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5th March 2016, 08:09 AM
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SAIL Management Trainee Previous Year Question Paper
Will you please give here previous year question paper for SAIL Management Trainee recruitment examination ?
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#2
5th March 2016, 08:45 AM
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Re: SAIL Management Trainee Previous Year Question Paper
As you want I am here giving you previous year question paper for SAIL Management Trainee recruitment examination . Sample paper : 1. The Constitution provides that no Vidhan Sabha can have less than 60 members. Which of the following State Assemblies is an exception to it ? (1) Tripura (2) Meghalaya (3) Sikkim (4) Mizoram 2. Who will discharge the functions of the President of India, if for any reason both the offices of the President and the Vice President of India fall vacant? (1) Prime Minister (2) Speaker of Lok Sabha (3) The senior-most Governor of states (4) Attorney General of India 3. India is not a member of (1) G-20 (3) G-15 (2) G-8 (4) United Nations 4. The distance between the Earth and the Sun is the greatest during (1) Summer Solstice (2) Winter Solstice (3) Aphelion (4) Perihelion 5. CDMA in telephony stands for (1) Cyclic Divided Microwave Access (2) Code Division Multiple Access (3) Centrally Distinct Multiple Access (4) Coded Dots Mobile Access 6. Which one of the following books is not written by Munshi Premchand ? (1) Rangbhoomi (2) Prem Pachisi (3) Vishkanya (4) Kayakalp 7. Which Taal has sixteen matras ? (1) Jhaptal (2) Roopak Taal (3) Teen Taal (4) Aadi Taal 8. Which of the following countries won the World Youth Football Championship 2004 ? (1) Brazil (2) Spain (3) Argentina (4) Germany TEST I General Awareness 9. “World Development Report” is an annual publication of (1) United Nations Development Programme (2) International Bank of Reconstruction and Development (3) World Trade Organisation (4) International Monetary Fund 10. India’s first Neutron Reactor ‘Kamini’ was built at the nuclear research centre located at (1) Chennai (2) Kalpakkam (3) Kolkata (4) Trombay 11. Who among the following has written the controversial book ‘Shivaji: Hindu King in Islamic India’ ? (1) Arundhati Roy (2) Sumit Sarkar (3) James W. Laine (4) Arthur Clarke 12. Which of the following countries does not border the Mediterranean Sea? (1) Malta (2) Libya (3) Italy (4) Bulgaria 13. The deepest oceanic trench ‘Mariana’ is located in (1) Atlantic Ocean (2) Arctic Ocean (3) Pacific Ocean (4) Indian Ocean 14. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (1) ‘Purna Swaraj’ Resolution : 1929 (2) Martyrdom of Bhagat Singh : 1931 (3) Formation of Congress Socialist Party : 1938 (4) Shimla Conference : 1945 15. Which of the following states has the lowest Sex Ratio as per CENSUS - 2001 of India? (1) Haryana (2) Punjab (3) Sikkim (4) Uttar Pradesh 16. Which of the following newspapers has won five Pulitzer Prizes for 2004 ? (1) The New York Times (2) Washington Post (3) The Los Angeles Times (4) The Wall Street Journal 45 17. In which of the following countries, have scientists recently created mice by using two genetic mothers and no fathers? (2) Canada (2) Russia (3) Japan (4) Germany 18. In April 2004, the President of which of the following countries was impeached by its Parliament? (1) South Korea (2) Brazil (3) Thailand (4) Lithuania 19. ‘Straight from the Heart’ is the autobiography of (1) Imran Khan (2) Kapil Dev (3) Richard Hadlee (4) Ian Botham 20. Which chemical is mainly responsible for depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere? (1) Sulphur dioxide (2) Chlorofluoro-carbon (3) Carbon dioxide (4) Nitrous oxide 21. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (1) ‘Hertz’ is used to measure frequency (2) ‘Kelvin’ is used to measure temperature (3) ‘Bel’ is used to measure atmospheric pressure (4) ‘Ohm’ is used to measure electrical resistance 22. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (1) Cosmic describes anything occurring or located in outer space (2) Lithosphere is the top crust of the earth which includes the land surface and the ocean floors (3) Silicon constitutes the second most important element in the composition of the earth (4) A tributary is a river which leaves the main river and flows separately 23. The first Summit of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was held in (1) Algiers (2) Belgrade (3) Jakarta (4) New Delhi 24. How many members can be nominated to the Lok Sabha by the President of India? (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 12 25. The shape of the earth is best described as (1) Spherical (2) Spheroid (3) Geoid (4) Oblate spheroid 26. Ginger is an example of (1) Tuber (2) Rhizome (3) Bulb (4) Corm 27. The critical temperature at which unsaturated air becomes saturated, is called (1) Absolute Humidity (2) Condensation (3) Dew Point (4) Frost 28. Water glass is chemically (1) Aluminium silicate (2) Calcium silicate (3) Potassium silicate (4) Sodium silicate 29. Who among the following is the India’s first Woman