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  #1  
3rd December 2014, 08:55 AM
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Exam Paper Management Trainee at Bharat Dynamics Limited

Can you provide me the Question Paper for Management Trainee Electrical Engineering of Bharat Dynamics Limited?
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  #2  
3rd December 2014, 10:12 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Exam Paper Management Trainee at Bharat Dynamics Limited

The Question Paper for Management Trainee Electrical Engineering of Bharat Dynamics Limited is as follows:

Electro & Telecom. Engineering 2009

1.The rank of the matrix is
zero
1
2

2.The particular integration (P.I.) of (D2+4)y = cos 2x is




3. 6 boys and 6 girls in a row randomly. The probability that all the six girls sit together is




4. Value of is
1
2
3
0
5. The value of is
7
4
9
10
6. The Taylor series expansion of the function F(x) = x/(1+x), around x=0 is
x+x2+x3+x4+…….
x+x2+x3+x4+…….
2x+42+8x3+16x4+…….
x-x2+x3-x4+…….
7. If x+y=k, x>0, y >0, then xy is the maximum when
x=ky
kx=y
x=y
None of these
8. The probability that two friends share the same birth-month is
1/6
1/12
1/144
1/24
9. If a function is continuous at a point, then its first derivative
may or may not exist
exist always
will not exist
has a unique value
10. When 2-port networks are connected in parallel, which parameters convenient to use
inverse hybrid
open circuit impedance
short circuit admittance
transmission
11. Fourier’s series expansion of an odd periodic function contains
sine terms only
cosine terms only
Both A and B
None of the above
12. For a LC parallel circuit at resonance, all the statements given below are correct except
the line current is maximum at resonance
the branch currents at resonance are equal
the admittance is minimum at resonance
the angle between the branch current is 180oC at resonance.
13. If a square wave voltage having 5V average value is applied to a low pass filter, then average value of output is
10 V
2.5 V
5 V
0 V
14. The magnetic field intensity emanating from a closed surface
is zero
is infinite
depends on dipole moments
depends on volumetric compaction factors
15. Brewster angle is the angle for which there is
no reflection and the incident waves in vertically polarized.
Reflection and the incident wave is horizontally polarized
No reflection and the incident wave is horizontally polarized
Any of the above.
16. The minimum value of the life of a transistor to be used in three section R-C phase shift oscillator is
54.4
45.4
44.5
29
17. A 10 MHz square wave clocks a 5-bit ripple counter. The frequency of third flip-flop’s output would be
2 MHz
1 MHz
2.5 MHz
1.25 MHz
18. The number of comparators needed in a 4-bit flash type ADC is
32
15
8
14
19. A n-channel silicon (Eg = 1.1ev) MOSFET was fabricated using n+ poly-silicon gate and the threshold voltage was found to be 1V. Now, if the gate is changed to p+ poly-silicon, other things remaining the same, the new threshold voltage should be
-0.1 V
0 V
1 V
2.1 V
20. A system has the transfer function . It is known as a:
low pass system
high pass system
all pass system
process control system
21. The mechanical item constant of a motor is equal to 50 secs. If the friction coefficient is 0.04 Nm/rad/sec, the value of moment of inertial of the motor is equal to
50 kg – m2
kg – m2
1 kg – m2
0.1 kg – m2
22. If the noise figure of a receiver is 1.6, its equivalent noise temperature is
464.00o K
174.00o K
108.75o K
181.25o K
23. The mobility of electron in copper is :

Given atomic weight = 63.54, density = 8.96 gm/cc, resistivity = 1.7×10–6 W-cm,
Avogadro’s number = 6.025 ×1023
30 cm2/V-5
43.28 cm2/V-5
50 cm2/V-5
data not sufficient
24. In an N type semiconductor, the Fermi-level lies 0.3 eV below the conduction band and at 300oK. If the temperature is increased at 330oK, then the new position of Fermi-level conduction band is
0.1 eV
0.33 eV
0.3 eV
0 eV
25. For the circuit shown in the figure:


assuming b = 100 for the transistor, the transistor will be in
the cut-off region
the inverse active region
the active region
the saturation region
26. An antenna array comprises of two dipoles. These dipoles are separated by wavelength. If these dipoles are fed with currents that are 90o out of phase, then null of the pattern will occur at
angle > 90o


p
27. A MOSFET amplifier circuit is as shown below


The Tran conductance of the MOSFET is :
0.015 ms
0.03 ms
0.06 ms
1 ms
28. Consider a manage signal X(t) as shown in figures.


