#1
22nd July 2014, 10:21 AM
| |||
| |||
Question paper for RRB Assistant Loco Pilot
Will you please give me question paper for Railway Recruitment Board Assistant Loco Pilot Exam in a PDF file format ?
|
#2
22nd July 2014, 03:25 PM
| |||
| |||
Re: Question paper for RRB Assistant Loco Pilot
Here I am giving you question paper for Railway Recruitment Board Assistant Loco Pilot Exam in a PDF file attached with it so you can get it easily. 1. When was the first underground railway (Metro Railway) started? (a) 1982 (b) 1989 (c) 1984 (d) 1992 Answer: C 2. Shatabdi Express train was started in (a) 1984 (b) 1988 (c) 1990 (d) 1985 Answer: B 3. At which of the following places Diesel Component Works is established? (a) Jamshedpur (b) Patiala (c) Perambur (d) Varanasi Answer: B 4. Which Zone is the largest in Indian Railways? (a) Central Railway (b) Northern Railway (c) Eastern Railway (d) Western Railway Answer: C 5. The railway station situated in the extreme south is (a) Chennai (b) Cochin (c) Kanyakumari (d) Trivandrum Answer: C 6. A platform surrounded by rail lines from all the four sides, is called (a) dock platform (b) passenger platform (c) island platform (d) goods platform Answer: C 7. When was the nationalization of Indian Railways done? (a) 1952 (b) 1950 (c) 1951 (d) 1954 Answer: B 8. In which year Research, Design and Standard organization was established? (a) 1954 (b) 1957 (c) 1959 (d) 1967 Answer: B 9. Railway Staff College is situated at (a) Bangalore (b) Secundrabad (c) Chennai (d) Vadodara Answer: D 10. Where is the Research, Design and Standard Organisation situated? (a) Lucknow (b) Bangalore (c) Pune (d) New Delhi Answer: A 11. Which is the following pairs of regional Railways and their headquarters not true? (a) South-Central Railway - Secunderabad (b) Central railway - Bhopal (c) South Railway - Chennai (d) North Railway - New Delhi Answer: B 12. Between which of the destinations the first Indian train was started? (a) From Calcutta to Delhi (b) From Mumbai to Thane (c) From Mumbai to Surat (d) From Mumbai to Madras Answer: B 13. When was the first train in Indian started? (a) 1851 (b) 1852 (c) 1853 (d) 1854 Answer: C 14. In which Governor-General’s reign railway lines in India were established? (a) Lord William Bentick (b) Lord Cornwallis (c) Lord Kenning (d) Lord Dalhousie Answer: D 15. A station where the rail lines end, is called (a) junction station (b) way-side-station (c) block station (d) terminal station Answer: D 16. How much distance was traveled by first train of India? (a) 33 km (b) 36 km (c) 34 km (d) 46 km Answer: C 17. What is the position of the Indian Railway in the world according to the length of rail lines? (a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth Answer: D 18. What is the length of North-Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR)? (a) 4300 Km (b) 3700 Km (c) 4290 km (d) 5298 km Answer: B 19. The headquarters of North-Eastern railway is situated at (a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Guwahati (c) Gorakhpur (d) New Delhi Answer: C 20. When was the North-Eastern frontier Railway (NEFR) established? (a) 15th Jan, 1958 (b) 15th Jan, 1955 (c) 2nd Jan, 1956 (d) 14th April, 1952 Answer: A 21. The headquarters of North -Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR) is (a) Calcutta (b) Maligaon (Guwahati) (c) Chennai (d) Gorakhpur Answer: B 22. In which of the following cities, the first sub-way train was started? (a) Mumbai (b) Delhi (c) Calcutta (d) Chennai Answer: C 23. General Manger is responsible