (2) 6.5038
(3) 4.4015 (4) 5.6002
(5) None of these
88. 0 6 24 60 120 210 ?
(1) 343 (2) 280
(3)335 (4)295
(5) None of these
8 9 . 3 2 49 83 151 287 559 ?
(1) 1118 (2) 979
(3) 1103 (4) 1120
(5) None of these
90. 462 552 650 756 870 992?
(1) 1040 (2) 1122
• (3) 1132 (4) 1050
(5) None of these
Directions (91 - 95) : What approximate
value should come in place
of the questions mark (?) in the following
questions ? (Note : You are not
expected to calculate the exact value.)
(1) 110 (2) 150
(3) 200 (4) 50
(5) 125
(1) 5832 (2) 5500
(3) 6000 (4) 6480
(5) 5240
93. 23.001 x 18.999 x 7.998 = ?
(1) 4200 (2) 3000
(3) 3500 (4) 4000
(5) 2500
(1) 18 (2) 15
(3) 6 (4) 11
(5) 20
95. 22.005% of 449.999 = ?
(1) 85 (2) 100
(3) 125 (4) 75
(5) 150
(5) None of these
Directions (101-105) : In each
of these questions, two equations are
given. You have to solve these equations
and find out the values of x and
y and —
(1) 8 hours
(3) 10 hours
hours
hours
(5) None 0f these
99. A car covers the first 39 km. of
it's journey in 45 minutes and
covers the remaining 25 km. in
35 minutes. What is the average
speed of the car ?
(1) 40kmph
(2) 64kmph
(3) 49kmph
(4) 48kmph
(5) None of these
100. Four examiners can examine a
certain number of answer papers
in 10 days by working for
5 hours a day. For how many
hours in a day would 2 examiners
have to work in order to examine
twice the number of answerpapers
in 20 days ?
96. A sum of`731 is divided among
A, B and C, such that A' receives
25% more than 'B' and 'B' receives
25% less than 'C. What
is C's share in the amount ?
(1)`172 (2)`200
(3)` 262 (4)` 258
(5) None of these
97. In how many different ways can
the letters of the word 'PRAISE'
be arranged ?
(1) 720 (2) 610
(3) 360 (4) 210
(5) None of these
98. If the numerator of a fraction is
increased by 150% and the denominator
of the fraction is increased
by 300%, the resultant
106. What is the approximate percentage
of boys in the school ?
(1) 34 (2) 56
(3) 28 (4) 50
(5) 42
107. How many boys are enrolled in
Singing and Craft together ?
(1) 505 (2) 610
(3) 485 (4) 420
(5) None of these
Percentage break-up of girls
enrolled in these activities out of
the total students.
N = 1750
Directions (106 - 110) : Study
the pie-chart carefully to answer the
following questions.
Percentage of students enrolled in
different activities in a school
N = 3000
108. What is the total number of girls
enrolled in Swimming and Drawing
together ?
(1) 480 (2) 525
(3) 505 (4) 495
(5) None of these
109. Number of enrolled in Dancing
form what per cent of total number
of students in the school ?
(1) 12.35 (2) 14.12
(3) 11.67 (4) 10:08
(5) None of these
110. What is the respective ratio of
number of girls enrolled in Swimming
to the number of boys enrolled
in Swimming ?
(1) 47 : 49 (2) 23 : 29
(3) 29 : 23 (4) 49 : 47
(5) None of these
Directions (111-115): Study the
following graph carefully and answer
the questions given below it.
Total number of students appeared
and qualified from various schools
at a Scholarship Exam
111. The average number of students
qualified at the examination from
schools C and D are what percent
of the average number of
students appeared for the examination
from the same school ?
(Rounded off to two digits after
decimal)
(1) 58.62 (2) 73.91
(3) 62.58 (4) 58.96
(5) None of these
112. What is the respective ratio of the
number of students appeared to
the number of students qualified
at the Scholarship exam from
School C ?
(1) 7 : 12 (2) 6 : 5
(3) 9 : 13 (4) 9 : 10
(5) None of these
113. What is the respective ratio of the
number of students qualified at
the Scholarship examination from
school A and the number of students
qualified at the examination
from school B?
(1) 8 : 3 (2) 5 : 7
(3) 7 : 3 (4) 9 : 5
(5) None of these
114. The number of students appeared
for the Scholarship exam from
School D are approximately
what percent of the total number
of students appeared for the
exam from all the schools together"
?
