#1
22nd July 2014, 03:46 PM
 
 
Previous year question paper West Bengal Joint Entrance Examinations (WBJEE)
Will you please provide me Previous year question paper West Bengal Joint Entrance Examinations (WBJEE)???

#2
23rd July 2014, 09:20 AM
 
 
Re: Previous year question paper West Bengal Joint Entrance Examinations (WBJEE)
Here I am providing you the Previous year question paper West Bengal Joint Entrance Examinations (WBJEE). 1. The number of free electrons per 10 mm of an ordinary copper wire is 2 x 1021. The average drift speed of the electrons is 0.25 mm/s. The current flowing is: A. 0.8 A B. 8 A C. 80 A D. 5 A 2. Which of the following cells is more likely to be damaged due to short circuiting? A. Daniel B. Dry C. Acid D. Fuel 3. A gas expands from 5 litre to 105 litre at a constant pressure 100N/m2. The work done is A. 1 Joule B. 4 Joule C. 8 Joule D. 10 Joule 4. The Helium nuclei can be formed from A. Hydrogen nuclei by process of chain reactionB. Hydrogen nuclei through nuclear fission C. Hydrogen nuclei through nuclear fusion D. None of these 5. In the atom bomb dropped by Americans in 1945 on Nagasaki, Japan, the fissionable material used was A. Helium 4 B. Plutonium 239 C. Uranium 235 D. Uranium 233 6. The engine of a truck moving a straight road delivers constant power. The distance travelled by the truck in time t is proportional to A. t B. t 2 C. √t D. t 3/2 7. The velocity of electron in ground state of hydrogen atom is A. 2 x 105 m/s B. 2 x 106 m/s C. 2 x 107 m/s D. 2 x 108 m/s 8. The radius of the first orbit of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 5.3 x 1011 m; then the radius of the second orbit must be A. 15.9 x 1011 m B. 10.6 x 10 m C. 21.2 x 1011 m D. 42.4 x 1011 m 9. A person pushes a rock of 1010Kg mass by applying a force of only 10N for just 4 seconds. The work done is A. 1000 Joule B. 0 J C. nearly zero D. positive 10. One can take pictures of objects which are completely invisible to the eye using camera films which are sensitive to A. ultraviolet rays B. sodium light C. visible light D. infrared rays 11. Light from a 100 watt filament bulb is passed through an evacuated glass tube containing sodium vapour at a high temperature. If the transmitted light is viewed through a spectrometer, we will observe A. D1 and D2 lines of sodium with good intensity B. dark lines where D1 and D2 lines should have been observed C. continuous radiation from the bulb only D. the entire emission spectrum of sodium 12. Under the action of a constant force, a particle is experiencing a constant acceleration. The power is A. zero B. positive C. negative D. increasing uniformly with time 13. If in a plane convex lens the radius of curvature of the convex surface is 10 cm and the focal length of the lens is 30 cm, the refractive index of the material of the lens will be A. 1.5 B. 1.66 C. 1.33 D. 3 14. A plane convex lens has radius of curvature 30 cm. If the refractive index is 1.33, the focal length of lens is A. 10 cm B. 90 cm C. 30 cm D. 60 cm 15. A beam of light is converging towards a point I on a screen. A plane parallel plate of glass (thickness in the direction of the beam = t, refractive index = µ ) is introduced in the path of the beam. The convergence point is shifted by A. t (µ  1) away B. t (1 + 1/µ ) away C. t (1  1/µ ) nearer D. t (1 + 1/µ ) nearer 16 . In Young's double silt experiment the separation between the silts is halved and the distance between the silts and screen is doubled. The fringe width will be A. unchanged B. halved C. doubled D. quadrupled 17. Wavelength of red light is λ r, violet rays is λ v and X ray is λ x then the order of wavelengths is A. λ x >λ v >λ r B. λ v >λ x >λ r C. λ r >λ x >λ v D. λ r >λ v >λ 18. The amount of work done by the labourer who carries n bricks, each of mass m, to the roof of a house whose height is h is A. n mgh B. mgh/n C. zero D. ghn/m 19. In LCR circuit in the state of resonance, which of the following statements is correct ? (cos φ)= A. 0 B. 0.5 C. 1 D. None of these 20. In LCR circuit, phase difference between voltage and current cannot be A. 80° B. 90° C. 145° D. 0° 21. If speed is plotted along xaxis and Kinetic energy against yaxis, then the graph obtained has a shape similar to that of A. circle B. ellipse C. hyperbola D. parabola 22. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic field requires w units of work to turn it through 60°. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be A. (√ 3) w B. w C. (√ 3w)/2 D. 2w 23. A vertical straight conductor carries a current vertically upwards. A point p lies to the east of it at a small distance and another point Q lies to west of it at the same distance. The magnetic field at p is A. greater than at Q B. same as at Q C. less than at Q D. greater or less at Q depending upon the strength of the current 24. In a parallel arrangement if (R1 > R2), the power dissipated in resistance R1 will be A. less than R2 B. same as R2 C. more than R2 D. none of these 25. For a fuse wire to be installed in the supply line in a house which one of the following is immaterial ? A. the specific resistance of the material of the fuse wire B. the diameter of the fuse wire C. the length of the fuse wire D. none of these 26. If V is voltage applied, Ea is emf drop across the armature, the armature current of a d.c. motor Ia is given by A. (V + Ea)/Ra B. Ea/Ra C. V Ea/Ra D. V/Ra 27. The current of 2.0 amperes passes through a cell of e.m.f. 1.5 volts having internal resistance of 0.15Ω . The potential difference measured in volts across both the terminals of the cell will be A. 1.35 B. 1.50 C. 1.00 D. 1.20 1. Sun releases energy by the process of A. nuclear fusion B. nuclear disintegration C. nuclear fission D. spontaneous combustion 2. The number of atoms per unit cell in a sc, bcc, and fcc are A. 1, 2 and 4 respectively B. 8, 6 and 10 respectively C. 1, 4 and 2 respectively D. 2, 4 and 1 respectively 3. In a diode, at saturation current, the plate resistance is A. zero B. constant and finite C. infinite D. variable but finite 4. An ntype and a ptype silicon semiconductor can be obtained by doping pure silicon with A. sodium and magnesium respectively B. phosphorous and boron respectively C. indium and sodium respectively D. boron and arsenic respectively 5. When the plate voltage of a triode is 150 V, its cut off voltage is 5 V. On increasing the plate voltage to 200 V, the cut off voltage can be A. 4.5V B. 5.0V C. + 2.3 V D. 6.06 V 6. In a diode vacuum tube, the plate current is 5 mA when the plate voltage is 160 V. A grid is introduced between the plate and cathode and a voltage of 2 V is applied to it. The plate current then become A. 20 mA B. 10 mA C. 4mA D. 7.5mA 7. A long spring is stretched by 2cm. Its potential energy is V. If the spring is stretched by 10cm, its potential energy would be A. V/25 B. V/5 C. 5V D. 25V 8. The length of a rod as measured by an observer moving with respect to it is half of its proper length. The speed of the observer with respect to rod is A. 3/2 c ms1 B. c/2 ms1 C. (√3)/2 c ms1 D. 1/√2 c ms1 9. A + µ meson with a proper halflife of 1.8 x 106 s is moving with a speed of 0.9 c with respect to an earth observer. The halflife of this µ meson according to an observer sitting on it is A. 1.8 x 106 s B. 1.8 x √0.19 x 106 s C. 1.8/√0.19 x 106 s D. 1.8 x 0.19 x 106 s 10. The mass per nucleon in an ordinary hydrogen atom is A. l/l6th mass per nucleon in an oxygen atom B. slightly greater than the mass per nucleon in an oxygen atom C. the same as mass per nucleon in an oxygen atom D. slightly smaller than the mass per nucleon in an oxygen atom 11. Consider the following nuclear reaction 2He4 + ZXA = Z+2YA+3 + W What