for (a) Railway Board (b) Railway Ministry (c) Both railway Board and Railway Ministry (d) None of these Answer: A 24. The headquarters of South-Central Railways is situated at (a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Chennai (c) Secundrabad (d) Mumbai (Central) Answer: C 1. ?Abhinav Bharat? was organized by (a) Bhai Parmanand (b) Khudiram Bose (c) Vir Savarkar (d) None of these Ans: ( c ) Vir Savarkar 2. On 22nd December, which of the following places has the largest day and shortest night ? (a) Melbourne (b) Moscow (c) Madrid (d) Chennai Ans: ( a ) Melbourne 3. High pressure subtropical calm belts known as ?Horse Latitudes? lies between (a) 00 and 150 (b) 200 and 250 (c) 300 and 350 (d) None of these Ans: ( c ) 300 and 350 4. Zimbobwe was formerly known as (a) Rhodesia (b) Mali (c) Namibia (d) Zanzibar Ans: ( a ) Rhodesia 5. Which of the following pairs is correct ? (a) Bonn - Danube (b) Baghdad - Tigris (c) Rome - Seice (d) Paris - Tiber Ans: ( b ) Baghdad - Tigris 6. The canal joining Baltic Sea to North Sea is (a) Kiel Canal (b) Suez Canal (c) Panama Canal (d) None of these Ans: ( a ) Kiel Canal 7. Which of the following rivers does not form any delta at its mouth ? (a) Cauvery (b) Mahanadi (c) Godavari (d) Tapti Ans: ( d ) Tapti 8. Srinagar is situated on the bank of the river (a) Ravi (b) Sutlej (c) Jhelum (d) Chenab Ans: ( c ) Jhelum 9. The Shompens are the tribal people of (a) Andaman (b) Nicobar (c) Lakshadweep (d) None of these Ans: ( b ) Nicobar 10. Match the following A. Manas I. Hangul B. Dachigam II. Elephant C. Mudumalai III. Tiger D. Kaziranga IV. Rhinoceros A B C D (a) I II III IV (b) III I II IV (c) II IV III I (d) I III IV II Ans: ( b ) III I II IV 11. In India, Plan holiday was after (a) China-India war of 1962 (b) Draught of 1966 (c) Pakistan war of 1971 (d) Pakistan war of 1965 Ans: ( b ) Draught of 1966 12. Which of the following is not a ?Free Trade Zone? ? (a) Kandla (b) Mumbai (c) Visakhapatnam (d) Trivandrum Ans: ( d ) Trivandrum 13. The least perfect square number which is divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6 and 8 is (a) 900 (b) 1600 (c) 2500 (d) 3600 Ans: ( d ) 3600 12. A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and ten-rupee notes. The number of notes are equal. What is the total number of notes ? (a) 60 (b) 90 (c) 75 (d) 45 Ans: ( b ) 90 13. In an organization, 40% of the employees are matriculates, 50% of the remaining are graduates and remaining 180 are post-graduates. How many employees are graduates ? (a) 360 (b) 240 (c) 180 (d) 300 Ans: ( c ) 180 14. Which of the following writs may be issued to enforce a Fundamental Right ? (a) Habeas Corpus (b) Mandamus (c) Prohibition (d) Certiorari Ans: ( a ) Habeas Corpus 15. A common High Court for two or more States and/or Union Territories may be established by the (a) President (b) Parliament by making law (c) Governor of State (d) Chief Justice of India Ans: ( b ) Parliament by making law 16. Who among the following was the Constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly of India ? (a) M. C. Setalvad (b) K. M. Munshi (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) B. N. Rau Ans: ( d ) B. N. Rau 17. During the period of Renaissance, the new style of architecture first developed in (a) Italy (b) France (c) England (d) Germany Ans: ( a ) Italy 18. The Barrah dacoity was the first major venture of the revolutionary terrorists of the freedom movement in (a) The Madras Presidency (b) Punjab (c) Bombay-Karnataka (d) East Bengal Ans: ( d ) East