(1) 12 (2) 24
(3) 29 (4) 18
(5) 8
115. What is the difference between
the average number of students
appeared in the Scholarship exam
from all the given schools and the
average number of students qualified
from all the given schools?
(1) 950 (2) 1100
(3) 990 (4) 1020
(5) None of these
116. The difference between the
amount of compound interest and
simple interest accured on an
amount of` 26000 at the end of
3 years is ` 2994.134 What is
the rate of interest p.c.p.a. ?
(1) 22
(2) 17
(3) 19
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
117. On a shelf three are 4 books on
Economics, 3 books on Management
and 4 books on Statistics.
In how many different ways can
the books be arranged so that the
books on Economics are kept together?
(1) 967680 (2) 120960
(3) 5040 (4) 40320
(5) None of these
118. 6 women and 6 men together can
complete a piece of work in 6
days. In how many days can 15
men alone complete the piece of
work if 9 women alone can complete
the work in 10 days?
(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 7.2
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
119. Ravi borrowed some money at the
rate of 4 p.c.p.a. for the first
three years, at the rate of 8
p.c.p.a. for the next two years
and at the rate of 9 p.c.p.a. for
the period beyond 5 years. If he
pays a total simple interest of `
19,550 at the end of 7 years, how
much money did he borrow?
(1) `39,500 (2) ` 42,500
(3) ` 41,900 (4) ` 43,000
(5) None of these
120. What is the area of a circle whose
radius is equal to the side of a
square whose perimeter is 112
metres?
(1) 176 sq. m. (2) 2504 sq. m.
(3) 284 sq. m. (4) 1956 sq. m.
(5) None of these
Directions (121-125): Study the
following table carefully to answer the
questions that follow:
Number of Students studying in Six
Different Colleges over the years
College
Year
P Q R S T U
2004 2500 2250 2450 2150 2020 2300
2005 2040 2300 2400 2200 2090 2120
2006 2100 2150 2330 2250 2180 2260
2007 2280 2600 2260 2340 2250 2490
2008 2540 2540 2120 2380 2310 2520
2009 2320 2440 2500 2480 2400 2440
121. What is the total number of students
from all the Colleges together
in the year 2005 ?
(1) 10350 (2) 13150
(3)15310 (4)11350
(5) None of these
122. What is the percent increase in
the number of students in College.
T in the year 2007 from the
previous year? (rounded off to two
digits after decimal)
(1) 8.33 (2) 5.18
(3) 6.63 (4) 3.21
(5) None of these
123. Number of students in College P
in the year 2008 forms approximately
what percent of the total
number of students in that College
from all the years together?
(1) 11 (2) 31
(3) 18 (4) 26
(5) 23
124. What is the respective ratio of
total number of students in College
S in the years 2006 and
2009 together to the total number
of students in College U from
the same years?
(1) 473 : 470 (2) 470 : 473
(3) 371 : 390 .(4) 390 : 371
(5) None of these
125. What is the average number of
students in all the Colleges together
in the year 2004 ? (rounded
off to the nearest integer)
(1) 2208 (2) 2196
(3)2144 (4)2324
(5) 2278
GENERAL AWARENESS
126. As we all know rise of the 'BRICs'
has left a vast impact on almost
all aspects of the global economy.
However, which of the following
cannot be called as the
direct effect(s) of "Rise of the
BRICs"on global/other powerful
economy/economies?
(A) Countries like China wish to
learn more about outsourcing
from India.
(B) It has made countries to suffer
from Sub-prime Crisis.
(C) EURO has become a powerful
currency and many non-
Euro countries are in 'Swap
Agreement' with various nations.
(1) OnlyA
(2) Only B
(3) OnlyC
(4) All A, B & C
(5) None of these
127. The Government of India has
launched a new scheme for the
'Girl Child'. What is the name of
the scheme?
(1) Raj Lakshmi
(2) RaniBitia
(3) Dhan Lakshmi
(4) Aanandita
(5) None of these
128. As proposed in the Union Budget
2008-09 a "Risk Capital
Fund" is set up by the Government
of India. Who amongst the
following will maintain and operate
that fund ?