particle does W denote ? A. electron B. positron C. proton D. neutron 12. The function of graphite and the control rods in a nuclear reactor are A. to produce neutrons and to shield the reactor B. to slow down the neutrons and to absorb the excess neutrons respectively C. to absorb the excess neutrons and to shield the reactor respectively D. to absorb neutrons and to reduce the energy of the neutrons respectively 13. In the first observed nuclear reaction, 7N14 was bombarded with α particles. The reaction could be represented as 7N14 + 2He4 = X + 1H1 The element in this reaction is A. 8O17 B. 8F17 C. 8N17 D. 8Ne17 14. In a Bucherer's experiment, the specific charge of some β particles is found to be 1/4th of the value determined by J.J. Thomson. The speed of these β particles is A. √ 5/4 c B. √ 15/4 c C. 1/4 c D. c 15. When the mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point, its angular momentum is directed along A. the radius B. the tangent to orbit C. line at an angle of 45° to the plane of rotation D. the axis of rotation 16. A photocell with a constant p.d. of V volts across it, is illuminated by a point source from a distance 25 cm. When the source is moved to a distance of 1 m, the electrons emitted by the photocell A. carry 1/4th their previous energy B. are 1/16th as numerous as before C. are 1/4th as numerous as before D. carry 1/4th their previous momentum 17. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm is in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The power of combination is A. 1.5D B. 6.5D C. 1.5 D D. 6.5 D 18. A prism splits a beam of white light into its seven constituent colours. This is so because A. phase of different colour is different B. amplitude of different colours is different C. energy of different colours is different D. velocity of different colours is different 19. A prism has a refracting angle of 60° when a ray of light is incident on its face at 45°, it suffers minimum deviation. The angle of minimum deviation is A. 30° B. 60° C. 45° D. 90° 20. A car driver sees an image of a bus in his driving mirror, which has a radius of curvature of 4 m. The bus which is 10 m long, is parallel to and following the car in front of the bus 18 m from the mirror. The apparent length of the bus as seen in the mirror is A. 700 mm B. 670 mm C. 800 cm D. 800 mm 21. A single slit of width d is placed in the path of a beam of wavelength λ . The angular width of principal maximum obtained is A. d/λ B. λ /d C. 2λ /d D. 2d/λ 22. A closed tube, partly filled with a liquid & set horizontal, is rotated about a vertical axis passing through its centre. In the process, the moment of inertia of the system about its axis would A. increase always B. decrease always C. remain constant D. increase if tube is less than half filled, decrease otherwise 23. In an A.C. circuit the instantaneous current through and voltage across a capacitor are represented as I = I0 sin (ω t+ π /4) and v= V0 sin (ω t+ π /8) respectively. The current leads the voltage by A. π /4 B. 3π /8 C. π /2 D. π /8 24. A transformer having 2100 turns in the primary and 4200 turns in the secondary has an a.c. source of 120 V, 10 A connected to its primary. Then the secondary voltage and current are A. 240 V and 5 A B. 120 V and 10 A C. 240 V and 10 A D. 120 V and 20 A 25. When a magnet falls through a metal ring, acceleration through the metal ring during the free falls is A. less than g throughout its fall B. less than g when it is above the ring and more than g when it is below the ring C. more than g throughout its fall D. more than g when it is above the ring and less than g when it is below the ring 26. A copper rod is suspended in a nonhomogeneous magnetic field region. The rod when in equilibrium, will then align itself A. in the region where the magnetic field is strongest B. in the direction