#1
13th June 2015, 05:04 PM
 
 
SAIL Previous Year Question Paper For Management Trainee Administrator
Will you please provide the previous year SAIL Management Trainees (Administration) exam question paper so that I can get idea that what types of questions are asks in the exam ?

#2
14th June 2015, 09:54 AM
 
 
Re: SAIL Previous Year Question Paper For Management Trainee Administrator
Here I am providing the list of few questions of SAIL Management Trainees (Administration) exam question paper which you are looking for . 1. If 2xy=4 then 6x3y=? (a)15 (b)12 (c)18 (d)10 Ans. (b) 2. If x=y=2z and xyz=256 then what is the value of x? (a)12 (b)8 (c)16 (d)6 Ans. (b) 3. (1/10)18  (1/10)20 = ? (a) 99/1020 (b) 99/10 (c) 0.9 (d) none of these Ans. (a) 4. Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 minutes and Pipe C can empty the same in 40 minutes. If all of them work together, find the time taken to fill the tank (a) 17 1/7 mins (b) 20 mins (c) 8 mins (d) none of these Ans. (a) 5. Thirty men take 20 days to complete a job working 9 hours a day. How many hour a day should 40 men work to complete the job? (a) 8 hrs (b) 7 1/2 hrs (c) 7 hrs (d) 9 hrs Ans. (b) 6. . Find the smallest number in a GP whose sum is 38 and product 1728 (a) 12 (b) 20 (c) 8 (d) none of these Ans. (c) 7. A boat travels 20 kms upstream in 6 hrs and 18 kms downstream in 4 hrs. Find the speed of the boat in still water and the speed of the water current? (a) 1/2 kmph (b) 7/12 kmph (c) 5 kmph (d) none of these Ans. (b) 8. A goat is tied to one corner of a square plot of side 12m by a rope 7m long. Find the area it can graze? (a) 38.5 sq.m (b) 155 sq.m (c) 144 sq.m (d) 19.25 sq.m Ans. (a) 9. Mr. Shah decided to walk down the escalator of a tube station. He found that if he walks down 26 steps, he requires 30 seconds to reach the bottom. However, if he steps down 34 stairs he would only require 18 seconds to get to the bottom. If the time is measured from the moment the top step begins to descend to the time he steps off the last step at the bottom, find out the height of the stair way in steps? Ans.46 steps. 10. The average age of 10 members of a committee is the same as it was 4 years ago, because an old member has been replaced by a young member. Find how much younger is the new member ? Ans.40 years. 11. Three containers A, B and C have volumes a, b, and c respectively; and container A is full of water while the other two are empty. If from container A water is poured into container B which becomes 1/3 full, and into container C which becomes 1/2 full, how much water is left in container A? 12. ABCE is an isosceles trapezoid and ACDE is a rectangle. AB = 10 and EC = 20. What is the length of AE? Ans. AE = 10 13. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle at A and B respectively and the chord BC is parallel to tangent PA. If AC = 6 cm, and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm, then what is the length of the chord BC? Ans. BC = 4 cm. 14. Three cards are drawn at random from an ordinary pack of cards. Find the probability that they will consist of a king, a queen and an ace. Ans. 64/2210 15. A number of cats got together and decided to kill between them 999919 mice. Every cat killed an equal number of mice. Each cat killed more mice than there were cats. How many cats do you think there were ? Ans. 991. 16. If Log2 x  5 Log x + 6 = 0, then what would the value / values of x be? Ans. x = e2 or e3. 17. In June a baseball team that played 60 games had won 30% of its game played. After a phenomenal winning streak this team raised its average to 50% .How many games must the team have won in a row to attain this average? A. 12 B. 20 C. 24 D. 30 (Ans. C) 18. .Can you tender a one rupee note in such a manner that there shall be total 50 coins but none of them would be 2 paise coins.? Ans. 45 one paisa coins, 2 five paise coins, 2 ten paise coins, and 1 twentyfive paise coins. 19. A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each hour, it hops 3ft. and slips back 2ft. How much time would it take the monkey to reach the top? Ans.18 hours. 20. What is the missing number in this series? 8 2 14 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12 Ans. 9 21. A certain type of mixture is prepared by mixing brand A at Rs.9 a kg. with brand B at Rs.4 a kg. If the mixture is worth Rs.7 a kg., how many kgs. of brand A are needed to make 40kgs. of the mixture? Ans. Brand A needed is 24kgs. 22. A wizard named Nepo says "I am only three times my son's age. My father is 40 years more than twice my age. Together the three of us are a mere 1240 years old." How old is Nepo? Ans. 360 years old. 23. One dog tells the other that there are two dogs in front of me. The other one also shouts that he too had two behind him. How many are they? Ans. Three 24. A man ate 100 bananas in five days, each day eating 6 more than the previous day. How many bananas did he eat on the first day? Ans. Eight. 25. If it takes five minutes to boil one egg, how long will it take to boil four eggs? Ans. Five minutes. 26. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour hand at intervals of 64 minutes of correct time. How much a day does the clock gain or lose? Ans. 32 8/11 minutes. 27. Solve for x and y: 1/x  1/y = 1/3, 1/x2 + 1/y2 = 5/9. Ans. x = 3/2 or 3 and y = 3 or 3/2. 28. Daal is now being sold at Rs. 20 a kg. During last month its rate was Rs. 16 per kg. By how much percent should a family reduce its consumption so as to keep the expenditure fixed? Ans. 20 %. 29. Find the least value of 3x + 4y if x2y3 = 6. Ans. 10. 30. Can you find out what day of the week was January 12, 1979? Ans. Friday. 31. A garrison of 3300 men has provisions for 32 days, when given at a rate of 850 grams per head. At the end of 7 days a reinforcement arrives and it was found that now the provisions will last 8 days less, when given at the rate of 825 grams per head. How, many more men can it feed? Ans. 1700 men. 32. From 5 different green balls, four different blue balls and three different red balls, how many combinations of balls can be chosen taking at least one green and one blue ball? 33. Three pipes, A, B, & C are attached to a tank. A & B can fill it in 20 & 30 minutes respectively while C can empty it in 15 minutes. If A, B & C are kept open successively for 1 minute each, how soon will the tank be filled? Ans. 167 minutes. 34. A person walking 5/6 of his usual rate is 40 minutes late. What is his usual time? Ans. 3 hours 20 minutes. 35. For a motorist there are three ways going from City A to City C. By way of bridge the distance is 20 miles and toll is $0.75. A tunnel between the two cities is a distance of 10 miles and toll is $1.00 for the vehicle and driver and $0.10 for each passenger. A twolane highway without toll goes east for 30 miles to city B and then 20 miles in a northwest direction to City C. I. Which is the shortest route from B to C (a) Directly on toll free highway to City C (b) The bridge (c) The Tunnel (d) The bridge or the tunnel (e) The bridge only if traffic is heavy on the toll free highway Ans. (a) II. The most economical way of going from City A to City B, in terms of toll and distance is to use the (a) tunnel (b) bridge (c) bridge or tunnel (d) toll free highway (e) bridge and highway Ans. (a) III. Jim usually drives alone from City C to City A every working day. His firm deducts a percentage of employee pay for lateness. Which factor would most influence his choice of the bridge or the tunnel ? (a) Whether his wife goes with him (b) scenic beauty on the route (c) Traffic conditions on the road, bridge and tunnel (d) saving $0.25 in tolls (e) price of gasoline consumed in covering additional 10 miles on the bridge Ans. (a) IV. In choosing between the use of the bridge and the tunnel the chief factor's) would be: a. Traffic and road conditions b. Number of passengers in the car c. Location of one's homes in the center or outskirts of one of the cities d. Desire to save $0.25 (a) I only (b) II only (c) II and III only (d) III and IV only (e) I and II only Ans. (a) 36. The letters A, B, C, D, E, F and G, not necessarily in that order, stand for seven consecutive integers from 1 to 10, D is 3 less than A, B is the middle term F is as much less than B as C is greater than D, G is greater than F, 1. The fifth integer is (a) A (b) C (c) D (d) E (e) F Ans. (a) 2. A is as much greater than F as which integer is less than G (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E Ans. (a) 3. If A = 7, the sum of E and G is (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 14 (e) 16 Ans. (a) 4. A  F = ? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) Cannot be determined Ans. (a) 5. An integer T is as much greater than C as C is greater than E. T can be written as A + E. What is D? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) Cannot be determined Ans. (a) 6. The greatest possible value of C is how much greater than the smallest possible value of D? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 6 Ans. (a) 37. 1. All G's are H's 2. All G's are J's or K's 3. All J's and K's are G's 4. All L's are K's 5. All N's are M's 6. No M's are G's 1. If no P's are K's, which of the following must be true? (a) All P's are J's (b) No P is a G (c) No P is an H (d) If any P is an H it is a G (e) If any P is a G it is a J Ans. (a) 2. Which of the following can be logically deduced from the conditions stated? (a) No M's are H's (b) No M's that are not N's are H's (c) No H's are M's (d) Some M's are H's (e) All M's are H's Ans. (a) 3. Which of the following is inconsistent with one or more of the conditions? (a) All H's are G's (b) All H's that are not G's are M's (c) Some H's are both M's and G's (d) No M's are H's (e) All M's are H's Ans. (a) 4. The statement "No L's are J's" is I. Logically deducible from the conditions stated II. Consistent with but not deducible from the conditions stated III. Deducible from the stated conditions together with the additional statement "No J's are K's" (a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) II and III only (e) Neither I, II nor III Ans. (a) 38. In country X, democratic, conservative and justice parties have fought three civil wars in twenty years. TO restore stability an agreement is reached to rotate the top offices President, Prime Minister and Army Chief among the parties so that each party controls one and only one office at all times. The three top office holders must each have two deputies, one from each of the other parties. Each deputy must choose a staff composed of equally members of his or her chiefs party and member of the third party. 