(1) NABARD (2) SIDBI
(3) ECGC (4) RBI
(5) None of these
129. As per the new policy the number
of Judges in the Supreme
Court would be now
(1)21 (2)25
(3) 26 (4) 30
(5)31
130. As, per the reports published in -
the newspapers the banks, particularly
public sector banks are
tying up with various rating agencies
for providing a qualitative
assessment of the credit needs
of the borrowers. Which
amongst the following is/are
such credit rating agencies in
India?
(A) CARE
(B) CRISIL
(C) ULIP
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) A & B only (4) Only C
(5) All A, B & C
131. As per the newspaper reports
the RBI is planning to introduce
"Plastic Currency Notes". What
is/are the benefits of "Plastic
Notes" ?
(A) Their Shelf life will be longer.
(B) It will replace plastic money
or Credit, debit cards which
are giving birth to many
fraudulent practices.
(C) Printing will be cheaper,
(1) OnlyC (2) Only B
(3) Only A (4) All A, B&C
(5) None of these
132. 'Sub Prime Lending' is a term
applied to the loans made to
(1) those borrowers who do not
have a good credit history.
(2) those who wish to take loan
against the mortgage of tangible
assets.
(3) those who have a good credit
history and are known to
bank since 10'years.
(4) those borrowers who are
most preferred customers of
the Bank.
(5) None of these
133. As per the reports published in
various journals and newspapers
the "small borrowers" in rural
areas still prefer to take informal
route for their credit needs.
Which of the following is the "informal
route" of credit in financial
sector?
(1) Credit cards
(2) Loan against gold from financial
institute
(3) Debit cards
(4) Moneylender
(5) None of these
134. Basel-II norms are associated
with which of the following aspects
of the banking industry ?
(1) Risk management
(2) Manpower planning
(3) Retirement benefits for the
employees
(4) Corporate Governance
(5) None of these
135. What is meant by "Underwriting"
the term frequently used in financial
sector?
(1) Undervaluation of the assets
(2) The Act of taking on a risk
for a fee
(3) Giving a Guarantee that a loan
will not become a bad loan
(4) The act of permission to float
an IPO
(5) None of these
136. Indra K. Nooyi who was elected
as the Chairperson of the USIndia
Business Council is the
CEO of which of the following
Companies?
(1) Pepsi Co.
(2) Infosys
(3) Tata Consultancy Services
(4) NUT
(5) None of these
137. As per the news published in
some newspapers magazines two
PSUs National Thermal Power
Corporation and Coal India Ltd.
are going to float a joint venture
'SPV. What is the full form of
"SPV" ?
(1) .Small Power Venture
(2) Special Purpose Vehicle
(3) Special Power Venture
(4) Small Purpose Vehicle
(5) None of these
138. Which of the following is the
name of very violent and serious
types of winds which bring lot
of disaster?
(1) Trade winds
(2) Hurricane
(3) Cirrus
(4) Stratus
(5) None of these
139. As we have noticed many banks
of Indian origin' are opening offices/
branches in foreign countries.
Why is this trend emerging
at a very fast pace?
(A) These Banks wish to provide
banking facilities to foreigners
as banking facilities are not
plenty in many foreign countries.
India wants to take an
advantage of the situation.
(B) These banks wish to help Indian
firms, to acquire funds
at internationally competitive
rates.
(C) These banks wish to promote
trade and investment between
India and other countries.
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Only C (4) All A, B & C
(5) Only B & C
140. Which of the following is NOT a
banking/finance related term?
(1) Credit wrap
(2) EMI .
(3) Held to Maturity
(4) Exposure limit
(5) Diffusion
141. Very often we read about the Doha
Ministerial Conference 2001 in
reference to WTO negotiations.
What were the major issues over
which nations were of different
opinions?
(A) Providing Subsidy to agriculture.
(B) Export of patented drugs/
medicines by developed nations.
(C) Restriction on natural movement
of people from one nation
to other.
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Only C (4) Both A & C
(5) None of these
142. A National development Fund
was created by the Government
of India a few years ago. What
was the purpose of the fund?
(A) Boost investment in social
sector projects to promote
education, healthcare and
employment.
(B) Capital investments in selected
profitable PSEs to yield
adequate returns.
(C) To fund revision in pay structure
of central Government
employees.
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Only C (4) Both A & B
(5) None of these
143. 'Long Walk to Freedom' is a book
written by .
(1) Sonia Gandhi
(2) L. K. Advani
(3) Nelson Mandela
(4) Benazir Bhutto
(5) Nawaz Sheriff

[Quick Sam]

144. Kosovo declared itself independent
from which of the following
countries?