Grandmaster in Chess? (1) Koneru Humpy (2) Aarthie Ramaswamy (3) S. Meenakshi (4) S. Vijaya Lakshmi 30. Which of the following projects envisages to connect all the police stations in the country in one network? (1) POL. COM (2) IPOL. COM (3) POLNET (4) IPOLNET English Language Directions for Q. Nos. 31 to 45 : These questions are based on the contents of the passages and II given below. Read the passages carefully and answer the questions that follow them on the basis of the contents of the passage in each case. Passage I War has escaped the battlefield and now can, with modern guidance systems on missiles, touch virtually every square meter of the earth’s surface. War has also lost most of its utility in achieving the traditional goals of conflict. Control of territory carries with it the obligation to provide subject peoples certain administrative, health, education, and other social services; such obligations far outweigh the benefits of control. If the ruled population is ethnically or racially different from the rulers, tensions and chronic unrest often exist which further reduce the benefits and increase the costs of domination. 46 31. According to the passage, leaders of pre-modernised society considered war to be (1) a valid tool of national policy (2) an important act of aggression (3) economically wasteful and socially unfeasible (4) restricted in scope to military participants 32. Which of the following cannot be cited as a psychic advantage of war in the pre-modernized society, according to the author? (1) The creation of a sense of security (2) The perception of war as a noble aspect of life (3) The enhancement of national self-esteem (4) The pride that followed as a result of power over others 33. The author most likely places the word “civilized” in quotation marks in order to (1) show dissatisfaction at not having found a better word (2) acknowledge that the word was borrowed from another source (3) express irony that war should be a part of civilisation (4) impress upon the reader the tragedy of war 34. The author mentions all of the following as possible reasons for going to war in a pre-modernised society, except (1) possibility of material gain (2) total annihilation of the enemy and destruction of enemy territory (3) potential for increasing the security of the nation (4) desire to capture productive farming lands 35. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage? (1) Outraged and indignant (2) Humorous and wry (3) Concerned and optimistic (4) Scientific and detached 36. War in the pre-modern society was often the subject of legend because (1) it was a noble aspect of life (2) it was required to be recorded for history (3) it was an unavoidable part of existence (4) it was considered an exciting and dramatic phenomenon 37. According to the passage, war in the modern time is no longer desirable because (1) people have realised the costs of going to war are enormous (2) there is far greater desire for peace and coexistence than for power (3) of the realisation that ruling over other countries is no longer economically advantageous (4) technological advances have obviated the need for war 38. The words ‘war has escaped the battlefield’ have been used in the passage to indicate that (1) technological advances have made the field of war all pervasive (2) the area of war is now not definable (3) war has become uncontrollable (4) battlefields are now extinct 39. The contents of the passage show that it has been written (1) very recently (2) about 5 years back (3) sometime in the 1980s (4) cannot be determined from the passage Large populations no longer necessarily enhance state power and, in the absence of high levels of economic development, can impose severe burden on food supply, jobs, and broad range of services expected of modern governments. The noneconomic security reasons for the control of territory have been progressively undermined by the advances of modern technology. The benefits of forcing another nation to surrender its wealth are vastly overweighed by the benefits of persuading the nation to produce and exchange goods and services. In brief, imperialism no longer pays. Making war has been one of the most persistent of human activities in the 80 centuries since men and women settled and thereby became “civilized” but the modernisation of the past 80 years has fundamentally changed the role and function of war. In pre-modernized societies successful warfare brought significant material rewards, the most obvious of which were the stored wealth of the defeated. Equally important was human labour – control over people as slaves or levies for the victor’s army, and there was the productive capacity – agricultural lands and mines. Successful warfare also produced psychic benefits. The removal or destruction of a threat brought a sense of security, and power gained over others created pride and national self-esteem. War was accepted in the pre-modernised society as a part of the human condition, a mechanism of change and an unavoidable, even noble, aspect of life. The excitement and drama of war made it a vital part of literature and legends. 