RBI Grade B Officers Exam sample paper

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RBI Grade B Officers Exam sample paper
GENERAL AWARENESS
Q.1. The purchasing power of Rupee strengthened against dollar in recent past because –––
(1) the interest rates in India are among the highest in the world
(2) there has been a strong flow of foreign direct investment into India
(3) there has been steady growth of Indian exports
(4) weakening of US currency because of poor economic recovery in US
(5) All those given as options
Q.2. The Tata group of Industries has taken over which of the following internet service providers ?
(1) MTNL (2) Roltanet (3) VSNL (4) Satyam Online (5) Other than those given as options
Q.3. To combat the menace of money laundering, which of the following financial institutions has
introduced the ‘Know Your Customer’ Scheme ?
(1) IDBI (2) RBI (3) NABARD (4) SIDBI (5) Other than those given as options
Q.4. As per present norms, the Mergers and Acquisitions in the corporate sector need a clearance
from which of the following in addition to RBI etc. ?
(A) High Courts of the respective states
(B) Union Cabinet
(C) Cabinet of respective states
(1) A & B both (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) Only A (5) Other than those given as options
Q.5. Which of the following person – sport combination is incorrect ?
(1) Yasin Merchant – Snooker (2) Baichung Bhutia – Football
(3) Narain Karthikeyan – Racing (4) Gagan Ajit Singh – Athletics
(5) Other than those given as options
Q.6. A contract which represents the obligation to buy or sell at a specified date in the future is known
as –––––
(1) Options (2) Forward contracts (3) Futures
(4) Swap (5) Other than those given as options
Q.7. A foreign tourist wants to visit India’s famous forts. Which of the following group of cities will
you suggest him to visit ?
(1) Nainital, Manali & Shimla (2) Panaji, Thiruvanthapuram & Daman
(3) Puri, Kolkata & New Delhi (4) Agra, Jaipur & Gwalior
(5) Other than those given as options
Q.8. Which of the following is NOT the part of Export-Import policy 2002–2007 of India ?
(1) Annual Advance Licence facility is extended for deemed exports.
(2) Validity of duty free replenishment certificate scheme extended from 12 to 18 months.
(3) Second hand capital goods which are less than 10 years old are allowed to be imported
without obtaining licence.
(4) Special Exports Economic Zones (SEZs) developers will not be given any special status
now under Income Tax Act. The act is to bring SEZs at par with other business activities.
(5) Exporters are not allowed to carry gems and jewellery of an amount more than 2 million
US $ for overseas exhibitions.
TEST II : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
This is a test to see how well you know English. Your English language ability would be tested through
questions on grammar, vocabulary, sentence completion, synonyms, antonyms, comprehension of a passage
etc. Study and answer the sample questions given below :
Q.1-3. Directions : Pick out the most appropriate word from amongst the words given below each sentence
to complete it meaningfully.
Q.1. He quickly glanced .............................. the book to find what it said about the Indian economy.
(1) at (2) through (3) in (4) to (5) over
Q.2. The counsel urged the court to ........................... down the obnoxious law.
(1) enact (2) enforce (3) cancel (4) strike (5) declare
Q.3. The local official ........................... the Minister of the situation.
(1) explained (2) warned (3) apprised (4) told (5) intimated
Q.4-6. Directions : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part of the sentence is your
answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘5’.
Q.4. I am twenty / two years old / when I first / joined the bank. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Q.5. To the Hindus / the Ganges is / holier than / any other river. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Q.6. Of all the teachers / in our school / our class teacher / were very strict. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
In addition, there will be questions based on passage, to test your comprehension.
TEST III : QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
This test is designed to measure how fast and accurate you are in dealing with numbers, viz. computation,
quantitative reasoning, interpretation of tables and graphs.
Q.1-2. Directions : In each of the following questions, a number is missing which is indicated by a
question mark. Your task is to find out what will come in place of the question mark (?).
Q.1. 42 + 73 + 137 = ?