Bengal 19. Who among the following were popularly known as Red Shirts ? (a) Congress Socialists (b) Members of Azad Hind Fauj (c) Khudai Khidmatgars (d) People led by Rani Gaidinliu Ans: ( c ) Khudai Khidmatgars 20. The State in India having dry season for only 3 to 4 months every year is (a) West Bengal (b) Kerala (c) Mizoram (d) Himachal Pradesh Ans: ( c ) Mizoram 21. Which of the following is correctly matched ? (a) Gulbarga - Karnataka (b) Midnapur - Gujarat (c) Wardha - Madhya Pradesh (d) Cochin - Tamil Nadu Ans: ( a ) Gulbarga - Karnataka 22. U Thant Award is given for (a) Contribution to east-west understanding (b) Community leadership (c) Social service (d) Journalism Ans: ( c ) Social service 23. Bishop Desmond Tutu is the native of (a) South Africa (b) Cuba (c) Tanzania (d) Zambia Ans: ( a ) South Africa 24. The first electric railway was opened in (a) 1853 (b) 1885 (c) 1905 (d) 1925 Ans: ( d ) 1925 25. Machael Ferreira is associated with which of the following games ? (a) Chess (b) Snooker (c) Golf (d) None of these Ans: ( b ) Snooker 26. ?The Lord of Rings : The Return of the King? won Oscar award in how many categories ? (a) 10 (b) 9 (c) 11 (d) 12 Ans: ( c ) 11 27. As per Census 2001, which of the following States has the lowest density of population ? (a) Manipur (b) Meghalaya (c) Nagaland (d) Mizoram Ans: ( d ) Mizoram 28. Which of the following is the latest Tank ? (a) Akash (b) Prithvi (c) Arjun (d) Bhim Ans: ( c ) Arjun 29. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched ? (a) Encephalitis - Brain (b) Colitis - Colon (c) Hepatitis - Liver (d) Jaundice - Throat Ans: ( d ) Jaundice - Throat 30. Which of the following type of clothes is manufactured by using petroleum products ? (a) Rayan Silk (b) Terelyne (c) Nylon (d) Cotton Ans: ( c ) Nylon 31. The function of haemoglobin in the body is (a) Transport of oxygen (b) Destruction of bacteria (c) Prevention of anemia (d) Utilization of iron Ans: ( a ) Transport of oxygen 32. Which disease is more common among agricultural workers as compared to urban population ? (a) Lung?s disease (b) Cirrhasis of liver (c) Hookworm infection (d) Cancer Ans: ( c ) Hookworm infection 33. Biological fixation of nitrogen occurs most commonly in which of the following crops ? (a) Pulses (b) Rice (c) Wheat (d) None of these Ans: ( d ) None of these 34. Which one of the following grows under the tree ? (a) Cabbage (b) Bengal gram (c) Peanuts (d) Castor Ans: ( c ) Peanuts 35. Which of the following is an example of a plant that bears seeds but not fruits ? (a) Cotton Plant (b) Peepal tree (c) Eucalyptus tree (d) Pine tree Ans: ( c ) Eucalyptus tree 36. Radioactive element which has been found to have large reserves in India is (a) Uranium (b) Thorium (c) Radium (d) Plutonium Ans: ( b ) Thorium 37. The image formed on the retina of a human eye is (a) Real and upright (b) Real and inverted (c) Imaginary and upright (d) Imaginary and inverted Ans: ( b ) Real and inverted 38. In increasing sequence, the major elements present in the human body are (a) Calcium, iron, sodium, phosphorus (b) Calcium, phosphorus, potassium, sulphur (c) Calcium, iron, sodium, sulphur (d) Calcium, potassium, phosphorus, iron Ans: ( a ) Calcium, iron, sodium, phosphorus 39. A light sensitive compound used in photography is (a) Silver chloride (b) Silver sulphide (c) Silver bromide (d) Silver oxide Ans: ( c ) Silver bromide 40. Protective foods in our diet are (a) Fats and vitamins (b) Carbohydrates and minerals (c) Vitamins and minerals (d) Proteins and