in which it was originally suspended C. in the region where the magnetic field is weakest and parallel to the direction of the magnetic field there D. none of these 27. The substance which shows permanent magnetism is called A. antiferromagnetic B. paramagnetic C. diamagnetic D. ferromagnetic 28. A magnetic substance is heated to 800 K and then cool down slowly to 300 K, then it A. retains its magnetism B. retains its magnetism below curie points C. does not retain magnetism D. none of these 29. Two heater wires of equal length are first connected in series and then in parallel. The ratio of heat produced in the two cases is A. 2 : 1 B. 1 : 2 C. 4 : 1 D. 1 : 4 30. A galvanometer with a coil resistance of 100Ω gives a fullscale deflection when a current of 1 mA is passed through it. The resistance of the shunt needed to convert this galvanometer into an ammeter 5 of range 10 A is nearly A. 0.01Ω B. 0.001Ω C. 0.1Ω D. 0.099Ω 31. The resistance of a 50 cm long wire is 10Ω . The wire is stretched to uniform wire of length 100 cm. The resistance now will be A. 15Ω B. 30Ω C. 20Ω D. 40Ω 32. In the given circuit, the currents i, j, and k are in the ratio A. 1:2:3 B. 3:2:1 C. 2:1:3 D. 3:1:2 33. A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q. Consider three points B at the surface, A at centre and C at a distance R/2 from the center. The electric potential at these points are such that A. VA = VB = VC B. VA = VB ≠ VC C. VA ≠ VB ≠ VC D. VA ≠ VB = VC 34. The mass of a proton is 1847 times that of an electron. An electron and a proton are projected into a uniform electric field in a direction of right angles to the direction of the field with the same initial kinetic energy. Then A. both the trajectories will be equally curved B. the proton trajectory will be less curved than the electron trajectory C. the electron trajectory will be less curved than the proton trajectory D. the relative curving of the trajectories will be dependent on the value of initial kinetic energy 35. The wavelength of maximum radiation from the moon is 14 x 106 m. If the value of the constant in Wein's displacement law is 0.00293 mK, the surface temperature of moon is A. 207 K B. 146 K C. 227 K D. 103.5 K 36. A given mass of gas is subjected to an external pressure of 0.5 x 1010 N/m2. If K = 1010Nm2, the ratio of the density before and after applying the pressure is A. 1 : 1 B. 1 : 2 C. 2 : 1 D. 1 : 4 37. The heat reservoir of an ideal Carnot engine is at 800 K and its sink is at 400 K. The amount of heat taken in it in one second to produce useful mechanical work at the rate of 750 K is A. 2250 J B. 1125 J C.1500 J D. 750 J 38. A Carnot engine, with its cold body at 17°C has 50% efficiency. If the temperature of its hot body is now increased by 145°C, the efficiency becomes A. 55% B. 60% C. 40% D. 45% 39. A wire of length 1m increases in length by 104m when heated through 102 degree celsius. The coefficient of volume expansion of the wire is A. 2 x 106 B. 1 x 106 C. 3 x 106 D. 4 x 106 40. The pitch of a sound wave is related to its A. frequency B. amplitude C. velocity D. beats 41. A mass m is hung to a string. After some time, it was observed that mass m moves up from its initial position; this is due to A. decrease in temperature B. increase in temperature C. the statement is wrong D. change in humidity 42. A light spring of force constant 8 Nm1 is cut into two equal halves and the two are connected in parallel; the equivalent force constant of the system is A. 16 Nm1 B. 32 Nm1 C. 8 Nm1 D. 24 Nm 1 43. A light spring of constant k is cut into two equal parts. The spring constant of each part is A. k B. 2k C. k/2 D. 4k 44. A wave equation which gives the displacement along ydirection is given by y = 104 sin (60t + x) where x and y are in meters and t is time in seconds. This represents a wave A. travelling with a