RBI Grade B Exam Question Papers

I am looking for syllabus and previous year’s question papers of RBI Grade B Exam so please provide me the same?

[Kiran Chandar]

Here I am providing you syllabus and previous year’s question papers of RBI Grade B Exam.

Syllabus for RBI Officer Grade B Exam:
Phase-I: Online Examination
The examination will be conducted for 200 marks and it will be in objective type. The duration of exam is 130 minutes.The paper consists of:
• General Awareness
• English Language
• Quantitative Aptitude
• Reasoning
Phase-II: Descriptive Type
The second phase of selection will be descriptive written examination. There Phase II written examination consists of three papers. Each paper is of 3 hours and each paper consists of 100 marks.
Paper-I: English
Paper-II: Economic and Social issues
Paper-III: Finance & Management
Paper-I: English
• Essay
• Precis Writing
• comprehension & Business/office correspondence
Paper-II: Economic and Social issues
• Growth and Development
• Measurement of growth
• National Income and per capital income
• Poverty Alleviation and Employment Generation in India
• Sustainable Development and Environmental issues.
• Economic Reforms in India
• Industrial and Labor Policy
• Monetary and Fiscal Policy
• Privatization
• Role of Economic Planning.
• Globalization
• Opening up of the Indian Economy
• Balance of Payment
• Export-Import Policy
• International Economic Institutions
• IMF and World Bank
• WTO – Regional Economic Co-operation.
• Social Structure in India
• Multiculturalism
• Demographic Trends
• Urbanization and Migration
• Gender Issues
• Social Justice : Positive Discrimination in favor of the under privileged
• Social Movements
• Indian Political System
• Human Development
• Social Sectors in India
• Health and Education
Paper-III: Finance & Management
Finance:
• The Union Budget – Direct and Indirect taxes;
• Non-tax sources of revenue
• Outlays
• New Measures
• Financial Sector
• Reforms
• Capital Market
• Money Market and Foreign Exchange Market
• Stock Exchanges and their Regulation
• Capital Market Intermediaries and their Regulation
• Role of SEBI
• Functions of the Money Market
• Growth and Operation of the Money Market
• The Foreign Exchange Market; From FERA to FEMA
• Exchange Rate Management
• Exchange Risk Management
• Role of Banks and Financial Institutions in Economic Development
• Regulation of Banks and Financial Institutions
• Dis investment in Public Sector Units.
Management:
• Management: its nature and scope
• The Management Processes
• The Role of a Manager in an Organisation.
• Leadership
• Human Resource Development
• Performance Appraisal
• Potential appraisal and development
• Feedback and Performance Counseling
• Career Planning
• Training and Development – Rewards
• Employee Welfare
• Morale and Incentives
• Theories of Motivation
• How Managers Motivate
• Concept of Morale
• Factors determining morale
• Role of Incentives in Building up Morale
• Communication
• Role of Information Technology
• Corporate Governance Factors affecting Corporate Governance
Previous Year’s Question Papers for RBI Officer Grade B Exam:

Q.1. In that sort of account, banks in all don’t compensate interest—
(A) Saving Account
(B) Current Account
(C) Fixed Deposit Account
(D) Interest is regularly upon credit in all sorts of account
Q.2. A bank station sequence would be befitting for paying—
(A) Telephone accounts
(B) Electricity accounts
(C) Grocery bills
(D) Mortgage repayments
Q.3. Payment of a coupon cannot be done upon a income opposite of bank if a coupon is—
(A) Bearer
(B) Cross
(C) Order
(D) All of these
Q.4. Which of a following is not Commercial Bank ?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) Canra Bank
(D) Oriental Bank of Commerce
Q.5. What is a Bank breeze ?
(A) Letter from a Bank
(B) Cheque that a bank draws upon itself
(C) Instraction to a landowner to pick up a customer’s debt
(D) Instruction not to honour a stop payment
Q.6. The necessary evil of whatever serves as income is that it must—
(A) Be released by a State
(B) Be in all acceptable
(C) Not be unconditionally fiduciary
(D) Have a little instrinsic value
Q.7. One of a following is not an e.g. of Near-Money, that ?
(A) Bill of Exchange
(B) Bonds as well as Debentures
(C) Equity shares of Ranbaxy Company Ltd.
(D) Treasury bills of a Government of India
Q.8. ‘Fiat Money’ is that that is—
(A) Accepted by abroad banks only
(B) Accepted during a moment in lieu of gold
(C) Backed by bullion or silver
(D) Decreed as income by a government
Q.9. Money is—
(A) Acceptable usually when it has unique value
(B) Constant in purchasing power
(C) The many glass of all assets
(D) All of a above
Q.10. Greshan’s law states that—
(A) Bad income promotes great income in a system
(B) Bad income drives great income out of circulation
(C) Good income drives bad income out of circulation
(D) Good income promotes bad income in a system
Q.11. Value of Money—
(A) Is eccentric of a cost level
(B) Is without delay associated to a cost level
(C) Is inversely associated to a cost level
(D) None of a above
Q.12. Demand lift acceleration can be caused by income factors including—
(A) A tumble in expenditure expenditure
(B) A pointy enlarge in unemployment
(C) A high rebate in approach taxation
(D) An enlarge in Income Tax
Q.13. The routine of deplation tends to favour—
(A) Debtor as well as Creditiors a like
(B) Debtor during a responsibility of Creditors
(C) Creditors during a responsibility of Debtors
(D) Profit receivers during a responsibility of bound income receivers
Q.14. Which of a following matter is not utterly loyal ?