(1) 352 (2) 252 (3) 242 (4) 142 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.2. 20 ×
1
2
= ?
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 12 (4) 20 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.3. At 10 paise each, how many paise will 6 lemons cost ?
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 60 (4) 61 (5) 610
Q.4. Which of the following can be exact multiple of 4 ?
(1) 27114 (2) 58204 (3) 48402 (4) 32286 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.5. If the profit made by selling a pen for Rs.10 is as much as its cost, what is the cost price of the
pen ?
(1) Rs.3/- (2) Rs.5/- (3) Rs.10/- (4) Rs.20/- (5) Other than those given as options
Also, there may be some questions based on graphs and tables.
Q.6-8. Directions : Given below is a table showing percentages out of a total of 700 employees ranking
six attributes that help promotion. Rank I is the highest. Study the table carefully and answer
questions that follow :
Attribute % of Employees Giving Different Ranks
I II III IV V VI
Seniority 32 17 22 19 5 5
Perseverance 14 19 17 9 27 14
Efficiency 15 19 21 14 14 17
Intelligence 10 14 10 14 17 35
Honesty 24 17 7 9 27 16
Sociability 5 14 23 35 10 13
Q.6. Which attribute for promotion has received the highest rank ?
(1) Perseverance (2) Seniority (3) Honesty (4) Sociability (5) Efficiency
Q.7. How many employees gave Rank III to intelligence ?
(1) 119 (2) 98 (3) 77 (4) 70 (5) 10
Q.8. Which attribute is considered the least important for promotion ?
(1) Honesty (2) Intelligence (3) Perseverance (4) Efficiency (5) Sociability
TEST IV : REASONING
This is a test to see how well you can think. It contains questions of various kinds. Here are some sample
questions.
Q.1-3. Directions : In each of the following questions, there are five words in each question. Four of
these words are alike in some way while one is different. Find the one which is different.
Q.1. (1) black (2) red (3) green (4) paint (5) yellow
Q.2. (1) Flower (2) Tree (3) Vegetable (4) Fruit (5) Garden
Q.3. (1) Mango (2) Apple (3) Orange (4) Guava (5) Rose
Q.4-5. Directions : In each of the following questions, there is a question mark in which only one of the
five alternatives given under the question satisfies the same relationship as is found between the
two terms to the left of the sign :: given in the question. Find the correct answer.
Q.4. Foot : Man : : Hoof : ?
(1) Leg (2) Dog (3) Horse (4) Boy (5) Shoe
Q.5. Day : Night : : Kind : ?
(1) Dark (2) Bright (3) Cruel (4) Generous (5) Gratitude
Q.6. Some leaders are dishonest. Satyapriya is a leader. Which of the following inferences
definitely follows from these two statements ?
(1) Satyapriya is honest (2) Satyapriya is dishonest
(3) Some leaders are honest (4) Leaders are generally dishonest
(5) Satyapriya is sometimes dishonest
(A) Details of the On-line Examination Pattern
(1) The examination would be conducted on-line i.e. on a computer.
(2) All tests except of English will be in English and Hindi.
(3) All the questions will have multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one will be the
correct answer. The candidate has to select the most appropriate answer and ‘mouse click’
that alternative which he/ she feels is appropriate/ correct. The alternative/ option that is clicked
on will be treated as the answer to that question. Answer to any question will be considered
for final evaluation, only when candidates have submitted the answers by clicking on “Save &
Next” or “Mark for Review & Next”.
(4) The clock has been set at the server and the countdown timer at the top right corner of your screen
will display the time remaining for you to complete the exam. When the clock runs out the exam ends
by default - you are not required to end or submit your exam.
(5) The question palette at the right of the screen shows one of the following statuses of each of the
questions numbered:
You have not visited the question yet.
You have not answered the question.
You have answered the question.
You have NOT answered the question but have marked the question for review.
You have answered the question but marked it for review.
The Marked for Review status simply acts as a reminder that you have set to look at the question
again. If an answer is selected for a question that is Marked for Review, the answer will be considered
in the final evaluation.