(1) Ukraine (2) Croatia
(3) Serbia (4) Russia
(5) None of these
145. Who amongst the following is the
author of the book "Economic
Nightmare of India" ?
(1) MorarjiDesai
(2) K Rajeshwar Rao
(3) Charan Singh
(4) JyotiBasu
(5) None of these
146. What is Forex?
(1) It is buying of foreign currency
(2) It is selling of foreign curren-
(3) It is buying of one currency
and selling of another currency
(4) It is simultaneous buying of
one currency and selling of
another currency
(5} None of these
147. Amongst the currency quotes
USD/JPY, USD/Euro and USD/
CAD, which one of the following
is referred as the base currency
for quotes?
(1) US $ (2) JPY
(3) Euro (4) CAD
(5) None of these
(5) Member, Minority Commission
148. Under NREGS, for how many
days in a year a guaranteed employment
is given to eligible persons?
(1) 175 (2) 150
(3) 125 (4) 100
(5) 75
149. Expand the term FLCC.
(1) Financial Literacy and Credit
Counselling
(2) Financial Literacy Communication
Centre
(3) Financial Literacy Call Centre
(4) Fiscal Literacy and Credit
Counselling
(5) None of these
150. For which one of the following
purposes, the Government has
launched the Rajiv Awas Yojana ?
(1) To provide affordable houses
to people living BPL
(2) To provide affordable houses
to rural poor
(3) To provide affordable houses
to minorities
(4) To provide affordable houses
to slum dwellers and the urban
poor
(5) None of these
151. What is a fiscal deficit?
(1) It is a gap between the values
of the Exports and Imports
(2) It is a gap between Exports
and Imports minus external
borrowings
(3) It is a gap between total expenditure
and total receipts of
the Government
(4) It is a gap between total receipts
minus External Borrowing
(5) None of these
152. For which one of the following
target groups, Indira Awas Yojana
was launched ? It is to provide
affordable housing to
(1) people living BPL
(2) rural poor
(3) urban poor
(4) poor living in slums
(5) None of these
153. Which one of the following is/are
flagship schemes of the UPA Government?
(1) SarvaShikshaAbhiyan (SSA)
only
(2) Mid-day meal scheme only
(3) NREGS/JNNURM/NRHM
only
(4) Only (1) &(2)
(5) All(l), (2)&(3)
154. Which one of the following is the
period of Eleventh Five Year Plan?
(1) 2006-2011 (2) 2007-2012
(3) 2005-2010 (4) 2008-2013
(5) None of these
155. As stated by the Union Finance
Minister in his current budget
speech, which one of the following
had been the principal component
responsible for the growth
of economy during the last five
years?
(1) Government investment
(2) Proceeds of the dis-investment
of PSUs
(3) Private investment
(4) Foreign Direct Investment
(FDD
(5) None of these
156. According to the changes proposed
in the Finance Bill, a person
whose tax is being deducted
at source should furnish his
PAN to the deductor. If he/she
fails to do so, the tax will be deducted
at which of the following
rates?
(1) 10% (2) 20%
(3) 15% (4) 12.5%
(5) None of these
157. In which one of the following
countries, the rate of Income Tax
is highest?
(1) US (2) China
(3) Japan (4) UK
(5) France
158. Which one of the following organisations/
agencies are in-,
volved in drafting the Union Budget
of India?
(1) The Planning Commission
only
(2) The Comptroller and Auditor
General only
(3) Administrative Ministries only
(4) (1) &(2) only
(5) All (1), (2) & (3)
159. Under the Right to Education Bill,
the children of which one of the
following age groups is eligible
to get free education ?
(1) Upto five years
(2) Six to ten years
(3) Six to fourteen years
(4) Eight to twelve years
(5) None of these
160. Which of the following is the
book written by V.S. Naipaul ?
(1) Magic Seeds
(2) My God Died Young
(3) The Sea
(4) My India
(5) None of these
161. In which one of the following
states, Teesta Urja hydro-power
project is proposed to be set up?
(1) Sikkim
(2) A. P.
(3) West Bengal
(4) Arunachal Pradesh
(5) Assam
162. Which of the following books is
written by Dominique Lapierre ?
(1) City of Joys
(2) A New World
(3) Living History
(4) Two Lives
(5) None of these
163. Between 2004 and 2009, the
Government has paid ` 700
crores as penalty to World Bank
and other international agencies.