(A) An enlarge in a supply of income will outcome in inflation
(B) Cost acceleration occurs when prices climb to cover increasing cause costs
(C) Inflation occurs when a worth of income declines
(D) Inflation will have a outcome of redistributing incomes inside of a country
Q.15. Which of a following people is many approaching to good from an inflationary incident ?
(A) A chairman who buys units from a Unit Trust
(B) A chairman who keeps his resources underneath a office building during home
(C) A chairman creates a vast in isolation loan to a friend
(D) A chairman who takes out a debt with a office building society
Q.16. The principal guilt of a Joint Stock Bank relates to—
(A) Its investment abroad
(B) Its investment during home
(C) Repayment of a customer’s deposits
(D) Its mandate to have special deposits when requested
Q.17. Which of a following is not a duty of a Commercial Banks ?
(A) Acting as a lender of final resort
(B) Lending to a in isolation as well as open sectors
(C) The sustenance of a coupon complement for environment debts
(D) The sustenance of protected deposition facilities
Q.18. When a Commercial Bank emanate credit areas that have been in outcome as well as
increases—
(A) The inhabitant debt
(B) The supply of money
(C) The purchasing energy of a rupee
(D) The genuine resources of a country
Q.19. A patron does not need a bank comment to obtain—
(A) A Loan
(B) A Cheque Card
(C) A Banker’s Draft
(D) An Overdraft
Q.20. Which of a following is not a guilt of Commercial Banks—
(A) Security Holdings
(B) Treasury deposition during banks
(C) Demand deposits as well as time deposits
(D) Borrowing from Central Bank
Q.21. ‘Not negotiable’ created upon a coupon channel means—
(A) The coupon cannot be paid to any a single though a payee
(B) The coupon is stream usually for remuneration of a contract for that it is done out
(C) An honest chairman reception a stolen coupon is probable to compensate off a legitimate owner
(D) The coupon contingency be paid in to a bank
Q.22. The Central Bank is not approaching to perform a duty of—
(A) Acting as a clearing house
(B) The landowner to a government
(C) Accepting deposition from Commercial Banks
(D) Accepting deposits from ubiquitous public
Q.23. Increase in bank rates in all is followed by—
(A) An enlarge in marketplace rate of interest
(B) A tumble in marketplace rates of interest
(C) A climb usually in a deposits rates though not a lending rates
(D) A climb usually in a lending rates
Q.24. The vital quantitative financial apparatus accessible with a Central Bank is—
(A) Retioning of credit
(B) Regulation of consumer credit
(C) Margin requirements
(D) Reserve comparative measure requirements
Q.25. Bank contingency exclude remuneration of a coupon where—
(A) Cheque is not dated
(B) Where coupon is stale, i.e. date has expired
(C) Payment has been stopped by customer
(D) The coupon is not presented during operative hours of Bank
Q.26. A ‘Stale’ coupon is a single that is—
(A) Over 6 months old
(B) Converning an owing payment
(C) Cancelled by a drawer
(D) Written upon an comment that is overdrawn
Q.27. When a Central Bank sells securities, as a result—
(A) The income resources during a ordering of a blurb banks increase
(B) The income resources of a blurb banks sojourn unchanged
(C) The income resources during a ordering of blurb banks get diminished
(D) None of a above
Q.28. When a coupon is returned by a bank noted ‘Refer to Drawer’ this equates to a drawer—
(A) Has educated a bank not to compensate a cheque
(B) Whishes to be contacted prior to a coupon is cashed
(C) Has improperly finished a coupon as well as contingency scold it prior to payment
(D) Had deficient supports in his comment to compensate a cheque
Q.29. The stream Bank Rate is—
(A) 6%
(B) 8%
(C) 9%
(D) 9·5%
Q.30. It has been done mandatory for Non-Banking Financing Companies to get themselves
purebred with … prior to Jul 8, 1997.
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) Government of India
(D) None of a above
Q.31. India ranks series … between a countries with a greatest expansion intensity in a universe
according to a ultimate inform of universe Economic Forum.
(A) Six
(B) Five
(C) Four
(D) Three
Q.32. Which is a ‘most rival country’ of a universe according to a ultimate inform of universe
Economic Forum ?
(A) Hong Kong
(B) Singapore
(C) United State of America
(D) Netherlands
Q.33. The extent slight extent of seductiveness upon post shipment rupee credit upon direct bills
for movement duration upto 90 days is—
(A) 13%
(B) 14%
(C) 15%
(D) 16%
Q.34. Which of a following matter is scold about India according to a World Bank’s ultimate
calculations ?
(A) India’s per capita inhabitant resources is $ 25000
(B) India’s per capita incomeis $ 360
(C) India’s per capita income (according to purchasing energy parity) is $ 2390
(D) All of a above
Q.35. Scheduled blurb banks available nonperforming resources (NPAs) of … during a finish of
Mar 2006-07 opposite 1·8% during 2005-06.
(A) 2·3%
(B) 3·3%
(C) 1·5%
(D) 7·9%
Q.36. Which of a following is not a apparatus in a hands of RBI to carry out a inflationary vigour
in a nation ?
(A) Bank Rate (BR)
(B) Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
(C) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
(D) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
Q.37. Which of a following is/are enclosed in Legal Tender Money in India ?
(A) Coins as well as banking notes
(B) Coins as well as bank drafts
(C) Currency records as well as SDRs
(D) Currency records released by RBI
Q.38. Which of a following is rightly matched?