47 40. Putting people first, according to the passage is (1) easier said than done (2) profitable (3) politically though not economically defensible (4) good for the company’s public image 41. The term ‘lean and mean organisation’, as used in the passage, means (1) a meaningful organisation (2) an organisation staffed with slim and well meaning people (3) a competitive organisation with no overstaffing (4) an organisation which means business 42. Some countries have abandoned their traditional policy of permanent employment because (1) employees have become a variable cost (2) it is no longer viable in a globally competitive environment (3) employees are no longer keen on life-long employment in the same organisation (4) they would like to take the benefit of outsourcing 43. The term ‘a bottomline focus’ is used in the passage to indicate (1) the organisational focus on profitability (2) a concern for the lowest possible costs (3) the ground reality (4) the attention to breakeven point 44. As per the passage, staff reduction is the first response of (1) organisations getting into the competitive mode (2) organisations with problems (3) organisations seeking to reengineer (4) organisations without problems 45. The author’s tone in the passage is (1) ironical and critical (2) scientific and incisive (3) pragmatic and informed (4) humorous and entertaining 48 46. ABERRATION (1) deviation (2) abhorrence (3) dislike (4) absence 47. COPIUS (1) cheating (2) plentiful (3) dishonourable (4) inspired 48. DECIMATE (1) disgrace (2) kill (3) search (4) collide 54. ODIOUS (1) fragrant (2) redolent (3) fetid (4) delightful 55. LACONIC (1) milky (2) verbose (3) wicked (4) flagrant Directions for Q. Nos. 186 and 187. Eighty five children went to an amusement park where they could ride on the merry-go-round, roller coaster and giant wheel. It was known that 20 of them took all three rides, and 55 of them took at least two of the three rides. Each ride costs Re. 1 and the total receipts of the park were Rs. 145. 186. How many children did not try any of the rides? (1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 20 (4) 25 187. How many children took exactly one ride? (1) 15 (2) 20 (3) 10 (4) 12 191. Science follows which subject ? (1) Engineering (2) Psychology (3) Philosophy (4) Economics 192. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ? (1) 51 (2) 144 (3) 256 (4) 64 Directions for Q. Nos. 188 to 191. A training college has to conduct a refresher course for teachers of seven different subjects - Education, Psychology, Philosophy, Sociology, Economics, Science and Engineering from 22nd July to 29th July. (i) Course should start with Psychology and there should be a gap of 2 days between Sociology and Psychology. (ii) 23rd July, being Sunday, should be a holiday. (iii) Science should be on the previous day of Engineering. (iv) Course should end with Education. (v) Philosophy should be immediately after the holiday. (vi) There should be a gap of one day between Economics and Engineering. 188. Which subject will be on Tuesday? (1) Sociology (2) Economics (3) Education (4) Engineering 189. Which subject precedes Education? (1) Economics (2) Engineering (3) Philosophy (4) Psychology 190. How many days gap is in between Science and Philosophy? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 Directions for Q. Nos. 193 to 197 : In each of these questions, five words, marked (a) to (e) are given. Arrange these words in alphabetic sequence as they appear in a dictionary. Select answers from the choices given under each set of words. 193. (a) NEUTRALISE (b) NEUTRAL (c) NEUTRALITY (d) NEUTRON (e) NEUTRALISM (1) d-b-c-a-e (2) b-a-e-c-d (3) b-e-c-d-a (4) b-e-a-c-d 194. (a) ORGAN (b) ORIGIN (c) ORIENT (d) ORGANIC (e) ORGANISE (1) a-e-c-d-b (2) a-e-d-b-c (3) a-d-e-c-b (4) a-d-e-b-c 195. (a) HORRIBLE (b) HOSIERY (c) HORROR (d) HORRID (e) HORSE (1) d-a-c-e-b (2) a-d-c-e-b (3) d-c-a-e-b (4) a-c-d-e-b 196. (a) REFINE (b) REFRESH (c) REFILL (d) REFORM (e) REFRAIN (1) c-a-d-b-e (2) c-a-e-b-d (3) c-a-d-e-b (4) e-d-b-a-c 197. (a) FLOWER (b) FLUX (c) FLUID (d) FLUSH (e) FLUE (1) a-e-c-d-b (2) b-c-d-a-e (3) a-e-c-b-d (4) a-e-d-c-b Directions for Q. Nos. 198 to 200. A person who is drawing up a will has exactly five potential heirs - S, T, U, V and W. The estate will distribute exactly seven lots of land, which are numbered 1 through 7. All seven lots will be distributed, subject to the following restrictions: (i) No lot is to be shared, and no heir can inherit more than three lots. (ii) Whoever inherits lot 2 cannot inherit any other lot. (iii) No heir can inherit both lot 3 and lot 4. (iv) If S inherits one or more lots, then U cannot inherit any. (v) If S inherits lot 2, then T must inherit lot 4. (vi) W must .inherit lot 6 but cannot inherit lot 3. 198. If S inherits lot 2, who must inherit lot 3 ? (1) T (2) U (3) V (4) W 199. If S inherits lot 2 and three heirs inherit two lots each, no one can inherit both lots (1) 1 and 3 (3) 1 and 6 (2) 1 and 7 (4) 4 and 5 200. If U and V inherit no lots, which of the following must inherit three lots? . (1) S only (2) Wonly (3) Both Sand T (4) Both Sand W Here is the attachment. |