This manage signal is applied to AM modulator with modulation index b = 0.5
The modulation efficiency will be:
33%
20%
66.67%
50%
29. The minimum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function is
15o
30o
45o
60o
30. The resonant frequency shown by the diagram will be


13.84 Hz
148.44 Hz
158.44 Hz
None
31. When a uniform plane wave traveling in air is incident on the plane boundary between air and another dielectric medium with Îr = 9, the reflection coefficient for normal incidence is given by
0.333 Ð0o
0.5 Ð0o
0.5 Ð180o
0.333 Ð180o
32. What will happen to a bird sitting on a conductor carrying 11 KV?
It will die of shock.
It will not die of shock because its claws are insulated.
It will not die because it is insulated from earth and other conductors.
None of the above.
33. It an aluminum foil is introduced midway the plates of a capacitor and connected to one plate the capacitance
decreases
increases
increases twice
remains unaltered
34. J = 6E is known as
Ohm’s Law
Ampere’s Law
Coulomb’s Law
Bio Savart’s Law
35. Electrical capacitance in pneumatic systems is analogous to
volume of air
restriction to flow
filled helical tube
None of the above.
36. In aircraft the use of hydraulic motor is preferred over the electric motor because they are
cheap
flexible
not electrical driven
light and have high torque to inertia ratio
37. Which of the following emitter material usually needs less than 1 kV as plate voltage?
Pure tungsten
Thoriated tungsten
Oxide coated
All the above
38. At a P-N junction, the potential barrier is due to the charges on either side of the junction, these charges are
minority carriers
majority carriers
both A and B
fixed donor and acceptor ions
39. In a class A amplifier utilizing a direct resistive load, the maximum conversion efficiency could be
25%
40%
46.5%
85%
40. If 1.5% of the output of an amplifier is feedback positively to the input, the minimum gain required of the amplifier for oscillations to occur, is
16.6
14.4
66.6
95
41. Ultra high frequency oscillations work in the range
10 Hz to 10 kHz
1 kHz to kHz
20 kHz to 30 MHz
above 30 MHz
42. If a 1 MHz signal is combined with the output of a 1.4 MHz oscillator, the best frequency obtained will be
150 kHz
250 kHz
400 kHz
600 kHz
43. The D flip-flop and T flip-flop are respectively used as
delay and toggle switch
toggle switch and delay gate
both used as toggle switch
both used as delay gates.
44. In a monolithic integrated circuit the resistor is obtained by
utilizing P-type base diffusion only
utilizing the bulk resistivity of one of the diffused areas or thin film techniques
diffusing a semiconductor in the chip
diffusing carbon in the chip
45. When a large number of analog signals are to be converted an analog multiplexer is used. In this case most suitable A.D. converter will be
up-down counter type
dual slop type
forward counter type
successive approximation type
46. The output of a two input EX-NOR gate is high when
one input is high and other is low
both the inputs re high
both the inputs are low
both the inputs are same
47. An electric wrist watch has a clock of frequency 32 kHz. To divide this frequency down to 1 Hz it is necessary to have
one four-bit binary counter one T flip-flop and one decade counter
three decade counters, one four-bit binary counter and one T flip-flop
two decade counters, one two-bit binary counter and a T flip-flop
four four-bit binary counters and one decade counter.
48. The initial and final counts of mod-16 counter are
0000 to 1001
0001 to 1111
0000 to 1111
0000 to 1000
49. Which of the following logic circuits is the fastest?
RTL
DTL
TTL
All the above have speed
50. What command must have been used on the diskette before you can use the SYS command to copy the DOS system files to it?
TREE
APPEND
FORMAT /S or FORMAT /S
FORMAT /V
51. In the CONFIG.SYS file, the command STACKS = 9,256 means
9,256 stacks of 64 KB each having been set aside for Multitasking
9 stacks of 256 bytes have been set aside for DOS kernel operations
9 stacks of 256 bytes have been set aside for DOS disk buffering
9 stacks of 256 bytes have been set aside for processing IRQS
52. How much should you specify in RAM-DRIVE if you want to create a 640 K RAM drive?
640
64
1024
32767
53. What is the name of the computer based EMMS that provides a common forum where users can check in at their convenience, post messages, actively exchange ideas and participate in ongoing discussion
e-mail
Bulleting board system (BBS)
Teleconferencing
Video-conferencing
54. Many larger organizations with other offices in different countries of the world connect their computers through telecommunication satellites and telephone line. Such a communication network is called
LAN
WAN
VAN
MAN
55. In photoconductive effect, radiation of wavelength greater than critical wavelength will
produce protons
produce free electrons
doesn’t produce free electron
emit electrons from the surface
56. On which of the following principles the desired squeeze, weld and hold time durations are obtained in the digital timer of a resistance welding machine?
Digital-to-analog conversion