(6) To select a question to answer, you can do one of the following :
(a) Click on the question number on the question palette at the right of your screen to go to that
numbered question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer to the
current question.
(b) Click on ‘Save & Next’ to save answer to current question and to go to the next question in
sequence.
(c) Click on ‘Mark for Review and Next’ to save answer to current question, mark it for review,
and to go to the next question in sequence.
(7) You can view the entire paper by clicking on the Question Paper button.
(8) To select your answer, click on one of the option buttons.
(9) To change your answer, click another desired option button.
(10) To save your answer, you MUST click on Save & Next.
(11) To deselect a chosen answer, click on the chosen option again or click on the Clear Response
button.
(12) To mark a question for review click on Mark for Review & Next. If an answer is selected for a
question that is Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in the final evaluation.
(13) To change an answer to a question, first select the question and then click on the new answer option
followed by a click on the Save & Next button.
(14) Questions that are saved or marked for review after answering will ONLY be considered for
evaluation.
(15) Sections will be displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a section can be viewed by
clicking on the section name. The section you will view will be highlighted.
(16) After clicking the Save & Next button on the last question for a section, you will automatically be
taken to the first question of the next section.
(17) You can move the mouse cursor over the section names to view the status of the questions for that
section.
(18) You can shuffle between sections and questions anytime during the examination as per your
convenience.
(19) The candidates are requested to follow the instructions of the “Test Administrator” carefully. If any
candidate does not follow the instructions / rules, it would be treated as a case of misconduct/ adoption
of unfair means and such a candidate would be liable for debarment from appearing for examinations
for a period as decided by the Board.
(20) Candidates may ask the Test Administrator about their doubts or questions only before the
commencement of the test. No query shall be entertained after the commencement of the examination.
(21) After the expiry of 130 minutes, the candidates will not be able to attempt any question or check their
answers. The answers of the candidate would be saved automatically by the computer system even
if he/ she has not clicked the “Submit” button.
(22) Please note :
(a) Candidates will not be allowed to “finally submit” unless they have exhausted the actual
test time.
(b) Under no circumstances should a candidate click on any of the ‘keyboard keys’ once
the exam starts as this will lock the exam.
B] General Instructions:
(1) Please note your Roll Number, Password, date, time and venue address of the examination
given in the Admission Letter.
(2) You may visit the venue one day before the Online Examination to confirm the location so that
you are able to report on time on the day of the examination.
(3) The Admission Letter should be brought with you to the examination venue along with your
recent passport size photograph duly pasted on it. (Preferably the same photograph as was
uploaded).
(4) You must scrupulously follow the instructions of the Test Administrator and Board Representative
at the examination venue. If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified and will be asked
to leave the examination venue.
(5) No use of calculators (separate or with watch), books, note books or written notes, cell phones
(with or without camera facility), or any other electronic device will be allowed during the
examination.
(6) Please bring the Admission Letter with your photograph affixed thereon, currently valid Photo
identity proof in original and a photocopy of the same ID proof which you bring in original - THIS
IS ESSENTIAL. Please hand over the Admission Letter alongwith photocopy of photo identity
proof duly stapled together to the invigilator. Currently valid photo identity proof may be PAN
Card/Passport/Driving Licence/Voter’s Card/Bank Passbook with photograph/Photo Identity proof
issued by a Gazetted Officer on official letterhead /Photo Identity proof issued by a People’s
Representative on official letterhead/Valid recent Identity Card issued by a recognised College/
University/Aadhar Card with a photograph/Employee ID/Bar Council Identity card with photograph.
Please note that your name as appearing on the Admission Letter (provided by you during the
process of registration) should exactly match the name as appearing on the photo identity proof.
Female candidates who have changed first/last/middle name post marriage must take special
note of this. If there is any mismatch between the name indicated in the Admission Letter and
Photo Identity Proof you will not be allowed to appear for the exam.