velocity of 300 msl in the ve xdirection B. of wavelength π meters C. of frequency 30/π hertz D. of amplitude 104 meter travelling along the positive xdirection 45. The periodic times T of a simple pendulum are observed for different length l. If a graph of log T against log l is plotted, the slope of the graph is A. 2 B. 1/2 C. √ 2 D. 1/√ 2 46. Ordinarily, the value of coefficient of restitution varies from A. 0 to1 B. 0 to 0.5 C. –1 to +1 D. 0.5 to +0.5 47. In a gravitational field, if a body is bound with earth, then total mechanical energy it has is A. a +ve value B. a zero value C. a ve value D. K.E. less than P.E. 48. The mass of a planet is twice the mass of earth and diameter of the planet is thrice the diameter of the earth, then the acceleration due to gravity on the planet's surface is A. g/2 B. 2g C. 2g/9 D. 3g/√ 2 49. A stationary bomb explodes into two parts of masses 3 kg and 1 kg. The total K.E. of the two parts after explosion is 2400J. The K.E. of the smaller part is A 600 J B 1800 J C 1200 J D 2160 J 50. In a perfectly elastic collision A. both momentum and K.E. are conserved B. only momentum is conserved C. only K.E. is conserved D. neither K.E. nor momentum is conserved 51. A bullet of mass 7g is fired at a velocity of 900 ms1 from a rifle of mass 3.5 kg. What is the recoil velocity of the rifle? A 0.9 ms1 B 180 ms1 C 900 ms1 D 1.8 ms1 52. In the arrangement shown in the figure, P and Q are in inflexible strings moving downward with uniform speed U, pulleys A and B are fixed. Mass M move upwards with a speed of A. 2 U cos θ B. U/cos θ C. 2U/cos θ D. U cos θ 53. The figure shows the angular velocitytime graph of a flywheel. The angle, in radians, through which the flywheel turns during 25 sec is A. 75 B 480 C. 615 D. 750 54. A ball is dropped from the top of a building 100m high. At the same instant another ball is thrown upwards with a velocity of 40 ms1 from the bottom of the building. The two balls will meet after A. 5 sec B. 2.5 sec C. 2 sec D. 3 sec 55. A train accelerating uniformly from rest attains a maximum speed of 40 ms1 in 20 seconds. It travels at this speed for 20 seconds and is brought to rest with uniform retardation in further 40 seconds. What is the average velocity during this period? A. 80/3 ms1 B. 40 ms1 C. 25 ms1 D. 30 ms1 56. Two bodies are held and separated by 19.8m vertically one above the other. They are released simultaneously to fall freely under gravity. After 2 seconds, the relative distance between them is: A. 14.9m B. 19.6m C. 19.8m D. 39.2m 57. A particle starts with a velocity of 2 ms1 and moves in a straight line with a retardation of 0.1 ms2. The time at which the particle is 1.5 m far from the starting point is A. 10 sec B. 20 sec C. 30 sec D. 40 sec 58. The units of current in C.G.S. system is A. 1 A B. 1/10 A C. 1/100 A D. 1/1000 A 59. The units of electric field are A. volt/metre B. volt2/metre C. volt x metre D. metre2 60. The unit of moment of inertia is A. kgm B. kgm2 C. kg/m D. kg/m2 61. Fischer Tropsch process is used for the manufacture of A. synthetic petrol B. thermosetting plastics C. ethanol D. benzene 62. Brown ring test is used to detect A. iodide B. nitrate C. iron D. bromide 63. Carbohydrates are used by body mainly A. for obtaining vitamins B. as source of energy C. for all its developmental needs D. for building muscles 64. The polymer containing an amide group is A. Nylon B. Polythene C. Polystyrene D. Terylene 65. The organic compound used as antiknock agent in petroleum is A. (C2H5)4Pb B. TNT C. CH3MgBr D. (C2H5)2Hg 66. Carbyl amine test is used in the detection of A. aliphatic 2o amine B. aromatic 1o amine C. aliphatic 1o amine D. both aliphatic and aromatic 1o amines 67. Aromatic primary amine when treated with cold HNO2 gives A. benzyl alcohol B. nitro benzene C. benzene D. diazonium salt 68. Which of petroleum