Analog-to-digital conversion
Time multiplexing
Time-to-voltage conversion
57. The anode current through a conducting SCR is 10A. If its gate current is made one-fourth, the anode current will become
1 A
4 A
10 A
None of these
58. When two A.C. signals of the same frequencies and amplitudes are applied to the X and Y inputs of a CRO respectively, the resulting pattern on the screen will be
a parabola
a circle
a straight line
an ellipse
59. One volt range on a 4½ digit digital multimeter can be read upto
1.0000 V
0.9999 V
1.999 V
1.9999 V
60. A signal of 10 m V at 75 MHz is to be measured. Which of the following instruments can be used?
Digital multimeter
cathode ray oscilloscope
Moving iron voltmeter
VTVM
61. In a Wein bridge oscillator, the frequency of oscillation
does not depend on capacitance
is directly proportional to capacitance
is inversely proportional to capacitance
is inversely proportional to square of capacitance
62. A permanent magnet is used in a telephone receiver
to avoid second harmonics
to provide large bandwidth
to amplify speech
to provide greater sensitivity
63. The velocity of electromagnetic waves in free space
decrease with increase of frequency
increases with increase of frequency
may decrease or increase with increase of frequency
is independent of frequency
64. Radio frequencies are of the range
20 kHz – 200 kHz
200 kHz – 20 MHz
3 MHz – 30 MHz
30 MHz – 3GHz
65. Microwave signal transmitted towards the sky are
unable to reach the ionosphere because of the strong absorption in the lower atmosphere.
strongly reflected by the ionosphere
transmitted by the ionosphere
strongly absorbed by the ionosphere.
66. It is required to match a 200 W load to a 300 W transmission line, to reduce the SWR along the line to 1. The characteristic impedance of the quarter wave transformer used for this purpose, if it is directly connected to the load, must be
2000 W
600 W
245 W
40 W
67. Two transmission lines P and Q are having SWRs equal to 1/5 and 7/5 respectively. It can be concluded that
both have identical SWR
Q is better than P
P has the higher SWR
is better than Q
68. For an AM wave having a power of 800 W at its carrier frequency and modulation index of 90 percent, the power content of each sideband is
162 W
262 W
300 W
400 W
69. An FM signal containing the sound intelligence of a television broadcast has a maximum frequency deviation of 50 kHz. The depth of modulation is
40 percent
60 percent
100 percent
None of these
70. For a satellite communication, the lower limit of frequency is
1 MHz
10 MHz
20 GHz
200 GHz
71. Most commercial satellite activity occurs in which band(s)?
S and P
X
C and Ku
L
72. Distribution of electric power from one place to another is done at high A.C. voltage because
It increases brightness of the light
Wastage of electricity is reduced
Stealing of electric wires is reduced
Electricity moves in a very short time
73. When a monochromatic light wave travels from one medium to another , its unchanged parameter is
wavelength
velocity
frequency
amplitude
74. The corrosion resistance of steel is increased by alloying its with which of the following?
Vanadium
Aluminum
Copper
Chromium
75. In an electric motor, magnetic noise is least
at no load
at full load
at full speed
at synchronous speed
76. In the amplifiers, transistor inter-junction capacitance causes which of the following?
Phase shift
Harmonic distortion
Noise
Parasitic oscillation
77. What will happen if A.C. is fed by mistake to a D.C. motor?
The motor will run at its normal speed.
The motor will run at a tower speed
The efficiency will be very poor
The motor will burn as the eddy current in the field produce heat
78. Two-value capacitor motor finds increased application as compressor motor in small home air-conditioners because
it is comparatively cheaper
it has almost non-destructible capacitor
it has low starting as well as running current as relatively high power factor
it is quiet in operation
79. A mica capacitor and a ceramic capacitor both have the same physical dimensions; which will have more value of capacitance?
Ceramic capacitor
Mica capacitor
Both will have identical value of capacitance
It depends on applied voltage
80. In case of a 3-phase wound-rotor induction motor, an increase in rotor resistance affects the motor performance in the following way
the motor efficiency decreases
the motor efficiency increases
starting current decreases
starting current increases
81. Which of the following is the unit of magnetic flux density
Waber
Lumens
Texla
Darof
82. A laminated iron core has reduced eddy-current losses because
more wire can be used with less D.C resistance in coil.
the laminations are insulated form each other
the magnetic flux is concentrated in the air gap of the core.
the laminations are stacked vertically.
83. The maximum value of torque that a synchronous motor can develop without losing its synchronism is known as
slip torque
pull out torque
braking torque
synchronizing torque
84. In a cable, the maximum stress under operating conditions is at:
insulation layer
sheath
armour
conductor surface