carbohydrates Ans: ( d ) Proteins and carbohydrates 41. The ancient name of Bengal was (a) Kamrupa (b) Vasta (c) Gauda (d) Vallabhi Ans: ( c ) Gauda 42. Ahilyabai was the queen of (a) Gwaliar (b) Malwa (c) Jaipur (d) Bijapur Ans: ( a ) Gwaliar 43. Morish traveler, Ibn Batutah, came to India during the time of (a) Ala-ud-din Khalji (b) Firuz Shah Tughluq (c) Balban (d) Muhammed-bin-Tughluq Ans: ( d ) Muhammed-bin-Tughluq 44. The relics of Indus Valley Civilisation indicates that the main occupation of the people was (a) Agriculture (b) Cattle rearing (c) Commerce (d) Hunting Ans: ( c ) Commerce 45. The Mahabalipuram temples were built by the king of ????????. Dynasty (a) Gupta (b) Chola (c) Pallava (d) Kushana Ans: ( c ) Pallava 46. The first telegraph line between Calcutta and Agra was opened in (a) 1852 (b) 1853 (c) 1854 (d) 1855 Ans: ( b ) 1853 47. The first discourse of Buddha in Sarnath is called (a) Mahabhiniskraman (b) Mahaparinirvana (c) Mahamastakabhisheka (d) Dharmachakrapravartan Ans: ( d ) Dharmachakrapravartan 48. The political and cultural center of the Pandyas was (a) Vengi (b) Madurai (c) Kanchipuram (d) Mahabalipuram Ans: ( b ) Madurai 49. What is the correct chronological order of the dynasties in which they invaded India ? 1. Huns 2. Kushanas 3. Aryans 4. Greeks (a) 4, 3, 2, 1 (b) 3, 4, 2, 1 (c) 4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2 Ans: ( b ) 3, 4, 2, 1 50. Who wrote Mitakshara, a book on Hindu law ? (a) Nayachandra (b) Amoghvarsa (c) Vijnaneswara (d) Kumban Ans: ( c ) Vijnaneswara 51. Gupta empire declined in the fifth century A.D. as a consequence of (a) Chalukya raids (b) Greek invasion (c) Hun invasion (d) Pallava raids Ans: ( c ) Hun invasion 52. Who founded the Hindu Shahi dynasty of Punjab ? (a) Vasumitra (b) Kallar (c) Jayapala (d) Mahipala Ans: ( c ) Jayapala 53. The main external threat to the Sultanate of Delhi was posed by the (a) Mughals (b) Afghans (c) Iranians (d) None of these Ans: ( d ) None of these 54. Who among the following was a leading exponent of Gandhian thoughts ? (a) J. L. Nehru (b) M. N. Roy (c) Vinoba Bhave (d) Jayaprakash Narayan Ans: ( c ) Vinoba Bhave 55. Who were the immediate successors of the Imperial Mauryas in Magadha ? (a) Kushanas (b) Pandyas (c) Satvahanas (d) Sungas Ans: ( d ) Sungas 56. Both Mahavira and Buddha preached during the reign of (a) Ajatashatru (b) Bimbisara (c) Nandivardhan (d) Uday Ans: ( b ) Bimbisara 57. Jahangiri Mahal is located in (a) Delhi (b) Fatehpur Sikri (c) Agra Fort (d) Sikandara Ans: ( c ) Agra Fort 58. The percentage of glucose present in the normal urine is (a) 0.1% (b) 2% (c) 9.5% (d) 0% Ans: ( a ) 0.1% 59. The magnetic effect of electric current was first observed by (a) Henry (b) Oersted (c) Faraday (d) Volta Ans: ( b ) Oersted 60. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves constitute approximately (a) 4.5% (b) 2.7% (c) 1.2% (d) 5.8% Ans: ( b ) 2.7% 61. The black hole theory was discovered by (a) S. Chandrasekhar (b) Har Gobind Khorana (c) C.V. Raman (d) S. Ramanujan Ans: ( a ) S. Chandrasekhar 62. The main contribution of the Chola dynasty in the field of administration lies in (a) Systematic provincial administration (b) A well planned revenue system (c) A well organized central government (d) An organized local self government Ans: ( d ) An organized local self government 63. Who founded the philosophy of Pustimarga ? (a) Chaitanya (b) Nanak (c) Surdas (d) Ballabhacharya Ans: ( d ) Ballabhacharya 64. Which of the following battles changed the destiny of a Mughal