(A) CRR upon FCNR (B) Scheme—12%
(B) Bank Rate—6%
(C) SLR upon NRE deposits—31·5%
(D) CRR upon NRE—13%
Q.39. India’s First Financial Archive has been set up at—
(A) Mumbai
(B) New Delhi
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Kolkata
Q.40. Which of a following Bank joined with Oriented Bank of Commerce ?
(A) New Bank of India
(B) Punjab Co-operative Bank
(C) Bari Doab Bank
(D) (B) as well as (C) both
Answers :
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15.
(D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (A) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (C) 28.
(D) 29. (A) 30. (A) 31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (D)


Q.1. Ultimately he viewed a honour he deserve.
(1) Gained a honour he deserve
(2) Received a honour he deserves
(3) Received a honour he deserved
(4) Bags a honour he deserve
(5) No improvement required
Ans. (3)Received a honour he deserved
Q.2. we am all conflicting in a matter of a little of a Managers.
(1) Totally dispute to the
(2) Absolutely dispute by the
(3) Totally conflicting to the
(4) Completely conflicting in the
(5) No improvement required
Ans. (3)Totally conflicting to the
Q.3. Gayatri incited down a pursuit suggest to house her friend.
(1) Job offering in accommodate
(2) Job offers for accommodate
(3) Job suggest to accommodating
(4) Job suggest in accommodate
(5) No improvement required
Ans. (5)No improvement required
Q.4. She was sensitive which everybody of them have been wakeful of a fact.
(1) Were wakeful of
(2) Are wakeful of
(3) Was wakeful of
(4) Is wakeful of
(5) No improvement required
Ans. (3)Was wakeful of
Q.5. She has being venturing in to areas which she had always avoided in a past.
(1) Has been venturing into
(2) Has venturing into
(3) Would venturing into
(4) Had venturing into
(5) No improvement required
Ans. (1)Has been venturing into
Directions (Qs. 6 to 10): Read any judgment to find out either there is any grammatical
blunder or vernacular blunder in it. The error, if any, will be in a single partial of a
sentence. The number of which partial will be your answer. If there is no blunder
(ignore errors of punctuation, if any), afterwards your answer will be (5).
Q.6. They never suspicion (1) / which Joshi is (2) / oldest than a alternative (3) /
Professors in a Faculty. (4) / No blunder (5)
Ans. (3)
Q.7. Taken in to care (1) / a recommendation of his (2) / colleagues he motionless (3) /
to stay in a Institute. (4) / No blunder (5)
Ans. (1)
Q.8. we am approaching hit (1) / we someday in (2) / subsequent week to (3) / plead
with we in detail. (4) / No blunder (5)
Ans. (1)
Q.9. The military has creation (1) / any bid to yield (2) / most suitable assistance as
well as (3) / courtesy to any citizen. (4) / No blunder (5)
Ans. (1)
Q.10. He cannot repel (1) / all his income (2) / unless he do not (3) / give allege notice.
(4) / No blunder (5)
Ans (3&4)
Directions (Qs. eleven to 25): Read a following thoroughfare to answer these questions
since subsequent it. Certain difference / phrases have been printed in confidant to
assistance we fix up them while answering a little of a questions : The self-murder
attacks by belligerent Palestinian groups murdering immeasurable numbers of Israeli
civilians as well as a oppressive Israeli response, have lifted a renewed hopes of assent
in a region. It is Arafat?s care as well as management which have been being
exceedingly tested in a idealisation proviso of a west Asian crisis.
By accusing a Palestinian Authority (PA) of ancillary terrorism by groups, Israel hopes
to put vigour upon Arafat to act. Arafat, upon a alternative hand, has never looked a
reduction powerful force than he does today. If he acts conflicting a militants as well as
elements in his own Fatah transformation sympathetic to them, he risks a Palestinian
polite conflict. But if he chooses to do nothing, he faces wearing divided of his
management as well as all explain to a executive purpose in a assent process. Whatever
he does, sections of a Palestinians will reason which he has left as well distant as well
as Israel which he has not left for enough. This is, of course, because Arafat has
constantly shrunk from tough decision. He has refrained from curbing a belligerent
groups, explaining his inaction as required to say Palestinian unity.
The Palestinian leadership?s incapacity to urge mercantile conditions for a people has
been a wilful means in a wearing divided of a capability to act. Palestinians in Gaza have
targeted a PA as being obliged for their condition. The Militant organizations have
capitalized upon a PA?s disaster to settle a functioning executive infrastructure by
environment up a parallel welfare complement with a assistance of a millions of dollars.
Though a Palestinian confidence forces explain to have arrested some-more than 100
militants after a self-murder explosve attacks in Israel, the other identical belligerent
groups sojourn defiant, assured of their renouned await as well as of a faith which in a
idealisation research a PA care will stop reduced of wilful movement against them.
That a belligerent groups suffer renouned await in Gaza is frequency surprising. The
Gaza Strip currently resembles a immeasurable jail stay in which a little 1.2 million
Palestinians have been crammed. Despite the Oslo Accord, 7000 Israeli settlers still
sojourn in twenty percent of a Gaza?s area as well as have been stable by heavily armed
Israeli forces. With a brand new besiege of as well as endless incursion into PA tranquil
territories, a Israeli supervision has placed a total polite multitude in Palestine
underneath siege. Over 450 NGOs, 8 universities as well as countless alternative
educational, civic, social, developmental as well as illness institutions have had their
work detained as well as their critical services to a race blocked. An general discussion
upon Israel?s diagnosis of human rights in West Bank as well as Gaza, attended by
signatories to a 1949 Geneva Conventions, which has non-stop in Switzerland vital
Israeli as well as American protests, is approaching to censor Israel for a diagnosis of
civilians in a Palestinian territories.