SECTION –II
GENERAL AWARENESS
85. Which of the following Vedas is the oldest?
Samveda
Yaju veda
Atharva veda
Rig veda
86. Who wrote Panchtantra?
Bhavbhuti
Vishnu Sharma
Kalidasa
Shri Harsha
87. Who was the last Guru of the Sikhs?
Guru Govind Singh
Guru Tegh Bahadur
Guru Nanak Dev
Guru Harkishan
88. Who said, “Man is a social animal.”
Aristotle
Rosseau
Plato
Laski
89. Which one of the following dynasties was ruling the time of Alexander’s invasion?
The Nanda Dynasty
The Maurya Dynasty
The Kanva Dynasty
The Sunga Dynasty
90. The Census was introduced for the first time in India during the tenure of
Lord Cornwallis
Lord William Bentinck
Lord Rippon
Lord Clive
91. Who designed the National Flag of India?
Pingly Venkaiyya
Vallabh Bhai Patel
B.R. Ambedkar
Aurobindo Ghosh
92. From which of the following state does the Tropic of cancer not pass?
Rajasthan
Jharkhand
Tripura
Manipur
93. Which among the following is the smallest state area-wise?
Nagaland
Mizoram
Meghalaya
Manipur
94. As per Census 2001, which one of the following states recorded the lowest growth rates of population during the period of 1991 to 2001.
Andhra Pradesh
Karnataka
Kerala
Tamil Nadu
95. Which of the following rivers does not form a delta?
Ganges
Narmada
Mandavi
Mahanadi
96. The weight of an object will be minimum when it is placed at:
The North Pole
The South Pole
The Equator
The Center of the Earth
97. Which one of the following is a land-locked country?
Cambodia
Thailand
Vietnam
Laos
98. Earthquake travels fastest in-
Soil
Molten Rock
Water
Flexible Rock
99. Joint sitting of both the houses of Indian Parliament is presided over by
The President of India
The Speaker of Lok Sabha
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
The Prime Minister
100. To who is the Council of Ministers collectively responsible?
The President
The Prime Minister
The Lok Sabha
The Rajya Sabha
101. The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of:
only the elected members of both Houses of Parliament
only Rajya Sabha members
all members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies
all members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
102. Centre-State financial distribution takes place following the recommendations made by the
Inter-State Council
Finance Commission
Planning Commission
Parliament
103. Sellers market denotes a situation where –
Commodities are available at competitive rates
Demand exceeds supply
Supply exceeds demand
Supply and demand are equal
104. Development means economic growth plus –
Inflation
Deflation
Price Stability
Social change
105. Which of the following ports of India has a free trade zone?
Cochin
Mumbai
Kandla
Diu
106. Dual pricing implies –
Wholesale price and Retail price
Pricing of agents and Pricing of retailer
Price fixed by Government and Price in the open market
Daily prices and Weekly prices
107. ‘Sudden Death’ rule is associated with:
Wrestling
Hockey
Water Polo
Football
108. Galvanised Iron sheets have a coating of –
Tin
Lead
Zinc
Chromium
109. The Principle on which a Jet Engine is base is:
Theory of Angular Momentum
Newton’s third Law
Theory of Friction
Theory of Kinetic Energy
110. The different colours of different stars are due to the variations in -
temperature
pressure
density
radiation from them
111. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through
glass
vacuum
air
water
112. Which of the following tennis tournaments is played on Clay court?
Australian Open
French Open
Wimbledon
U.S. open
113. The instrument that measures and record the purity of milk is called:
Hydrometer
Hygrometer
Lactometer
Barometer
114. At which part of the tongue are the taste buds for sweet taste located?
Tip
Back
Sides
Middle
115. Stem cuttings are commonly used for re-growing –
Cotton
Banana
Jute
Sugar Cane
116. Which one of the following human nutrients plays an important role in the coagulation of blood?
Calcium
Iron
Potassium
Sodium
117. Which of the following is known as first line defense for the body?
Antibodies
WBC
Nails
Skin
118. In the case of a test tube baby
Fertilisation takes place inside the test tube
Development of the baby takes place inside the test tube
Fertilization takes place outside the mother’s body
Unfertilized egg develops inside the test tube
119. Which of the following cell organelles is the site for Protein synthesis?
Ribosome
Mitochondria
Chloroplast
Golgi Complex

