SET Exam Life Sciences Previous year Question Paper

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This is the SET Exam Life Sciences Previous year Question Paper:

PART B
21. Which of the following bonds will be most difficult to break?
1. C–O
2. C–C
3. C–N
4. C–S
22. A solution of 1% (w/v) starch at pH 6.7 is digested by 15 µg of -amylase (mol wt
152,000). The rate of maltose (mol wt = 342) had a maximal initial velocity of 8.5 mg
formed per min. The turnover number is
1. 0.25 105 min–1.
2. 25 105 min–1.
3. 2.5 105 min–1.
4. 2.5 104 min–1.
23. The conformation of a nucleotide in DNA is affected by rotation about how many bonds?
1. 4
2. 6
3. 7
4. 3
24. Which of the following proteins acts as an energy transducer?
1. G-protein.
2. Bacteriorhodopsin.
3. Hemoglobin.
4. Heat shock protein.
25. Which of the following predicted property of lipid bilayers would result if the
phospholipids had only one hydrocarbon chain instead of two?
1. The bilayers formed would be much less fluid.
2. The diameter of the head group would be much larger than the acyl chain and would
tend to form micelles rather than bilayers.
3. the bilayers formed would be much more fluid.
4. the bilayers would be more permeable to small water-soluble molecules.
26. Which pump is responsible for initiating muscle contraction through depolarization of
muscle cell membrane?
1. Na+ pump.
2. K+ pump.
3. Ca2+ pump.
4. Mg2+ pump.
27. Which of the following statements is not true for transposable element system?
1. It consists of both autonomous and non-autonomous elements.
2. Dissociation elements are autonomous in nature.
3. Transposase is transcribed by the central region of autonomous elements.
4. Certain repeats in the genome remain fixed even after the element transposes out.
28. A set of virulence genes (vir genes), located in the Agrobacterium Ti-plasmid, is activated
by
1. octopine.
2. nopaline.
3. acetosyringone.
4. auxin.
29. When two mutants having the same phenotype were crossed, the progeny obtained showed
a wild-type phenotype. Thus the mutations are
1. non-allelic.
2. allelic.
3. segregating from each other.
4. independently assorting.
30. A conjugation experiment is carried out between F+ his+ leu+ thr+ pro+ bacteria and F– his–
leu– thr- pro- bacteria for a period of 25 minutes. At this time the mating is stopped, and the
genotypes of the recipient F– bacteria are determined. The results are shown below:
Genotype Number of colonies
his+ 0
leu+ 13
thr+ 26
pro+ 6
What is the probable order of these genes on the bacterial chromosome?
1. thr, leu, pro, his
2. pro,leu, thr and the position of his cannot be determined.
3. thr, leu, pro, and the position of his cannot be determined.
4. his, pro, leu, thr
31. Two varieties of maize averaging 48 and 72 inches in height, respectively, are crossed.
The F1 progeny is quite uniform averaging 60 inches in height. Of the 500 F2 plants, the
shortest 2 are 48 inches and the tallest 2 are 72 inches. What is the probable number of
polygenes involved in this trait?
1. Four.
2. Eight.
3. Sixteen.
4. Thirty two.
32. Repair of double strand breaks made during meiosis in the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae
1. occurs mostly by non-homologous end joining.
2. occurs mostly using the sister chromatid as a template.
3. occurs mostly using the homologous chromosome as a template.
4. is associated with a high frequency of mutations.
33. Which of the following signaling molecules enters the cell to initiate its action?
1. Transferrin
2. Insulin
3. Glucagon
4. Thyroxine
34. The mode of action of the anticancer drug methotrexate is through its strong competitive
inhibition on
1. dihydrofolate reductase.
2. thymidine synthase.
3. thymidine kinase.
4. adenylate cyclase.
35. Which class of immunoglobulins will increase in case of a chronic infection?
1. IgA
2. IgG
3. IgM
4. IgE
36. When prospective neuroectoderm from an early amphibian gastrula is transplanted in the
prospective epidermal region of a recipient (early gastrula) embryo, the donor tissue will
give rise to
1. neural tube.