1. When Justice party holds one of the top offices, which of the following cannot be true (a) Some of the staff members within that office are justice party members (b) Some of the staff members within that office are democratic party members (c) Two of the deputies within the other offices are justice party members (d) Two of the deputies within the other offices are conservative party members (e) Some of the staff members within the other offices are justice party members. Ans. (a) 2. When the democratic party holds presidency, the staff of the prime minister's deputies are composed I. Onefourth of democratic party members II. Onehalf of justice party members and onefourth of conservative party members III. Onehalf of conservative party members and onefourth of justice party members. (a) I only (b) I and II only (c) II or III but not both (d) I and II or I and III (e) None of these Ans. (a) 3. Which of the following is allowable under the rules as stated: (a) More than half of the staff within a given office belonging to a single party (b) Half of the staff within a given office belonging to a single party (c) Any person having a member of the same party as his or her immediate superior (d) Half the total number of staff members in all three offices belonging to a single party (e) Half the staff members in a given office belonging to parties different from the party of the top office holder in that office. Ans. (a) 4. The office of the Army Chief passes from Conservative to Justice party. Which of the following must be fired. (a) The democratic deputy and all staff members belonging to Justice party (b) Justice party deputy and all his or hers staff members 
#3
16th December 2015, 09:31 AM
 
 
Re: SAIL Previous Year Question Paper For Management Trainee Administrator
Will you please provide me the previous year Question Paper of SAIL Management Trainee Administrator (MT) Exam??

#4
16th December 2015, 09:32 AM
 
 
Re: SAIL Previous Year Question Paper For Management Trainee Administrator
SAIL exam for management trainee administrator it was 2:30 hr exam with 2 parts of 75 mins each without any break. PAPER  II (200 marks, Time: 2:00 hr) Descriptive Any one out of the following: Physics Radio Engineering Telecommunication Engineering Electrical Engineering Electronics Engineering Information Technology Sail previous year question paper for management trainee here I’m providing you some question: SAIL Technical Papers ElectronicsEngineering MT2010,2011,2012 question papers 1. Two coils in differential connection have selfinductance of 2 mH and 4 mH and a mutual inductance of 0.15 mH. The equivalent inductance of the combination is A. 5.7 mH B. 5.85 mH C. 6 mH D. 6.15 mH. 1.A. When two inductors are connected in series, the effective inductance is Leff = L1 + L2± 2 m. In this case, Leff = L1 + L2  2 M = 2 + 4  2 × 0.15 = 5.7 mH. 2. Two point charges Q and Q are located on two opposite corners of a square as shown in figure. If the potential at the corner A is taken as 1V, then the potential at B, the centre of the square will be 2.C. The plane midway between a and a, i.e., the one passing through ABC and perpendicular to the plane of the paper is an equipotential plane. Hence the potential at B is the same as that of A or C, i.e., 1V. 3. Optocouplers combine A. SITs and BJTs B. IGBTs and MOSFETS C. Power transformers and silicon transistor D. Infrared lightemitting diode and a silicon phototransistor 3.D. In optocouplers the input signal is applied to the ILED and the output is takes from the phototransistor. These are used to isolate the gate signals from the power circuit. 4. The difference between the indicated value and the true value of a quantity is known as A. Gross error B. Absolute error C. Dynamic error D. Relative error 4.C. The difference between the indicated value and the true value of a quantity is known as dynamic error. 5. The principles of homogeneity and superposition are applied to : A. linear time variant systems B. nonlinear time variant systems C. linear time invariant systems D. nonlinear time invariant systems. 5.C. The Principles of homogeneity and superposition are applied to linear time invariant systems. 