(7) Your responses (answers) will be analysed with other candidates to detect patterns of similarity
of right and wrong answers. If in the analytical procedure adopted in this regard, it is inferred/
concluded that the responses have been shared and scores obtained are not genuine/valid, your
candidature may be cancelled. Any candidate who is found copying or receiving or giving
assistance or engaging in any behaviour unbecoming of a candidate will not be considered for
assessment. The Board may take further action against such candidates as deemed fit by it.
(8) You should bring with you a ball-point pen. A sheet of paper will be provided which can be used
for rough work or taking down the question number you would like to review at the end of the test
before submitting your answers. After the test is over you MUST hand over this sheet of paper to
the Test Administrator before leaving the venue.
(9) A candidate who is or has been declared by the Board guilty of impersonation or of submitting
fabricated document/s which have been tampered with or of making statements which are
incorrect or false or of suppressing material information or otherwise resorting to any other
irregular or improper means of obtaining admission to examination or of using or attempting to
use unfair means in the examination hall or misbehavior in the examination hall may be debarred
permanently or for a specified period -
i) By the Board from admission to any examination or appearance at any interview held by
the Board for selection of the candidates, and
ii) By the Bank from employment under it, and
iii) If already in the service of the Bank, be liable to disciplinary action under the appropriate
rules.
(10) Note for Person with Disability (PWD):
(i) The additional/compensatory time of twenty (20) minutes for every hour of examination
may be allowed to only those candidates with disabilities who have physical
limitation to write including that of speed and who use the facility of a scribe.
However, the additional/compensatory time of twenty (20) minutes for every hour
of examination will be allowed to all the Visually Impaired PWD candidates,
regardless of whether they opt for scribe or self-writing or with the help of assistive
devices like magnifier.
(ii) Visually Impaired candidates under Blind/Low Vision, who use scribe may skip the nonverbal
questions, if any, in Test of Reasoning and questions on Table/Graph, if any, in the
Test of Quantitative Aptitude. The candidates will be awarded marks for such Section
based on the overall average obtained in other Section of the respective test.
(iii) The PWD candidates, who want to use facility of scribe, MUST download and carefully
READ the instructions meant for them, which can also be downloaded from RBI website.
(iv) These candidates are also required to submit a Joint Undertaking/Declaration form that
can be downloaded from RBI website.
(11) The possibility for occurrences of some problem in the administration of the examination cannot
be ruled out completely which may impact test delivery and/or result from being generated. In
that event, every effort will be made to rectify such problem, which may include the conduct of
another examination if considered necessary. Decision of the test conducting body in this regard
shall be final. Candidates not willing to accept such change shall loose his/her candidature for
this exam.
(12) If the examination is held in more than one session, the scores across various sessions will be
equated to adjust for slight differences in difficulty level of different test batteries used across
sessions. More than one session are required if the nodes capacity is less or some technical
disruption takes place at any centre or for any candidate.
(13) Please note that a candidate is allowed to appear only once in the online examination. Multiple
appearance in online examination will result in cancellation of candidature. In case more than
one Admission Letter has been generated, candidates are advised to appear only once at the
time mentioned on the respective Admission Letter. All other Admission Letters (for that post) are
to be surrendered.
(14) Anyone found to be disclosing, publishing, reproducing, transmitting, storing or facilitating
transmission and storage of test contents in any form or any information therein in whole or part
thereof or by any means verbal or written, electronic or mechanical or taking away the papers
supplied in the examination hall or found to be in unauthorised possession of test content is likely
to be prosecuted.
IMPORTANT POINTS TO REMEMBER
You are advised to bring with you the following:
(i) Admission Letter with photo affixed thereon and photo ID card in Original and photocopy as
mentioned in point 6.
(ii) One ball point pen.
WISH YOU GOOD LUCK
PHASE II
Descriptive Type Test
The Phase II Examination will be conducted only for those candidates who are shortlisted for Phase I
(Objective Type Test) tentatively in September 2014. The date and Time-table will be intimated to the
candidates concerned. The Examination will consist of three Descriptive Type papers – (1) Paper I – English
(2) Paper II– Economic and Social Issues and (3) Paper III – Finance and Management. Each of these
papers is of 3 hours duration carrying 100 marks.