2. epidermis.
3. neural tube and notochord.
4. neural tube and epidermis.
37. Amphibian oocytes remain for years in the diplotene stage of meiotic prophase.
Resumption of meiosis is initiated by
1. gonodatropic hormone.
2. growth hormone.
3. oestrogen.
4. progesterone.
38. A group of six cells called 'equivalence group cells' divide to form the vulval structure in
Caenorhabditis elegans. They are called so because
1. they have similar fates during development of vulva.
2. all the six cells are competent to form vulva and can replace each other under various
experimental conditions.
3. they are all under the influence of the anchor cell, signals from which initiate
vulval development.
4. they interact with each other to form the vulval structure.
39. Due to the presence of cellulose in the cell wall of plants, leaf shape is determined in the
leaf primorida by
1. rates of cell division.
2. planes of cell division.
3. cell migration.
4. cell-cell interactions.
40. DCMU inhibits electron transport in chloroplast by preventing the reduction of
1. P 680.
2. QA.
3. PQ.
4. QB.
41. In higher plant leaves, the reduction of nitrate to ammonium takes place by the combined
action of nitrate reductase localized in cytosol and nitrite reductase localized in
1. peroxisomes.
2. mitochondria.
3. chloroplasts.
4. cytosol.
42. In higher plants, the red/far-red sensory photoreceptor, phytochrome, is a light-regulated
kinase. Which of the following classes of kinases does it represent?
1. Two-component sensor regulator (histidine kinase).
2. Two-component sensor regulator (serine/threonine kinase).
3. Leucine rich repeat (LRR) receptor kinase.
4. Calcium-dependent protein kinase.
43. Vesicular-arbuscular mycorrhiza (VAM) represents a beneficial association between plant
roots and fungus, where fungus assists plants in obtaining from the soil
1. iron.
2. zinc.
3. sulphate.
4. phosphate.
44. Unidirectional propagation of electrical signal in nervous system is
1. proportional to the length of axon.
2. due to chemical synapse.
3. due to electrical synapse.
4. proportional to myelination.
45. A myasthenia gravis patient develops muscle paralysis because
1. the nerve terminal at the neuromuscular junction fails to release acetylcholine.
2. although enough acetylcholine is released at the neuromuscular junction, it is
destroyed by acetylcholinesterase.
3. the patient develops immunity against his own acetylcholine receptor.
4. the patient develops antibody against his own acetylcholine.
46. Inhibin from sertoli cells of testes selectively inhibits
1. luteinizing hormone.
2. follicle stimulating hormone.
3. thyroid stimulating hormone.
4. growth hormone.
47. Hawk's retina possesses a large number of
1. rods.
2. melanocytes.
3. cones.
4. kuffer cells.
48. E. coli cells were grown in N15 medium for several generations and then shifted to normal
medium for one generation. If the DNA isolated from the culture would be centrifuged on
a CsCl equilibrium density gradient, the result will be
1. a single band of double helix DNA consisting of one strand with N14 and another
with N15 label.
2. single band of double helix DNA consisting of N14 and N15 in both the
strands.
3. two bands containing double helix DNA each containing both N14 and N15 label.
4. two bands containing single stranded DNA one with N14 and other with N15
label.
49. Which of the following processes does not take place in the 5′→3′ direction?
1. DNA replication
2. Transcription
3. Nick translation
4. RNA editing
50. A deletion of three consecutive bases in the coding region of a gene cannot result in
1. deletion of a single amino acid without any other change in the protein.
2. replacement of two adjacent amino acids by a single amino acid.
3. replacement of a single amino acid by another without any other change in
sequence of the protein.
4. production of a truncated protein.
51. Deletion of the leader sequence of trp operon of E. coli would result in
1. decreased transcription of trp operon.
2. increased transcription of trp operon.
3. no effect on transcription.