corresponds to kerosene oil? A. C15  C18 B. C10  C12 C. C5  C9 D. C1  C4 69. Aldehydes and ketones can be distinguished by A. bromoform B. solubility in water C. Tollen's test D. Mollich test 70. Aspirin is obtained by the reaction of CH3COCl with A. phenol B. benzoic Acid C. benzaldehyde D. salicylic acid 71. Correct order of the size of iodine species is A. I > I  > I+ B. I  > I > I+ C. I+ > I > I  D. I  > I+ > I 72. Nitrolin is a name given to A. CaCN2 + C B. Ca3(PO4)2 C. Ca(CN)2 D. Ca(NO3)2 73. The pair of compound, which cannot exit together, is A. NaHCO3 and NaOH B. Na2CO3 and NaOH C. Na2CO3 and NaHCl3 D. NaHCO3 and NaCl 74. One of the constituents of the german silver is A. Ag B. Cu C. Mg D. Al 75. Which compound is optically active? A. 4chloro, lhydroxy butane B. 3o butyl alcohol C. Secondary butyl amine D. nbutyl alcohol 76. Plumbo solvancy implies dissolution of lead in A. bases B. acids C. ordinary water D. CuSO4 sol 77. Indigo dye belongs to A. Vat dye B. Mordant dye C. Direct dye D. Ingrain dye 78. Dipole moment is shown by A. 1, 4dichloro benzene B. cis, 1, 2dichloro ethane C. trans, 1, 2dichloro, 2pentene D. trans, 1, 2dichloro ether 79. When acetylene is passed through H2SO4 containing HgSO4, it gives A. ethyl alcohol B. acetic Acid C. acetaldehyde D. ethylene 80. The compound, which does not leave any residue on heating, is A. NaNO3 B. NH4NO3 C. CuSO4 D. AgNO3 81. Which of the following alloys contain only Cu and Zn? A. Bronze B. Brass C. Gun metal D. Bell metal 82. Gold number is a measure of the A. stability of a colloidal system B. efficiency of a protective colloids C. coagulating power of colloids D. size of the colloidal particle 83. Whose name is not associated with the development of Periodic Table? A. Prout's B. Newlands C. Rutherford D. Loother Meyer 84. Polarisibility of halide ions increases in the order A. F , I , Br , Cl  B. Cl  , Br , I , F  C. I , Br , Cl  , F  D. F , Cl , Br , I  85. Acetylene molecules contain A. 5σ bond B. 4σ bond and 1π bond C. 3σ and 2π D. 3σ and 3π 86. The oxidation number of S in NO2S4O6 is A.  2.5 B. 2.5 C.  10 D. + 10 87. In ideal gas equation, the dimension of R is A. moleatm/ K B. litre/mole C. litreatm/ K/mole D. erg/K 88. An element X which occurs in the first short period has an outer electronic structure s2p1. What are the formula and acidbase character of its oxides? A. XO3, basic B. X2O3, basic C. X2O3, acidic D. XO2, acidic 89. The uncertainty in the position of a moving bullet of mass 10 gm is 105 m. Calculate the uncertainty in its velocity. A. 5.2 x 10 28m/sec B. 3.0 x 10 28m/sec C. 5.2 x 10 22m/sec D. 3 x 10 22m/sec 90. Which is not paramagnetic? A. O2 B. O2 + C. O2 2 D. O2  91. What is wrongly stated about electrochemical series? A. It is the representation of element in order of increasing or decreasing standard electrode reduction potential B. It does not compare the relative reactivity of metals C. It compares relative strengths of oxidising agents D. H2 is centrally placed element 92. Which pairs of ions are isoelectronic? A. F  and Cl  B. F  and O  C. Na+ and K+ D. Na+ and Mg+2 93. The ionization energy of N2 is more than that of O2 because A. of the extra stability of half filled porbitals in N2 B. of the smaller size of N2 C. the former contains less number of electrons D. the former is less electronegative 94. Stainless steel is an alloy of iron with A. 8% Cr, 5% Mn B. 10% Ni, 2% Mn, C. 2%Cr, 3%C D. 12%Cr, 1%N 95. Highest pH (14) is given by A. 0.1 M H2SO4 B. 0.1 M NaOH C. 1 N NaOH D. 1 N HCl 96. N2 atom has 3 unpaired electrons, because of A. Hund's Rule B. Uncertaintity Principle C. Pauli's Exclusion Principle D. Aufbau's Rule 97. A group of atoms can function as a ligand only when A. it is a small molecule B. it has an unshared electron pair C. it is a negatively charged ion D. it is positively charged