NOTE : Answers to questions in Paper I in Phase II must be written in English.
For Papers II and III of Phase II, answers may be written either in English or in Hindi at the candidate’s
option. However, all the questions in the paper should be answered only in the language so chosen. Answer
books written partly in English and partly in Hindi will not be evaluated
Syllabus for Paper I – English : Essay, Precis writing, Comprehension, Business/Office Correspondence.
Syllabus for Paper II – Economic and Social Issues : Growth and Development – Measurement of
Growth : National Income and Per Capita Income – Poverty Alleviation and Employment Generation in India
– Sustainable Development and Environmental issues. Economic Reforms in India – Industrial and Labour
Policy – Monetary and Fiscal Policy – Privatisation – Role of Economic Planning. Globalisation – Opening
up of the Indian Economy – Balance of Payments, Export-Import Policy – International Economic Institutions
– IMF and World Bank – WTO – Regional Economic Co-operation. Social Structure in India – Multiculturalism
– Demographic Trends – Urbanisation and Migration – Gender Issues – Social Justice : Positive Discrimination
in Favour of the Under Privileged – Social Movements – Indian Political System – Human Development –
Social Sectors in India, Health and Education.
Syllabus for Paper III – Finance and Management : Finance : The Union Budget – Direct and Indirect
Taxes; Non-tax Sources of Revenue; Outlays; New Measures; Financial Sector Reforms; Capital Market,
Money Market and Foreign Exchange Market, Stock Exchanges and their Regulation; Capital Market
Intermediaries and their Regulation; Role of SEBI; Functions of the Money Market; Growth and Operation of
the Money Market; The Foreign Exchange Market; From FERA to FEMA; Exchange Rate Management;
Exchange Risk Management, Role of Banks and Financial Institutions in Economic Development; Regulation
of Banks and Financial Institutions; Disinvestment in Public Sector Units.
Management : Management, its Nature and Scope; The Management Processes, Planning, Organisation,
Staffing, Directing and Controlling; The Role of a Manager in an Organisation, Leadership; The Tasks of a
Leader, Leadership Styles; Leadership Theories; A Successful Leader versus an Effective Leader, Human
Resource Development; Concept of HRD, Goals of HRD, Performance Appraisal – Potential Appraisal and
Development – Feedback and Performance Counselling – Career Planning – Training and Development –
Rewards – Employee Welfare, Motivation, Morale and Incentives; Theories of Motivation : How Managers
Motivate; Concept of Morale; Factors Determining Morale; Role of Incentives in Building up Morale.
Communication : Steps in the Communication Process; Communication Channels; Oral versus written
Communication; Verbal versus Non-verbal Communication; Upward, Downward and Lateral Communication;
Barriers to Communication, Role of Information Technology, Corporate Governance; Factors affecting
Corporate Governance; Mechanisms of Corporate Governance.

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RBI Grade B Officers Exam sample paper

Q.1. The purchasing power of Rupee strengthened against dollar in recent past because –––
(1) the interest rates in India are among the highest in the world
(2) there has been a strong flow of foreign direct investment into India
(3) there has been steady growth of Indian exports
(4) weakening of US currency because of poor economic recovery in US
(5) All those given as options
Q.2. The Tata group of Industries has taken over which of the following internet service providers ?
(1) MTNL (2) Roltanet (3) VSNL (4) Satyam Online (5) Other than those given as options
Q.3. To combat the menace of money laundering, which of the following financial institutions has
introduced the ‘Know Your Customer’ Scheme ?
(1) IDBI (2) RBI (3) NABARD (4) SIDBI (5) Other than those given as options
Q.4. As per present norms, the Mergers and Acquisitions in the corporate sector need a clearance
from which of the following in addition to RBI etc. ?