For which one of the following
reasons this penalty was paid?
(1) For prepayment of loans
(2) For delay in execution of
projects
(3) For delay in payment of international
debts
(4) For not using the loans approved
by these agencies
(5) None of these
164. The World Health Organisation
(WHO) has declared which of the
following diseases as a 'Global
Pandemic' ?
(1) Swine Flu (2) AIDS
(3) Cancer (4) Malaria
(5) All of these
165. Which of the following is NOT
an economic empowerment
scheme launched by the Government
of India for the benefit of
various sections of society?
(1) STEP
(2) Swayamsidha
(3) KALPANA-1
(4) Swadhar
(5) All of these
166. Jago Grahak Jago" is an initiative
towards —
(1) rural development
(2) sustainable growth
(3) prevention of child abuse
(4) women empowerment
(5) consumer education and
awareness
167. Which of the following is NOT a
programme/agency of the Union
Ministry of Finance?
(1) Investor Education and Protection
Fund (IEPF)
(2) National Foundation for Corporate
Governance (NFCG)
(3) Serious Frauds Investigation
Office (SFIO)
(4) Investment Commission
(5) Central Rural Sanitation programme
168. Who amongst the following is the
author of the book Tiger Hills" ?
(1) Michael Maar -
(2) T. S. R. Subramanian
(3) Y. V. Reddy
(4) Rajiv Sikri
(5) Sarita Mandanna
169. Which of the following names/
terms is NOT associated with the
World Trade Organisation
(WTO)?
(1) UNCTAD (2) GATT
(3) GATS (4) SEWA
(5) FTA
170. Labour legislations in India have
an important dimension of protection
of women from exploitation.
Some special provisions are
made for women in the work
place. Which of the following is
NOT one such' special provision?
(1) Equal pay for work of equal
value
(2) Maternity protection
(3) Creche facility at the work
place for infants
(4) No night shifts
(5) Cooked meals during day
shifts to be provided by the
employer
171. Within the education sector the
highest priority is given to which
of the following Government
schemes?
(1) Technical education
(2) Primary education
(3) High school education
(4) Adult education
(5) None of these
172. The approach of'Micro-Credit' or
'Banking with the poor' is comparatively
a new concept in the
field of rural credit. This approach
has been tried very successfully
in which of the following
countries?
(1) Bangladesh (2) India
(3) China (4) Japan
(5) None of these
173. Many a time we read about the
priority sector in newspapers.
Which of the following is/are
considered segment(s)) of Priority
Sector in India?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Small Scale Industry
(C) Textile Industry
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) OnlyC (4) All A, B&C
(5) None of these
174. The Government of India has
launched a number of poverty
alleviation programmes. This is
done with the view that poverty
is the root cause of social insecurity.
In addition to that UNO
has also launched Millennium Development
Goals to be achieved
by 2015. Which of the following
is, NOT one of those goals?
(1.) Improve mental health
(2) Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria
(3) Reduce marriageable age for
males to 18 years
(4) Promote gender equality and
empower women
(5) Achieve universal primary
education
175. If a farmer wishes to increase the
productivity of the land how can
it be accomplished?
(A) By use of chemical inputs.
(B).By excessive use of pesti:
cides/herbicides.
(C) By copious use of water for
irrigation
(1) Both A & B (2) Only A
(3) Both B&C (4) Only C
(5) Both A & C
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (176-190): Read the
following passage carefully and answer
the questions given below it. Certain
words/phrases are printed in bold to
help you to locate them while answering
some of the questions.
The outside world has pat answers
concerning extremely impoverished
countries, especially those in
Africa. Everything comes back, again
and again, to corruption and misrule.
Western officials argue that Africa simply
needs to behave itself better, to allow
market forces to operate without
interference by corrupt rulers. Yet the
critics of African governance have it
wrong. Politics simply can't explain Africa's
prolonged economic crisis. The
claim that Africa's corruption is the
basic source of the problem does not
withstand serious scrutiny. During the
past decade I witnessed how relatively
well-governed countries in Africa, such
as Ghana, Malawi, Mali and Senegal,
failed to prosper, whereas societies in.
Asia perceived to have extensive corruption,
such as Bangladesh, Indonesia
and Pakistan, enjoyed rapid economic
growth.