Arafat?s station in in between Palestinians rests upon a management conferred upon a
PA by a general encampment to paint as well as verbalise for a Palestinians. Even a vital
belligerent group has so distant never plainly challenged Arafat?s leadership. Israel?s
idealisation infamous attacks destined conflicting a PA as well as Arafat benefaction a
general encampment with a risk which this precarious change of energy in a Palestinian
encampment might be destroyed. Continuance of a Israeli attacks can usually further
radicalize as well as toughen a attitudes of typical Palestinians. On a alternative hand,
Israeli moves to solidify serve enlargement of Jewish settlements in a West Bank as well
as Gaza and, as shortly as security conditions assent it, palliate a mercantile besiege of
Palestinian towns?however remote such measures crop up usually now?alone can revive
a management of a PA as well as give it a chance to get a hold upon Palestinian
militancy.
Q.11. Which of a following factors have lifted a goal for assent in West Asia?
A. Killings of Israeli civilians
B. Harsh reply of Israelites
C. Revocation of Oslo Accord
(1) Only A as well as C
(2) Only B as well as C
(3) Both A as well as B
(4) Either A or B
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)Both A as well as B
Q.12. Which of a following explains a miss of movement upon a partial of Palestinian
leader?
(1) He fears a armed forces movement conflicting him
(2) This according to him will bind assent process
(3) He feels which this step will keep Palestinians united
(4) He is severely disturbed about a lapse of his energy base
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)He is severely disturbed about a degeneration of his energy base
Q.13. What is idealisation research of alternative identical belligerent groups?
(1) The PA care will usually movement if a clear forceful action is taken upon a PA
(2) The suicidal attacks will usually irritate a situation
(3) The PA care should be changed
(4) The movement upon a Palestinians was justified
(5) None of these
Ans. (5) None of these
Q.14. Which of a following difference is usually conflicting in definition to a word
detained as used in a passage?
(1) Hindered
(2) Facilitated
(3) Felicitated
(4) Stopped
(5) Courage
Ans. (1)Hindered
Q.15. What does a word vital meant as used in a passage?
(1) Notwithstanding
(2) Concurring
(3) Welcoming
(4) Criticizing
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)Notwithstanding
Q.16.Which of a following most suitable describes a definition of a word challenged as
used in a passage?
(1) Questioned
(2) Accepted
(3) Attacked
(4) Scared
(5) None of these
Ans1)Questioned
Q. 17.Which of a following is a most identical word as accusing as used in a passage?
(1) Abusing
(2) Blaming
(3) Charging
(4) Responding
(5) Praising
Ans. (2)Blaming
Q.18. Which of a following is a approaching result of International Conference which is
in swell in Switzerland?
(1) To devaluate 1949 Geneva Convention
(2) Impose censorship upon promotion of PA
(3) To set up considerate family in in between Conflicting parties
(4) To put a quell upon Israel?s policies whilst treating civilians in an visitor territory
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)To set up considerate family in in between Conflicting parties
Q.19. Which of a following most suitable explains a word infamous as used in a passage?
(1) Dangerous
(2) Fatal
(3) Reoccurring as well as cyclic
(4) Cyclic though not reoccurring
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)Reoccurring as well as cyclic
Q.20. Which of a following most suitable explains a word remote as used in a passage?
(1) Far divided from reality
(2) Distant
(3) Most approaching to happen
(4) Control in someone else?s hand
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)Far divided from reality
Q.21. Who according to a thoroughfare conferred a management to PA?
(1) Arafat
(2) Israel
(3) Militant groups
(4) International community
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)International community
Q.22. Which of a following can revive a degenerating management of a PA?
A. Arresting a enlargement of Jewish settlements
B. Easening a mercantile besiege of Palestinian towns
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Either A or B
(4) Both A as well as B together
(5) Neither A or B
Ans (4)Both A as well as B together
Q.23. Which of a following is a most conflicting in definition as a word shrunk as used in
a passage?
(1)Coming forward
(2)Abdicating
(3)Control
(4)Expand
(5)None of these
Ans (1)Coming forward
Q.24. What might be a start of successive Israeli attacks?
(1) It might strap a disastrous perspective amongst a polite Palestinians
(2) It might fall short militancy from a simple roots
(3) It might reanimate a weakening care of a PA
(4) It might lift belligerent activities
(5) None of these
Ans (4)It might lift belligerent activities
Q.25. What dangers have been being viewed by a International Community?
(1)Both a nations might get broken if fight erupts
(2)The PA as well as Israel will never set upon a deal
(3)The attacks conflicting a PA might fall short a change of energy in Palestinians
(4)The militancy might widespread in alternative countries also
(5)None of these
Ans. (3)The attacks conflicting a PA might fall short a change of energy in Palestinians
Directions (Qs. twenty-six to 35): In a following thoroughfare there have been blanks,
any of which has been numbered. These numbers have been printed subsequent a
thoroughfare as well as conflicting each, 5 difference are suggested, a single of which
fits a vacant appropriately. Find out a suitable word in any case:
Whatever wealth India enjoyed in a seventeenth century left when a Mughal Empire
???(26) apart. The most evident means of this relapse was a religious intolerance, which
led to a open rebellion. It was to ???(27) these revolts which a extremist woman
monarch outlayed ???(28) years in a field, with measureless armies immoderate a
revenues of the country. There were, however, some-more entrenched ???(29) The
crime of officials as well as a hardship of a rank as well as file usually ???(30) divided a
empire?s hold up blood. For sometime, there had been a conspicuous decrease in a
impression of a statute class. Wars of period ???(31) wiped out a heading families, as
well as brand new red red blood from executive Middle East was no ???(32) recruited for
a aloft bureaucratic posts. Finally, a Mughal Empire was an visitor regime. It continues
to be so ???(33) Akbar?s process of conciliation was abandoned, as well as it wore itself
out perplexing to say a energy ???(34) a constant opposition, usually right divided as
well as afterwards sincere though regularly present, of a ???(35) citizens.