ruler of India ? (a) Haldighati (b) Panipat II (c) Khanua (d) Chausa Ans: ( b ) Panipat II 65. ?The Vedas contain all the truth? was interpreted by (a) Swami Vivekanand (b) Swami Dayanand (c) Swami Shraddhanand (d) S. Radhakrishnan Ans: ( b ) Swami Dayanand 66. Babur entered India for the first time from the west through (a) Kashmir (b) Sind (c) Punjab (d) Rajasthan Ans: ( b ) Sind 67. Which was the first among the following ? (a) Doctrine of Lapse (b) Subsidiary Alliance (c) Permanent Settlement (d) Double Government Ans: ( d ) Double Government 68. The name of Lord Cornwallis is associated with the (a) Dual government (b) Maratha wars (c) System of subsidiary (d) Permanent settlement Ans: ( d ) Permanent settlement 69. Sir Charles Wood?s Despatch of 1854 delat with (a) Administrative reforms (b) Social reforms (c) Economic reforms (d) Educational reforms Ans: ( d ) Educational reforms 70. The sea route to India was discovered by the (a) Dutch (b) English (c) Portuguese (d) French Ans: ( c ) Portuguese 71. Which of the following pairs is correct ? (a) Ashvaghosa - Vikramaditya (b) Banabhatta - Harshvardhan (c) Harisena - Kanishka (d) Kalidasa - Samudragupta Ans: ( b ) Banabhatta - Harshvardhan 72. 4th July, 1776 is important in world history because (a) Battle of Plassey started (b) Sea route to India was discovered (c) English King Charles II was executed (d) American Congress adopted the Declaration of Independence Ans: ( d ) American Congress adopted the Declaration of Independence 73. Rowlatt Act was passed in the year (a) 1917 (b) 1919 (c) 192 (d) 1923 Ans: ( b ) 1919 74. Communal electorate in India was introduced through which of the following acts ? (a) 1909 (b) 1919 (c) 1935 (d) None of these Ans: ( a ) 1909 |
#3
23rd March 2015, 02:02 PM
| |||
| |||
Re: Question paper for RRB Assistant Loco Pilot
I am planning to write the RRB Assistant Loco Pilot exam this year. Will you please forward me question paper for the exam?
|
#4
23rd March 2015, 02:43 PM
| |||
| |||
Re: Question paper for RRB Assistant Loco Pilot
Railway recruitment board (RRB) conducts the examination to hire the Assistant Loco Pilot. The exam contains following sections. General Awareness Arithmetic Technical Ability Reasoning Ability General Intelligence As per your request, I am giving you questions form the RRB Assistant Loco Pilot exam. General Awareness 1. Which of the following Departments of the Govt. of India is helping banks in disbursement of rural credit by the bank ? (A) Railways (B) State Road Transpots (C) Post and Telegraph (D) None of these Ans (D) Arithmetic 1. 51. 3, 15, 35, ?, 99, 143 (A) 63 (B) 69 (C) 81 (D) 85 Ans (A) Technical Ability 1. A body is thrown vertically upward and it reaches 10m high. Find the velocity with which the body was thrown? (g = 9.8 m/s) (A) 10 m/sec. (B) 18 m/sec. (C) 14 m/sec. (D) 7 m/sec. Ans (C) Reasoning Ability 1. In a certain code ROPE is written as $3%6 and RITE is written as $4#6. How is PORT written in that code? (A) %4$# (B) $3%# (C) $64% (D) %3$# (E) None of these Ans (D) General Intelligence Q-1. A tortoise covers one kilometer in 4 hours . It takes rest for 20 minutes after every kilometer .How much time does it takes for the tortoise to cover 3.5 kilometers ? (A) 14 hours (B) 13 (C) 15 (D) 12 Ans (C) |
#5
14th December 2019, 12:07 PM
| |||
| |||
Re: Question paper for RRB Assistant Loco Pilot
Can you provide me the syllabus of ALP (Assistant Loco Pilot) Post recruitment Examination in RRB (Railway Recruitment Board) on which the question paper is based?