4. decreased transcription of trp operon in the presence of tryptophan.
52. In the endodermis of higher plants, the role of Casperian strip is to control the water
movement so that it flows
1. between the cells.
2. through the plasma membrane.
3. through the cell wall.
4. through the transfusion tissue.
53. The reptilian order Squamata includes
1. crocodiles and alligators.
2. the living fossil 'tuatara'.
3. turtles and tortoises.
4. snakes and lizards.
54. Cultivated bananas are sterile because
1. male flower-bearing plants are very rare.
2. they lack natural pollinators in the crop plants.
3. they are triploid and therefore seeds are not set.
4. they are a cross of two unrelated species.
55. One life history trait that is not characteristic of very small sized organisms is
1. delayed age at first reproduction.
2. earlier age at first reproduction.
3. high population growth rate.
4. short lifespan.
56. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate example of character
displacement?
1. Two related species depending on the same prey species avoid competition by
feeding at different times of the day.
2. The body sizes of two related species are very similar when they are allopatric,
but in geographical areas of sympatry, one species is significantly smaller than
the other.
3. The food niche of a species is generally wider in the absence of competing species
than in their presence.
4. Closely related species can coexist if their densities are regulated by a predator.
57. In a population growing logistically and approaching Carrying Capacity (K), the
change in density (N) per unit time (dN/dt) is maximum when N equals to
1. K2
2. K/2.
3. K.
4. K.
58. The losses of ozone over Arctic are significantly lower than that over Antarctica
because
1. polar vortex over Arctic is not as tight as over Antarctic.
2. Arctic stratosphere warms slower in the spring.
3. concentration of chlorine in the atmosphere over Arctic is less than over
Antarctic.
4. freezing of NO2 and CH4 are slower over Arctic than over Antarctic.
59. Which of the following species replacement sequence depicts tolerance model of
community succession?
A B
C D
A B
C D
D
CD
A B
C D
A B
1
2
3
4
BCD
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Trait value Trait value
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
60. Evolutionarily, with which of the following could parental care in animals be
associated?
1. Smaller clutch size.
2. Polygamy.
3. Greater longevity.
4. Semelparity.
61.
The change in a trait with time as a result of natural selection is shown above. This
type of natural selection is
1. directional.
2. disruptive.
3. stabilizing.
4. random.
62. During which geological period did the greatest diversification of life on earth occur?
1. Permian
2. Jurassic
3. Cambrian
4. Ordovician
63. Which of the following plant groups evolved during the Silurian period?
1. Bryophyta
2. Psilophyta
3. Lycophyta
4. Spherrophyta
64. Which of the following GM crops is the most widely cultivated globally?
1. Herbicide resistant soybean.
2. Insect resistant cotton.
3. Insect resistant brinjal.
4. delayed ripening tomato.
65. PCR based DNA amplification is an essential feature of which of the following
combination of molecular markers?
1. RFLP, AFLP and SSR.
2. AFLP, SSR and RAPD.
3. RFLP, RAPD and SSR.
4. RAPD, RFLP and SSR.
66. The genes whose promoters are extensively used for production of pharmaceutical
proteins in transgenic dairy cattles are
1. lactalbumin and ovalbumin.
2. lactoglobulin and casein.
3. lactoferrin and transferrin.
4. casein and ovalbumin.
67. A biochemist purifies a new enzyme, generating the following purification table.
S. No. Procedure Total protein
(mg)
Activity
(units)
i. Crude Extract 20,000 4,000,000
ii. Salt precipitation 5,000 3,000,000
iii. Ion-exchange
chromatography
200 800,000
iv. Affinity chromatography 50 750,000
v. Size-exclusion
chromatography
45 675,000
The most effective purification step is
1. iv.
2. iii.
3. v.
4. ii.
68. Similarities in sequence and function of two proteins indicate that they are members
of a family that share a common ancestor. If they are from different species, they are
called
1. homologs.
2. orthologs.
3. paralogs.
4. proteologs.


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