Q.26. (1)Joined
(2)Broke
(3)Dashed
(4)Banged
(5)Became
Ans. (2)Broke
Q.27. (1)Run out
(2)Crash
(3)Crush
(4)Cajole
(5)Motivate
Ans (3)Crush
Q.28. (1)No
(2)Hardly
(3)Many
(4)Inexpensive
(5)Most
Ans. (3)Many
Q.29. (1)Variables
(2)Attributes
(3)Characteristics
(4)Causes
(5)Affect
Ans. (4)Causes
Q.30. (1)Drained
(2)Gone
(3)Sucked
(4)Released
(5)Went
Ans (1)Drained
Q.31. (1)Has
(2)Have
(3)Was
(4)Did
(5)Had
Ans. (5)Had
Q.32.(1)Longer
(2)Pumped
(3)Far
(4)Candidate
(5)Shorter
Ans. (1)Longer
Q.33. (1)At
(2)Into
(3)Over
(4)After
(5)Before
Ans. (4)After
Q.34. (1)Far
(2)At
(3)Against
(4)Favouring
(5)For
Ans (3)Against
Q.35. (1)Discontented
(2)Weeping
(3)Ruling
(4)Calm
(5)Contented
Ans: (1)Discontented
Directions (Qs. 36 to 40): icon razz RBI Exam Question,RBI Exam Question of English
Language Subject,RBI Exam Question 2010 ick out a most in effect word/phrase from a
since difference to fill in a blanks to have a sentences meaningfully complete:
Q.,36. Tiwari?s weill-wishers went to a impassioned to _____ his commercial operation
reputation.
(1)Speak
(2)Enhance
(3)Cajole
(4)Provoke
(5)Advocate
Ans. (2)Enhance
Q.37. A organisation of youth college boys _____ a top rise of a Shivalik operation of a
Himalayas.
(1)Scaled
(2)Walked
(3)Climb up
(4)Avoided
(5)Won
Ans. (1)Scaled
Q.38. A special programme to lift a customary of vital of a encampment folks has been
_____ by a Government.
(1)Affixed
(2)Stalled
(3)Glued
(4)Launched
(5)Propose
Ans. (4)Launched
Q.39. A flock of elephants _____ ready to conflict a lion.
(1)Were
(2)Is
(3)Was
(4)Are
(5)Has been
Ans. (2)Is
Q.40. It is not probable this year to run this association with so most employees, but
augmenting a _____ of deficit.
(1)Loss
(2)Altitude
(3)Gain
(4)Magnitude
(5)Extend
Ans. (4)Magnitude

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GENERAL AWARENESS
This test is intended to give an index of your awareness of people and events, past and present, in different
walks of life.
RBI Grade B Exam Question Papers
Q.1. The purchasing power of Rupee strengthened against dollar in recent past because –––
(1) the interest rates in India are among the highest in the world
(2) there has been a strong flow of foreign direct investment into India
(3) there has been steady growth of Indian exports
(4) weakening of US currency because of poor economic recovery in US
(5) All those given as options
Q.2. The Tata group of Industries has taken over which of the following internet service providers ?
(1) MTNL (2) Roltanet (3) VSNL (4) Satyam Online (5) Other than those given as options
Q.3. To combat the menace of money laundering, which of the following financial institutions has
introduced the ‘Know Your Customer’ Scheme ?
(1) IDBI (2) RBI (3) NABARD (4) SIDBI (5) Other than those given as options
Q.4. As per present norms, the Mergers and Acquisitions in the corporate sector need a clearance
from which of the following in addition to RBI etc. ?
(A) High Courts of the respective states
(B) Union Cabinet
(C) Cabinet of respective states
(1) A & B both (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) Only A (5) Other than those given as options
Q.5. Which of the following person – sport combination is incorrect ?
(1) Yasin Merchant – Snooker (2) Baichung Bhutia – Football
(3) Narain Karthikeyan – Racing (4) Gagan Ajit Singh – Athletics
(5) Other than those given as options
Q.6. A contract which represents the obligation to buy or sell at a specified date in the future is known
as –––––
(1) Options (2) Forward contracts (3) Futures
(4) Swap (5) Other than those given as options
Q.7. A foreign tourist wants to visit India’s famous forts. Which of the following group of cities will
you suggest him to visit ?
(1) Nainital, Manali & Shimla (2) Panaji, Thiruvanthapuram & Daman
(3) Puri, Kolkata & New Delhi (4) Agra, Jaipur & Gwalior
(5) Other than those given as options
Q.8. Which of the following is NOT the part of Export-Import policy 2002–2007 of India ?
(1) Annual Advance Licence facility is extended for deemed exports.
(2) Validity of duty free replenishment certificate scheme extended from 12 to 18 months.
(3) Second hand capital goods which are less than 10 years old are allowed to be imported
without obtaining licence.