What is the explanation? Every
situation of extreme poverty around the
world contains some of its own unique
causes, which need to be diagnosed
as a doctor would a patient. For example,
Africa is burdened with malaria like
no other part of the world, simply because
it is unlucky in providing the
perfect conditions for that disease;
high temperatures, plenty of breeding
sites and particular species of malaria-
transmitting mosquitoes that prefer
to bite humans rather than cattle.
Another myth is that the developed
world already gives plenty of aid
to the world's poor. Former U.S. Secretary
of the Treasury, Paul O'Neil expressed
a common frustration when he
remarked about aid for Africa : "We've
spent trillions of dollars on these problems
and we have damn near nothing
to show for it". O'Neil was no foe of
foreign aid. Indeed, he wanted to fix
the system so that more U.S. aid could
be justified. But he was wrong to believe
that vast flows of aid to Africa had
been squandered. President Bush said
in a press conference in April 2004 that
as "the greatest power on the face of
the earth, we have an obligation to
help the spread of freedom. We have
an obligation to feed the hungry". Yet
how does the U.S. fulfill its obligation?
U.S. aid to farmers in poor countries
to help them grow more food runs at
around $200 million per year, far less
than $1 per person per year for the
hundreds of millions of people living
in subsistence farm households.
From the world as a whole, the
amount of aid per African per year is
really very small, just $30 per sub-Saharan
African in 2002. Of that modest
amount, almost $5 was actually for
consultants from the donor countries,
more than $3 was for emergency aid,
about $4 went for servicing Africa's
debts and $ 5 was for debt-relief operations.
The rest, about $12, went to
Africa. Since the "money down the
drain" argument is heard most frequently
in the U.S., it's worth looking at the
same calculations for U.S. aid alone.
In 2002, the U.S. gave $3 per sub-
Saharan African. Taking out the parts
for U.S. consultants and technical cooperation,
food and other emergency
aid, administrative costs and debt relief,
the aid per African came to grand
total of 6 cents.
The U.S. has promised repeatedly
over the decades, as a signatory
to global agreements like the Monterrey
Consensus of 2002, to give a much
larger proportion of its annual output,
specifically upto 0.7% of GNP, to official
development assistance. The U.S.
failure to follow through has no political
fallout domestically, of course, because
not one in a million U.S. citizens
even knows of statements like
the Monterrey Consensus. But no one
should underestimate the salience that
it has around the world. Spin as American
might about their nation's generosity,
the poor countries are fully aware
of what the U.S. is not doing. '
176. The passage seems to emphasize
that the outside world has
(1) correct understanding about
the reasonable aid provided by
the USA to the poor countries
(2) definite information about
what is happening in under
developed countries
(3) stopped extending any financial
aid to underdeveloped
countries
(4) misconceptions about the aid
given to the poor nations by
developed countries
(5) None of these
177. According to the Westerners the
solution to eradicate poverty of
African nations lies in
(1) corruption
(2) improving their own national
behaviour
(3) misrule
(4) prolonged economic crisis
(5) None of these
178. The author has given the example
of Bangladesh, Indonesia and
Pakistan in support of his argument
that
(1) corruption is the major culprit
in the way of prosperity
(2) mis-governance hampers the
prosperity of nations
(3) despite rampant corruption,
nations may prosper
(4) developed nations arrogantly
neglect underdeveloped countries
(5) None of these
179. The author has mentioned Ghana
as a country with
(1) reasonably good-governance
(2) corrupt leadership
(3) plenty of natural resources
(4) rapid'economic growth
(5) None of these
180. The cases of malaria in Africa are
mainly due to
(A) high temperature
(B) climatic conditions conducive
for breeding.
(C) malaria carriers' liking for
human blood in preference to
that of cattle.
(1) None of these
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only A and C
(4) Only A and B
(5) All the three
181. The remark of former U.S. Secretary
of the treasury, Paul O'Neil,
is according to the author
(1) a statement of fact
(2) not factually correct
(3) an underestimation of U.S.
aid
(4) a ruthless remark by an arrogant
bureaucrat
(5) None of these
182. President Bush's statement in a
Press Conference in April 2004
indicates that
(1) the aid given by the U.S. to
the poor countries is substantial
and sufficient
(2) the spread of freedom cannot
be achieved through financial
aid
(3) feeding the hungry millions
outside the U.S. is not possible
(4) the U.S., on its own;- assumes
the obligation of helping
the poor countries
(5) U.S. has spent trillions of dollars
on aid
183. Which of the following statements
is TRUE about U.S. aid
to the sub-Saharan African countries?