|
#6
14th December 2019, 12:08 PM
| |||
| |||
Re: Question paper for RRB Assistant Loco Pilot
The syllabus of ALP (Assistant Loco Pilot) Post recruitment Examination in RRB (Railway Recruitment Board) on which the question paper is based is as follows: First Stage CBT (Common for ALP/Technician) Duration: 60 Min No of Questions: 75 A. Mathematics Number system, BODMAS, Decimals, Fractions, LCM, HCF, Ratio and Proportion, Percentages, Mensuration, Time and Work; Time and Distance, Simple and Compound Interest, Profit and Loss, Algebra, Geometry and Trigonometry, Elementary Statistics, Square Root, Age Calculations, Calendar & Clock, Pipes & Cistern B. General Intelligence and Reasoning Analogies, Alphabetical and Number Series, Coding and Decoding, Mathematical operations, Relationships, Syllogism, Jumbling, Venn Diagram, Data Interpretation and Sufficiency, Conclusions and Decision Making, Similarities and Differences, Analytical reasoning, Classification, Directions, Statement – Arguments and Assumptions C. General Science The syllabus under this shall cover Physics, Chemistry and Life Sciences of 10th standard level. D. General awareness on current affairs in Science & Technology, Sports, Culture, Personalities, Economics, Politics and other subjects of importance. Second Stage CBT: Total Duration: 2 hours and 30 Minutes (for Part A and Part B together) PART A Duration: 90 Min, No of Questions: 100 Minimum percentage of marks for eligibility in various categories: UR -40%, OBC-30%, SC-30%, ST -25%. The percentage of marks for eligibility may be relaxed by 2% for PWD candidates in case of shortage of PWD candidates against vacancies reserved for them. The marks scored in Part A alone shall be used for short listing of candidates for further stages of recruitment process subject to the condition that the candidate is securing qualifying mark in Part B. The syllabus for Part A shall be as below a. Mathematics Number system, BODMAS, Decimals, Fractions, LCM, HCF, Ratio and Proportion, Percentages, Mensuration, Time and Work; Time and Distance, Simple and Compound Interest, Profit and Loss, Algebra, Geometry and Trigonometry, Elementary Statistics, Square Root, Age Calculations, Calendar & Clock, Pipes & Cistern etc. b. General Intelligence and Reasoning Analogies, Alphabetical and Number Series, Coding and Decoding, Mathematical operations, Relationships, Syllogism, Jumbling, Venn Diagram, Data Interpretation and Sufficiency, Conclusions and decision making, Similarities and differences, Analytical reasoning, Classification, Directions, Statement – Arguments and Assumptions etc. c. Basic Science and Engineering The broad topics that are covered under this shall be Engineering Drawing (Projections, Views, Drawing Instruments, Lines, Geometric figures, Symbolic Representation), Units, Measurements, Mass Weight and Density, Work Power and Energy, Speed and Velocity, Heat and Temperature, Basic Electricity, Levers and Simple Machines, Occupational Safety and Health, Environment Education, IT Literacy etc. d. General Awareness on Current Affairs in Science & Technology, Sports, Culture, Personalities, Economics, Politics and any other subjects of importance PART B Duration: 60 Min, No of Questions: 75 Qualifying Mark: 35 % (This is applicable to all candidates and no relaxation is permissible) This part is qualifying in nature and shall have questions from the trade syllabus prescribed by Director General of Employment & Training (DGET). One with ITI/Trade Apprenticeship qualification will be required to appear in the section having questions from the relevant trade. One holding Degree, Diploma and HSC (10+2) having eligibility for the posts of ALP have to select relevant trade from the list of trades listed against their engineering discipline/HSC (10+2). |
Tags |
rajasthan board |
|