(A) High Courts of the respective states
(B) Union Cabinet
(C) Cabinet of respective states
(1) A & B both (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) Only A (5) Other than those given as options
Q.5. Which of the following person – sport combination is incorrect ?
(1) Yasin Merchant – Snooker (2) Baichung Bhutia – Football
(3) Narain Karthikeyan – Racing (4) Gagan Ajit Singh – Athletics
(5) Other than those given as options
Q.6. A contract which represents the obligation to buy or sell at a specified date in the future is known
as –––––
(1) Options (2) Forward contracts (3) Futures
(4) Swap (5) Other than those given as options
Q.7. A foreign tourist wants to visit India’s famous forts. Which of the following group of cities will
you suggest him to visit ?
(1) Nainital, Manali & Shimla (2) Panaji, Thiruvanthapuram & Daman
(3) Puri, Kolkata & New Delhi (4) Agra, Jaipur & Gwalior
(5) Other than those given as options
Q.8. Which of the following is NOT the part of Export-Import policy 2002–2007 of India ?
(1) Annual Advance Licence facility is extended for deemed exports.
(2) Validity of duty free replenishment certificate scheme extended from 12 to 18 months.
(3) Second hand capital goods which are less than 10 years old are allowed to be imported
without obtaining licence.
(4) Special Exports Economic Zones (SEZs) developers will not be given any special status
now under Income Tax Act. The act is to bring SEZs at par with other business activities.
(5) Exporters are not allowed to carry gems and jewellery of an amount more than 2 million
US $ for overseas exhibitions.

TEST II : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
This is a test to see how well you know English. Your English language ability would be tested through
questions on grammar, vocabulary, sentence completion, synonyms, antonyms, comprehension of a passage
etc. Study and answer the sample questions given below :
Q.1-3. Directions : Pick out the most appropriate word from amongst the words given below each sentence
to complete it meaningfully.
Q.1. He quickly glanced .............................. the book to find what it said about the Indian economy.
(1) at (2) through (3) in (4) to (5) over
Q.2. The counsel urged the court to ........................... down the obnoxious law.
(1) enact (2) enforce (3) cancel (4) strike (5) declare
Q.3. The local official ........................... the Minister of the situation.
(1) explained (2) warned (3) apprised (4) told (5) intimated
Q.4-6. Directions : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part of the sentence is your
answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘5’.
Q.4. I am twenty / two years old / when I first / joined the bank. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Q.5. To the Hindus / the Ganges is / holier than / any other river. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Q.6. Of all the teachers / in our school / our class teacher / were very strict. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
In addition, there will be questions based on passage, to test your comprehension.

TEST III : QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
This test is designed to measure how fast and accurate you are in dealing with numbers, viz. computation,
quantitative reasoning, interpretation of tables and graphs.
Q.1-2. Directions : In each of the following questions, a number is missing which is indicated by a
question mark. Your task is to find out what will come in place of the question mark (?).
Q.1. 42 + 73 + 137 = ?
(1) 352 (2) 252 (3) 242 (4) 142 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.2. 20 ×
1
2
= ?
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 12 (4) 20 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.3. At 10 paise each, how many paise will 6 lemons cost ?
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 60 (4) 61 (5) 610
Q.4. Which of the following can be exact multiple of 4 ?
(1) 27114 (2) 58204 (3) 48402 (4) 32286 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.5. If the profit made by selling a pen for Rs.10 is as much as its cost, what is the cost price of the
pen ?
(1) Rs.3/- (2) Rs.5/- (3) Rs.10/- (4) Rs.20/- (5) Other than those given as options



RBI Exam Pattern

Objective Test No. of Questions Marks
General Awareness 80 80
English language 30 30
Quantities Aptitude 30 30
Reasoning 60 60

Phase 2 Exam Pattern

Descriptive Type

Paper 1 English 100 Marks
Paper 2 Economic 100 Marks
Paper 3 Finance and Management 100 Marks