(1) The U.S. aid meant for per
capita African does not reach
the incumbent
(2) The U.S. aid to African countries
is more than that for any
other developing or underdeveloped
nation
(3) The U.S. aid for farmers in
African countries is $ 200 m.
per year
(4) The donor country charges
$ 5 per individual as the consultancy
charges
(5) U.S. has been contributing
more than 0.7% of its GNP
for development assistance
184. The purpose of the author in
writing this passage seems to .
(1) criticize USA for not providing
adequate financial help
(2) make Africans realize their
own problems
(3) analyze the actual quantum of
aid against the perceived one
(4) highlight how American leaders
are power-hungry
(5) None of these
Directions (185-187): Choose
the word/group of words which is
most nearly the same in meaning to
the word/group of words printed in
bold as used in the passage.
185. OBLIGATION
(1) lip sympathy
(2) true empathy
(3) self pity
(4) conditional responsibility
(5) moral binding
186. SQUANDER
(1) use economically
(2) spend wastefully
(3) siphon judiciously
(4) donate generously
(5) donate with ulterior motive
187. MODEST
(1) humble (2) sufficient
(3) meagre (4) sober
(5) unpretentious
Directions (188 - 190) : Choose
the word/group of words which is
most OPPOSITE in meaning of the
word given in bold as used in the passage.
188. MYTH
(1) reality
(2) mystery
(3) misery
(4) misconception
(5) exaggeration
189. EXTENSIVE
(1) intensive (2) abominable
(3) inherent (4) rampant
(5) negligible
190. PROLONGED
(1) immediate (2) shortened
(3) brevity (4) short-lived
(5) narrow
Directions (191 - 200) : Which
of the phrases (1), (2), (3), (4) given
below each sentence should replace
the phrase printed in bold type to
make the sentence gramatically correct
? If the sentence is correct mark
(5) i.e. 'No correction required' as the
answer.
191. Please take out your shoes and
put out the light.
(1) take out your shoes and
switch off the light
(2) take out your shoes and put
on the light
(3) take off your shoes and put
out the light
(4) put off your shoes and switch
off the light
(5) No correction required
192. On account of she lacked a
sense of responsibility I confiscated
the keys.
(1) On account that her
(2) On account she
(3) On account that she
(4) Because she
(5) No correction required
193. We are constantly surrounding
of sounds and noise.
(1) constantly'surrounding about
sounds
(2) constantly surrounding by
sounds
(3) constantly surrounded by
sounds
(4) constantly surrounding with
(5) No correction required
194. I leave in hurry because it was
getting dark.
(1) left with hurry
(2) leave with hurry
(2) leave and hurry
(4) hurriedly left
(5) No correction required
195. Sachin is older of the two sons.
(1) is older than
(2) will be older of
(3) is elder than
(4) is the elder of
(5) No correction required
196. I cannot dance the music like I
did before the accident.
(1) dancing
(2) dance for the music
(3) dance by the music
(4) dance to the music
(5) No correction required
197. When the child is being bored
and not occupied is also mischievous.
(1) has boredom and no occupation
he
(2) was bored and not occupied
he
(3) is bored and unoccupied that
he
(4) is bored and unoccupied he
(5) No correction required
198. America has announced plans to
shut up recruitment agencies.
(1) will announced plans to shut
up
(2) announced plans to shut off
(3) has announced plans to shut
down
(4) has announced plans of shut
down
(5) No correction required
199. It took years for realizing what
was going on.
(1) took years for realization
(2) takes years for realizing
(3) took years after realizing
(4) took years before I realized
(5) No correction required
200. Being forewarned on the lack of
transport I hired a cycle.
(1) I was forewarned on
(2) On being forewarned on
(3) Being forewarned about
(4) Being warned before
(5) No correction required
Directions (201 - 210) : Read
each sentence to find out whether there
is any grammatical error or idiomatic
error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The number
of that part is the answer. If there is
no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors
of punctuation, if any).
201. Despite the merger, (1)/ the airline
has reported (2)/ sizeable
losses and is unable (3) / to pay
their employees. (4) / Noerror (5).
202. We have recently began (1)/ the
process of recruiting (2)/ insurance
agents for (3)/ our North-
Eastern branches. (4)/ No error
(5).