VERBAL ABILTY

In questions 120-123, the word which is opposite in meaning to the word given on the top is:
SPURIOUS
genuine
angry
glorious
antique
  #3  
18th March 2015, 09:20 AM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Re: Exam Paper Management Trainee at Bharat Dynamics Limited

Hey, I want to get the sample paper for Management Trainee exam of the Bharat Dynamics Limited as I want to appear in exam and looking for sample paper while preparation ?
  #4  
18th March 2015, 12:40 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Exam Paper Management Trainee at Bharat Dynamics Limited

As you want I am here providing you sample paper of the the Bharat Dynamics Limited for Management Trainee exam.

Sample paper :

1. Which of the following is not a rabi crop?
(a) Wheat
(b) Barley
(c) Jute
(d) Rapeseed
Ans. (c)
2. Blue Revolution is associated with
(a) Fish
(b) Milk
(c) flower
(d) Litmus
Ans. (a)
3. Study the following features of farming in India:
1. The farmers voluntarily pool their land together cultivation.
2. They divide the produce in proportion to the land pooled.
3. They forego their proprietary rights in the land.
4. They cannot withdraw their land from the pool after due notice and paying for the improvements.
Which of these features belong to cooperative farming?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
4. Which of the following states is the main producer of Tendu Leaves?
(a) Orissa
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (b)
5. The largest food crop of India is
(a) wheat
(b) rice
(c) maize
(d) gram
Ans. (b)
6. The maximum edible oil in India is produced from
(a) Rapeseed and mustard
(b) Til
(c) Sunflower
(d) Groundnut
Ans. (d)
7. Tobacco cultivated in Gujarat is mostly used for the manufacture of
(a) beedi
(b) cigarette
(c) zarda
(d) snuff powder
Ans. (a)
8. India is the largest producer of
(a) tobacco
(b) sugar
(c) tea
(d) rice
Ans. (c)
9. Rubber plantations are located mostly in
(a) Kerala and Karnataka
(b) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(c) Maharashtra and Kerala
(4) West Bengal and Kerala
Ans. (a)
10. Food grain production of India in million tones is nearest to the figure of
(a) 120
(b) 150
(c) 200
(d) 280
Ans. (c)
11. Self sufficiency in food, in the true sense of freedom from hunger, has not been achieved in India inspite of a more than three-fold rise in food grains production over 1950-1990. Which of the following are reason for it?
1. The Green Revolution has been restricted to small pockets of the country.
2. The cost of food is too high compared to the earnings of the poor.
3. Too much emphasis is laid on what and paddy compared to the coarse grains.
4. The gains of the green revolution have largely accrued to the cash crop rather than food crops.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) l, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
12. The state which is known as the ‘Granary of India’ is
(a) Kerala
(b) U.P
(c) Haryana
(d) Punjab
Ans. (d)
13. Which of the following states is the Leading producer of tobacco?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (c)
14. Which of the following is the most important cash crop of West Bengal?
(a) Tea
(b) Jute
(c) Arecanut
(d) Coffee
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
15. Sowing season for kharif crop is
(a) February-March
(b) June -July
(c) August –September
(d) October -December
Ans. (b)
16. Which one of the following crop combinations is characteristic of the upper Bhramaputra Valley?
(a) Rice, Jute, Oilseeds
(b) Rice, Pulses, Oilseeds
(c) Rice, Tea, Oilseeds
(d) Tea, Gram, Jute
Ans. (c)
17. Which irrigation canal irrigates the portion of Thar Desert?
(a) Indira Gandhi canal
(b) Nangal canal
(c) Western Yamuna canal
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
18. Which region in India is known as the ‘Rice Bowl of India’?
(a) North-east region
(b) Indo Gangetic plain
(c) Krishna -Godavari delta
(d) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
Ans. (c)
19. The highest milk producing breed of goat in India is
(a) Barbari
(b) Beetal
(c) Jamnapari