6. In a 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I / 0, A. I / 0 devices have 8bit addresses B. I / 0 devices are accessed using IN and OUT instructions C. there can be a maximum of 256 input devices and 256 output devices. D. arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with the I / 0 data. 6.D. In an 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I / 0 arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with I / 0 data. 7. The transistor shown in figure below, is biased 1. at cutoff 2.at saturation 3.well into saturation 4.well into cutoff 7.B. Neglecting VBE, IB = 10 / 100 = 0.1 A. IC = 100 × 0.1 = 10 A. Drop over RL = 10 v. Hence, VCE = 0 which is the condition for saturation. 8. In any transmitting antenna system, efficiency primarily depends upon A. ohmic losses of various conductors B. radiation resistance C. ground conductivity D. atmospheric conditions. 8.B. whereRr is radiation resistance and Rd is the total loss resistance of the antenna. 9. An instruction used to set the carry Flag in a computer can be classified as A. data transfer B. arithmetic C. logical D. program control 9.B. Arithmetic 10. The binary representation of 5.375 is A. 111.1011 B. 101.1101 C. 101.011 D. 111.001 10.C. 101.001 = (4 + 0 + 1) (0 + 0.25 + 0.125) = 5.375 11. Dislocations in materials are A. point defect B. line defect C. planer defect D. surface defects. 11.B. Dislocations in materials are line defects. 12. In TV system, vertical pulses are separated out from horizontal pulses by the use of A. integrator B. differentiator C. sweep credit D. sync separator. 12.A. Integrator. 13. Frequency in the UHF range propagate by means of A. Ground waves B. Sky waves C. Surface waves D. Space waves. 3.D. Frequency in the UHF Range propagate by means of space waves. 14. 200 MHz may be classified as A. VHF B. SHF C. UHF D. EHF 14.A. VHF. 15. A communication satellite is a repeater between A. a transmitting station and a receiving station B. a transmitting station and many receiving stations C. many transmitting stations and many receiving stations D. none of the above 15.C. a communication satellite is a repeater between many transmitting stations and many receiving stations. 16. The power in a series RLC circuit will be half of that at resonance when the magnitude of the current is equal to A. V / 2R B. V / C. V / 16.C. V / Ö2 R 17. A point charge Q is located on the surface of a sphere of radius R as shown in the figure. The average electric field on the surface of the sphere will be 17.C. The point charge Q emanates a total electric displacement flux of Q. If a plane is passed through the point of location of charge and tangential to the sphere, half the flux is on one side and half on the other. The first half of flux is passing through the spherical surface. Thus the average displacement density has a direction opposite to that of n and the magnitude is \ Average electric field is : Eav = 18. The efficiency of a chopper can be expected in the range A. 50 to 55 percent B. 65 to 72 percent C. 82 to 87 percent D. 92 to 99 percent 18.D. The efficiency of a practical chopper varies from 92 to 99 percent. 19. Which one out of the following instruments should be used to measure 600 kV a.c. voltages? A. Hot wire instrument B. Electrostatic voltmeter C. Moving coil voltmeter 19.B. Electrostatic voltmeter should be used to measure 600 kV a.c. voltage. D. Moving iron voltmeter. 20 Which one of the following transfer functions represents the Bode plot shown in the above figure : 20.A. it can easily be checked that the corresponding function is G (s) = (1  s) / (1 + s) It is seen immediately that  G (jw)  = 1 and hence gain is db = 0. 21. The following programme is run on an 8085 microprocessor, Memory address in Hex Instruction 2000 LXI SP, 1000 2003 PUSH H 2004 PUSH D 2005 CALL 2050 2008 POP 2050 2009 HIT As the completion of execution of the program, the program the program counter of the 8085 contains ………, and the stack pointer contains …….. 2050, OFFC 2251, OFFC 1025, OCCF 1025, OCCF 21.A. Memory address in hex Instruction Remarks 2000 LXI SP 1000 2003 PUSH H 2004 PUSH D We do not 2005 CALL 2025 know the contents of subroutine at 2050. 2006 50 2007 20 2008 POP H 2009 HALT At the completion of the execution of the program, the program counter of the 8085 contains 2050 and the stack pointer contains OFFC. 22. With reference to figure, value of VCE is 0 V 5 V 5V none of the above 23. The smallest change in sound intensity that can be detected A. 1 dB B. 3 dB C. 10 dB D. 20 dB. 23.B. Increase = 10 log10 P2 / P1 = 10 log102 = 10 × 0.3 = 3dB. 24. In a generic microprocessor, instruction cycle time is A. shorter than machine cycle time B. larger than machine cycle time C. exactly double the machine cycle time D. exactly the same as the machine cycle time 24.D. Instruction cycle time is exactly the same as the machine cycle time. 25. The value of M in the end will be Do 100 I = 1, 2 DO 200 J = 1, 2 M = M + I + J 200 CONTINUE 100 CONTINUE STOP END 10 11 12 14 25.C. Taking index of I = 1 and M = 0 computing the value of M with J = 1, 2 J = 1 M = 0 + 1 + 1 = 2 J = 2 M = 2 + 1 + 2 = 4 Taking index of I = 2 and computing the value of M with J = 1, 2 J = 1 M = 5 + 2 + 1 = 8 J = 2 M = 1 + 2 + 2 = 12 