(4) Special Exports Economic Zones (SEZs) developers will not be given any special status
now under Income Tax Act. The act is to bring SEZs at par with other business activities.
(5) Exporters are not allowed to carry gems and jewellery of an amount more than 2 million
US $ for overseas exhibitions.
TEST II : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
This is a test to see how well you know English. Your English language ability would be tested through
questions on grammar, vocabulary, sentence completion, synonyms, antonyms, comprehension of a passage
etc. Study and answer the sample questions given below :
Q.1-3. Directions : Pick out the most appropriate word from amongst the words given below each sentence
to complete it meaningfully.
Q.1. He quickly glanced .............................. the book to find what it said about the Indian economy.
(1) at (2) through (3) in (4) to (5) over
Q.2. The counsel urged the court to ........................... down the obnoxious law.
(1) enact (2) enforce (3) cancel (4) strike (5) declare
Q.3. The local official ........................... the Minister of the situation.
(1) explained (2) warned (3) apprised (4) told (5) intimated
Q.4-6. Directions : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part of the sentence is your
answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘5’.
Q.4. I am twenty / two years old / when I first / joined the bank. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Q.5. To the Hindus / the Ganges is / holier than / any other river. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Q.6. Of all the teachers / in our school / our class teacher / were very strict. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
In addition, there will be questions based on passage, to test your comprehension.
TEST III : QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
This test is designed to measure how fast and accurate you are in dealing with numbers, viz. computation,
quantitative reasoning, interpretation of tables and graphs.
Q.1-2. Directions : In each of the following questions, a number is missing which is indicated by a
question mark. Your task is to find out what will come in place of the question mark (?).
Q.1. 42 + 73 + 137 = ?
(1) 352 (2) 252 (3) 242 (4) 142 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.2. 20 ×
1
2
= ?
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 12 (4) 20 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.3. At 10 paise each, how many paise will 6 lemons cost ?
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 60 (4) 61 (5) 610
Q.4. Which of the following can be exact multiple of 4 ?
(1) 27114 (2) 58204 (3) 48402 (4) 32286 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.5. If the profit made by selling a pen for Rs.10 is as much as its cost, what is the cost price of the
pen ?
(1) Rs.3/- (2) Rs.5/- (3) Rs.10/- (4) Rs.20/- (5) Other than those given as options
4
Also, there may be some questions based on graphs and tables.
Q.6-8. Directions : Given below is a table showing percentages out of a total of 700 employees ranking
six attributes that help promotion. Rank I is the highest. Study the table carefully and answer
questions that follow :
Attribute % of Employees Giving Different Ranks
I II III IV V VI
Seniority 32 17 22 19 5 5
Perseverance 14 19 17 9 27 14
Efficiency 15 19 21 14 14 17
Intelligence 10 14 10 14 17 35
Honesty 24 17 7 9 27 16
Sociability 5 14 23 35 10 13
Q.6. Which attribute for promotion has received the highest rank ?
(1) Perseverance (2) Seniority (3) Honesty (4) Sociability (5) Efficiency
Q.7. How many employees gave Rank III to intelligence ?
(1) 119 (2) 98 (3) 77 (4) 70 (5) 10
Q.8. Which attribute is considered the least important for promotion ?
(1) Honesty (2) Intelligence (3) Perseverance (4) Efficiency (5) Sociability
TEST IV : REASONING
This is a test to see how well you can think. It contains questions of various kinds. Here are some sample
questions.
Q.1-3. Directions : In each of the following questions, there are five words in each question. Four of
these words are alike in some way while one is different. Find the one which is different.
Q.1. (1) black (2) red (3) green (4) paint (5) yellow
Q.2. (1) Flower (2) Tree (3) Vegetable (4) Fruit (5) Garden
Q.3. (1) Mango (2) Apple (3) Orange (4) Guava (5) Rose
Q.4-5. Directions : In each of the following questions, there is a question mark in which only one of the
five alternatives given under the question satisfies the same relationship as is found between the
two terms to the left of the sign :: given in the question. Find the correct answer.
Q.4. Foot : Man : : Hoof : ?
(1) Leg (2) Dog (3) Horse (4) Boy (5) Shoe
Q.5. Day : Night : : Kind : ?
(1) Dark (2) Bright (3) Cruel (4) Generous (5) Gratitude
Q.6. Some leaders are dishonest. Satyapriya is a leader. Which of the following inferences
definitely follows from these two statements ?
(1) Satyapriya is honest (2) Satyapriya is dishonest
(3) Some leaders are honest (4) Leaders are generally dishonest
(5) Satyapriya is sometimes dishonest
(A) Details of the On-line Examination Pattern
(1) The examination would be conducted on-line i.e. on a computer.
(2) All tests except of English will be in English and Hindi.
(3) All the questions will have multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one will be the
correct answer. The candidate has to select the most appropriate answer and ‘mouse click’
that alternative which he/ she feels is appropriate/ correct. The alternative/ option that is clicked
on will be treated as the answer to that question. Answer to any question will be considered
for final evaluation, only when candidates have submitted the answers by clicking on “Save &
Next” or “Mark for Review & Next”.
(4) The clock has been set at the server and the countdown timer at the top right corner of your screen
will display the time remaining for you to complete the exam. When the clock runs out the exam ends
by default - you are not required to end or submit your exam.
(5) The question palette at the right of the screen shows one of the following statuses of each of the
questions numbered:
You have not visited the question yet.
You have not answered the question.
You have answered the question.
You have NOT answered the question but have marked the question for review.
You have answered the question but marked it for review.