(d) Black Bengal
Ans. (b)
20. Which state produces maximum wheat in the country?
(a) Punjab
(b) U.P
(c) M.P
(d) Rajasthan
Ans. (b)
21. Which one of the following is not a part of the green revolution strategy?
(a) Irrigation
(b) Fertilizer
(c) High yielding varieties of seeds
(d) Crop insurance
Ans. (d)
22. Which of the following is not a rabi crop?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Linseed
(d) Barley
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following states ranks first in the production of cotton in the country?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) West Bengal
(c Punjab
(d) Gujarat
Ans. (d)
24. In India, the greatest variety of flowers is found in
(a) Assam
(b) Kerala
(c) U.P. hills
(d) Sikkim
Ans. (d)
25. Bangladesh has become a leading competitor of India in the world in the field of
(a) cotton
(b) jute
(c) tea
(d) rice
Ans. (b)
26. Which of the following is the largest livestock ( in number) in India?
(a) Sheep
(b) Goats
(c) Buffaloes
(d) Horses and Ponies
Ans. (b)
27. Which of the following are true regarding Jhum cultivation in India?
1. It is largely practised in Assam
2 It is referred to as ‘slash and burn’ technique
3 in it, the fertility is exhausted in a few years
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) l and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (a)
28. The most widely consumed cereal in India is
(a) barley
(b) wheat
(c) rice
(d) sorghum
Ans. (c)
29. Terrace farming is widely practised in
(a) Malabar coast
(b) Mountain areas
(c) Deserts
(d) Deccan plateau
Ans. (b)
30. Which of the following oilseed crops is grown most extensively in India?
(a) Mustard
(b) Linseed
(c) Sunflower
(d) Groundnut
Ans. (d)
31. Which of the following canals is not used for irrigation?
(a) Indira Gandhi Canal
(b) Buckingham Canal
(c) Western Yamuna Canal
(d) Upper Ganga Canal
Ans. (b)
32. In India, what percentage of area is covered by wheat growing regions?
(a) 10%
(b) 13.5%
(c) l7.8%
(d) 19.5%
Ans. (b)
33. The density of cattle population per 100 hectares of gross cropped area is the highest in
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Haryana
Ans. (d)
34 The maximum density of canals lies in which of the following states?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (d)
35. Kerala is famous for the cultivation of
1. Coconut
2.Black pepper
3, Rubber
4. Groundnut
(a) l, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 ant 4
(c) l and 4
(d) l, 2, and 3
Ans. (d)
36. In the Northern Plains of India, rice is the main crop from Bengal to eastern Uttar Pradesh, whereas in western Uttar Pradesh, Haryana and Punjab, wheat is the main produce. This is because
(a) in the eastern region, fine clayey soil is avail able
(b) the western region remains cold during the winter season.
(c) the average rainfall decreases towards the west.
(d) the cultivation of rice requires cheap labour force
Ans. (b)
37. Jute is grown on a large scale in the delta of
(a) Ganges
(b) Sutlej
(c) Damodar
(d) Indus
Ans. (c)
38. Indian farmers insurance against crop failure is the process of one of the major methods of risk coverage by Indian farmers in
(a) Dry farming
(b) Share cropping
(c) Mixed cropping
(d) Relay cropping
Ans. (c)
39. Consider the following statements:
I. The Green Revolution has been limited in its spatial coverage in India.
II. It has been confined mainly to Punjab, Haryana and western UttarPradesh.
Of these statements,
(a) both I and II are true.
(b) I is true but II is false.
(c) Both I and II are false.
(d) I is false but II is true.
Ans. (b)
40. India has attained self sufficiency in the production of
(a) coal
(b) iron
(c) nickel
(d) manganese
Ans. (d)
  #5  
4th October 2021, 09:05 PM
0111IT201030
Guest
 
Regarding branch change

Through the column of your information I have changed my b tech branch from information technology to civil engineering. But in present my student profile shows IT branch. So I asked how many days take to change my profile from IT to civil branch.
Enrollment n 0111IT201030


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