203. The company's decision to issue
(1)/ bonus shares clearly indicates
(2)/ the management's confident
(3)/ about the future. (4)/
No error (5).
204. Inspite that organisations are
aware (1)/ of the importance of
IT (2)/ they often do not know
(3)/ how to deploy it effectively.
(4)/ No error (5).
205. Keeping in mind that India (1)/
is one of the world's fastest (2)/
growing economies many international
(3)/ companies are invested
in India. (4)/ No error (5).
206. Although interlinking of rivers will
(1)/ help tackle drought, the government
(2)/ has not paid much
(3)/ attention to this project. (4)/
No error (5).
207. The rise in prices of food items
is (1)/ likely the cause of inflation
(2)/ to exceed eight percent
(3)/ during the next quarter. (4)/
No error (5).
208. Many people believe that (1) / the
nationalisation of banks in (2)/
the 1960s have protected India
(3)/ from the current financial
crisis. (4)/ No error (5).
209. RBI is in favour (1) / of amending
currently (2) / policies governing
operations of (3)/ foreign banks
in India. (4)/ No error (5).
210. These recently upgraded branch
offices (1)/ have been fully computerised
(2)/ and are connected
to headquarters (3)/ to ensure
proper monitoring. (4) / No error
(5).
Directions (211 - 215) : Rearrange
the following six sentences (A),
(B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph;
then answer the questions given
below them.
(A) Development of drought resistance
could benefit large numbers
of farmers.
(B) Hence the human race has no
choice but to adapt to these impacts.
(C) India has to be concerned about
climatic changes.
(D) This impact can run into decades
and centuries.
(E) Environment day is thus an important
occasion to assess the
past and our future.
(F) Since there is a possibility of adverse
impact on agriculture
which could deter growth.
211. Which is the FIFTH sentence of
the passage after the rearrangement?
(1) (F) (2) (D)
(3) (E) (4) (A)
(5) (C)
212. Which is the THIRD sentence of
the passage ?
(1) (A) (2) (D)
(3) (B) (4) (C)
(5) (E)
213. Which is the SECOND sentence
of the passage ?
(1) (B) (2) (D)
(3) (F) (4) (C)
(5) (E)
214. Which is the LAST (SIXTH) sentence
of the passage ?
(1) (C) (2) (B)
(3) (F) (4) (D)
(5)(E)
215. Which is the FIRST sentence of
the passage ?
(1) (A) (2) (D)
(3) (C) (4) (B)
(5) (E)
Directions (216 - 225) : In the
following passage there are blanks,
each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the
passage and against each, five words
are suggested, one of which fits the
blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each.case.
The (216) of India as an economic
superpower is not reflected in the
(217) of life enjoyed by its 1.2 billion
citizens according to the Human Development
Index which (218) India very
low among 182 countries. In our performance
oriented world, measurement
issues have taken on (219) importance
as what we measure affects what we
do. In fact the French President has
established an international commission
on the Measurement of Economic Per--
formance and Social Progress-owing to
his (220) and that of others with the
current state of statistical information
about the economy and society.
The big question concerns (221)
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) provides
a good measure of living standards.
In many cases GDP statistics
seem to (222) that the economy is doing
far better than most citizens feel it
is. Moreover the focus on GDP creates
conflicts while political leaders are told
to maximise it, citizens also demand
that (223) be paid to enhancing security,
reducing air, water and noise
pollution all of which actually (224)
GDP growth. Statistics are (2251 to
summarise what is going on in
our. complex society, it is therefore
obvious that we can't reduce everything
to a single number-GDP.
216. (1) tribute (2) pursuit
(3) perception (4) conversion'
(5) title
217. (1) loss (2) quality
(3) spirit (4) span
(5) Joy
218. (1) counted (2) scored
(3) qualified (4) regard
(5) ranked
219. (1) negligible (2) great
(3) unduly (4) trivial
(5) considerably
220. (1) obedience
(2) confidence
(3) belief
(4) dissatisfaction
(5) compliance
221. (1) that (2) unless
(3) because (4) against
(5) whether
222. (1) suggest (2) recommend
' (3) think- (4) point
(5) refer
223. (1) compensation
(2) respect (3) debt
(4) attention (5) expense
224. (1) recover (2) lower
(3) attain (4) decline
(5) shrunk
225. (1) inferred (2) difficult
(3) interpret (4) reveal •
(5) intended