The Marked for Review status simply acts as a reminder that you have set to look at the question
again. If an answer is selected for a question that is Marked for Review, the answer will be considered
in the final evaluation.
(6) To select a question to answer, you can do one of the following :
(a) Click on the question number on the question palette at the right of your screen to go to that
numbered question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer to the
current question.
(b) Click on ‘Save & Next’ to save answer to current question and to go to the next question in
sequence.
(c) Click on ‘Mark for Review and Next’ to save answer to current question, mark it for review,
and to go to the next question in sequence.
(7) You can view the entire paper by clicking on the Question Paper button.
(8) To select your answer, click on one of the option buttons.
(9) To change your answer, click another desired option button.
(10) To save your answer, you MUST click on Save & Next.
(11) To deselect a chosen answer, click on the chosen option again or click on the Clear Response
button.
(12) To mark a question for review click on Mark for Review & Next. If an answer is selected for a
question that is Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in the final evaluation.
(13) To change an answer to a question, first select the question and then click on the new answer option
followed by a click on the Save & Next button.
(14) Questions that are saved or marked for review after answering will ONLY be considered for
evaluation.
(15) Sections will be displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a section can be viewed by
clicking on the section name. The section you will view will be highlighted.
(16) After clicking the Save & Next button on the last question for a section, you will automatically be
taken to the first question of the next section.
(17) You can move the mouse cursor over the section names to view the status of the questions for that
section.
(18) You can shuffle between sections and questions anytime during the examination as per your
convenience.
(19) The candidates are requested to follow the instructions of the “Test Administrator” carefully. If any
candidate does not follow the instructions / rules, it would be treated as a case of misconduct/ adoption
of unfair means and such a candidate would be liable for debarment from appearing for examinations
for a period as decided by the Board.
(20) Candidates may ask the Test Administrator about their doubts or questions only before the
commencement of the test. No query shall be entertained after the commencement of the examination.
(21) After the expiry of 130 minutes, the candidates will not be able to attempt any question or check their
answers. The answers of the candidate would be saved automatically by the computer system even
if he/ she has not clicked the “Submit” button.
(22) Please note :
(a) Candidates will not be allowed to “finally submit” unless they have exhausted the actual
test time.
(b) Under no circumstances should a candidate click on any of the ‘keyboard keys’ once
the exam starts as this will lock the exam.
B] General Instructions:
(1) Please note your Roll Number, Password, date, time and venue address of the examination
given in the Admission Letter.
(2) You may visit the venue one day before the Online Examination to confirm the location so that
you are able to report on time on the day of the examination.
(3) The Admission Letter should be brought with you to the examination venue along with your
recent passport size photograph duly pasted on it. (Preferably the same photograph as was
uploaded).
(4) You must scrupulously follow the instructions of the Test Administrator and Board Representative
at the examination venue. If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified and will be asked
to leave the examination venue.
(5) No use of calculators (separate or with watch), books, note books or written notes, cell phones
(with or without camera facility), or any other electronic device will be allowed during the
examination.
(6) Please bring the Admission Letter with your photograph affixed thereon, currently valid Photo
identity proof in original and a photocopy of the same ID proof which you bring in original - THIS
IS ESSENTIAL. Please hand over the Admission Letter alongwith photocopy of photo identity
proof duly stapled together to the invigilator. Currently valid photo identity proof may be PAN
Card/Passport/Driving Licence/Voter’s Card/Bank Passbook with photograph/Photo Identity proof
issued by a Gazetted Officer on official letterhead /Photo Identity proof issued by a People’s
Representative on official letterhead/Valid recent Identity Card issued by a recognised College/
University/Aadhar Card with a photograph/Employee ID/Bar Council Identity card with photograph.
Please note that your name as appearing on the Admission Letter (provided by you during the
process of registration) should exactly match the name as appearing on the photo identity proof.
Female candidates who have changed first/last/middle name post marriage must take special
note of this. If there is any mismatch between the name indicated in the Admission Letter and
Photo Identity Proof you will not be allowed to appear for the exam.
(7) Your responses (answers) will be analysed with other candidates to detect patterns of similarity
of right and wrong answers. If in the analytical procedure adopted in this regard, it is inferred/
concluded that the responses have been shared and scores obtained are not genuine/valid, your
candidature may be cancelled. Any candidate who is found copying or receiving or giving
assistance or engaging in any behaviour unbecoming of a candidate will not be considered for
assessment. The Board may take further action against such candidates as deemed fit by it.
(8) You should bring with you a ball-point pen. A sheet of paper will be provided which can be used
for rough work or taking down the question number you would like to review at the end of the test
before submitting your answers. After the test is over you MUST hand over this sheet of paper to
the Test Administrator before leaving the venue.
(9) A candidate who is or has been declared by the Board guilty of impersonation or of submitting
fabricated document/s which have been tampered with or of making statements which are
incorrect or false or of suppressing material information or otherwise resorting to any other
irregular or improper means of obtaining admission to examination or of using or attempting to
use unfair means in the examination hall or misbehavior in the examination hall may be debarred
permanently or for a specified period -
i) By the Board from admission to any examination or appearance at any interview held by
the Board for selection of the candidates, and
ii) By the Bank from employment under it, and
iii) If already in the service of the Bank, be liable to disciplinary action under the appropriate
rules.
(10) Note for Person with Disability (PWD):
(i) The additional/compensatory time of twenty (20) minutes for every hour of examination
may be allowed to only those candidates with disabilities who have physical
limitation to write including that of speed and who use the facility of a scribe.
However, the additional/compensatory time of twenty (20) minutes for every hour
of examination will be allowed to all the Visually Impaired PWD candidates,
regardless of whether they opt for scribe or self-writing or with the help of assistive
devices like magnifier.
(ii) Visually Impaired candidates under Blind/Low Vision, who use scribe may skip the nonverbal
questions, if any, in Test of Reasoning and questions on Table/Graph, if any, in the
Test of Quantitative Aptitude. The candidates will be awarded marks for such Section
based on the overall average obtained in other Section of the respective test.
(iii) The PWD candidates, who want to use facility of scribe, MUST download and carefully
READ the instructions meant for them, which can also be downloaded from RBI website.
(iv) These candidates are also required to submit a Joint Undertaking/Declaration form that
can be downloaded from RBI website.
(11) The possibility for occurrences of some problem in the administration of the examination cannot
be ruled out completely which may impact test delivery and/or result from being generated. In
that event, every effort will be made to rectify such problem, which may include the conduct of
another examination if considered necessary. Decision of the test conducting body in this regard
shall be final. Candidates not willing to accept such change shall loose his/her candidature for
this exam.
(12) If the examination is held in more than one session, the scores across various sessions will be
equated to adjust for slight differences in difficulty level of different test batteries used across
sessions. More than one session are required if the nodes capacity is less or some technical
disruption takes place at any centre or for any candidate.
(13) Please note that a candidate is allowed to appear only once in the online examination. Multiple
appearance in online examination will result in cancellation of candidature. In case more than
one Admission Letter has been generated, candidates are advised to appear only once at the
time mentioned on the respective Admission Letter. All other Admission Letters (for that post) are
to be surrendered.
(14) Anyone found to be disclosing, publishing, reproducing, transmitting, storing or facilitating
transmission and storage of test contents in any form or any information therein in whole or part
thereof or by any means verbal or written, electronic or mechanical or taking away the papers
supplied in the examination hall or found to be in unauthorised possession of test content is likely
to be prosecuted.
IMPORTANT POINTS TO REMEMBER
You are advised to bring with you the following:
(i) Admission Letter with photo affixed thereon and photo ID card in Original and photocopy as
mentioned in point 6.
(ii) One ball point pen.
WISH YOU GOOD LUCK
PHASE II
Descriptive Type Test
The Phase II Examination will be conducted only for those candidates who are shortlisted for Phase I
(Objective Type Test) tentatively in September 2014. The date and Time-table will be intimated to the
candidates concerned. The Examination will consist of three Descriptive Type papers – (1) Paper I – English
(2) Paper II– Economic and Social Issues and (3) Paper III – Finance and Management. Each of these
papers is of 3 hours duration carrying 100 marks.
NOTE : Answers to questions in Paper I in Phase II must be written in English.
For Papers II and III of Phase II, answers may be written either in English or in Hindi at the candidate’s
option. However, all the questions in the paper should be answered only in the language so chosen. Answer
books written partly in English and partly in Hindi will not be evaluated
Syllabus for Paper I – English : Essay, Precis writing, Comprehension, Business/Office Correspondence.
Syllabus for Paper II – Economic and Social Issues : Growth and Development – Measurement of
Growth : National Income and Per Capita Income – Poverty Alleviation and Employment Generation in India
– Sustainable Development and Environmental issues. Economic Reforms in India – Industrial and Labour
Policy – Monetary and Fiscal Policy – Privatisation – Role of Economic Planning. Globalisation – Opening
up of the Indian Economy – Balance of Payments, Export-Import Policy – International Economic Institutions
– IMF and World Bank – WTO – Regional Economic Co-operation. Social Structure in India – Multiculturalism
– Demographic Trends – Urbanisation and Migration – Gender Issues – Social Justice : Positive Discrimination
in Favour of the Under Privileged – Social Movements – Indian Political System – Human Development –
Social Sectors in India, Health and Education.
Syllabus for Paper III – Finance and Management : Finance : The Union Budget – Direct and Indirect
Taxes; Non-tax Sources of Revenue; Outlays; New Measures; Financial Sector Reforms; Capital Market,
Money Market and Foreign Exchange Market, Stock Exchanges and their Regulation; Capital Market
Intermediaries and their Regulation; Role of SEBI; Functions of the Money Market; Growth and Operation of
the Money Market; The Foreign Exchange Market; From FERA to FEMA; Exchange Rate Management;
Exchange Risk Management, Role of Banks and Financial Institutions in Economic Development; Regulation
of Banks and Financial Institutions; Disinvestment in Public Sector Units.
Management : Management, its Nature and Scope; The Management Processes, Planning, Organisation,
Staffing, Directing and Controlling; The Role of a Manager in an Organisation, Leadership; The Tasks of a
Leader, Leadership Styles; Leadership Theories; A Successful Leader versus an Effective Leader, Human
Resource Development; Concept of HRD, Goals of HRD, Performance Appraisal – Potential Appraisal and
Development – Feedback and Performance Counselling – Career Planning – Training and Development –
Rewards – Employee Welfare, Motivation, Morale and Incentives; Theories of Motivation : How Managers
Motivate; Concept of Morale; Factors Determining Morale; Role of Incentives in Building up Morale.
Communication : Steps in the Communication Process; Communication Channels; Oral versus written
Communication; Verbal versus Non-verbal Communication; Upward, Downward and Lateral Communication;
Barriers to Communication, Role of Information Technology, Corporate Governance; Factors affecting
Corporate Governance; Mechanisms of Corporate Governance.