ion 98. When potassium dichromate crystals are heated with conc. HCl, A. O2 is evolved B. Chromyl chloride vapours are evolved C. Cl2 is evolved D. No reaction takes place 99. Aluminium is more reactive than Fe. But Al is less easily corroded than iron because A. Al is noble metal B. Fe forms both mono and divalent ions C. Al forms a protective oxide layer D. Fe undergoes reaction easily with H2O 100. The ratio of Cv/Cp for inert gas is A. 1.33 B. 1.66 C. 2.13 D. 1.99 101. The pH of blood is A. less than 6 B B. greater than 7 and less than 6 C. greater than 8 and less than 9 D. greater than 10 102. Sodium carbonate is manufactured by Solvay process. The recycled products are A. CO2 and NH3 B. CO2 and NH4Cl C. NaCl D. CaC12 and CaO 103. Among the following which is the weakest base? A. NaOH B. Ca(OH)2 C. KOH D. Zn(OH}2 104. The set of quantum number not applicable for an electron in an atom is A. n = 1, l = 1, m = 1, S = +1/2 B. n = 1, l = 0, m = 0, S = +1/2 C. n = 1, l = 0, m = 0, S =  1/2 D. n = 2, l = 0, m = 0, S = +1/2 105. The conversion of A → B follows second order kinetics, tripling the concentration of A will increase the rate of formation of B by a factor of A. 1/4 B. 2 C. 1/2 D. 9 106. Amino group in the benzene group can be protected by A. arylation B. salfoniation C. chlorination D. acetylation 107. The light radiation with discrete quantities of energy is called A. electron B. photon C. positron D. meson 108. How many primary amines are possible for the formula C4H11N? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 109. Base catalysed aldol condensation occurs with A. propanaldehyde B. benzaldehyde C. 2, 2dimethyl propionaldehyde D. none of the above 110. A sample of chloroform before being used as an anaesthetic is tested by A. Fehling's solution B. ammonical cuprous chloride C. silver nitrate solution D. silver nitrate solution after boiling with alcoholic potassium hydroxide 111. 1chlorobutane on reaction with alcoholic potash gives A. 1butene B. 1 butanol C. 2butene D. 2 butanol 112. The halogen which is most reactive in the halogenation of alkanes under sunlight is A. chlorine B. bromine C. iodine D. fluorine 113. The highest b.p. is expected for A. iso octane B. only ketone C. noctane D. nbutane 114. The bond between carbon atom (1) and carbon atom (2) in compound N≡ CCH=CH2 involves the hybrids as A. sp3 and sp2 B. sp3 and sp C. sp and sp2 D. sp and sp 115. If two compounds have the same empirical formula but different molecular formula, they must have A. different percentage composition B. different molecular weight C. same viscosity D. same vapour density 116. Optical isomerism is shown by A. Butanol1 B. Butanol2 C. Butene1 D. Butene2 117. The ion that cannot be precipitated by both HCl and H2S is A. Pb2+ B. Cu+ C. Ag+ D. Sn2+ 118. The aqueous solution of the following salts will be coloured in case of A. B. LiNO3 C. D. ArCl3 Zn(NO3)2 CO(NO3)2 119. The highest degree of paramagnetism per mole of the compound at 25oC will be shown by A. MnSO4.7H2O B. COCl2.6H2O C. FeCl3.4H2O D. NiCl2.6H2O 120. Bromine can be liberated from KBr solution by the action of A. iodine solution B. chlorine water C. sodium chloride D. potassium iodide 121. If A and B be any two sets, then (A ∪ B)' is equal to A. A ∩ B B. A ∪ B C. A' ∩ B' D. A' ∪ B' 122. If A = {1, 2, 3, 4}then which of the following are functions from A to itself? A. f4 = { (x, y) : x + y = 5 } B. f3 = { (x, y) : y < x } C. f2 = { (x, y) : x + y > 4 } D. f1 = { (x, y) : y = x + 1 } 123. The solution of 6 + x  x2 > 0 is A. 1 < x < 2 B. 2 < x < 3 C. 2 < x < 1 D. none of the above 1  iz 124. If z = x + iy and ω = , then  ω  = 1 implies that in the complex plane, z  i A. z lies on the unit circle B. z lies on the imaginary axis C. z lies on the real axis D. none of the above 125. The first term of a G.P., whose second term is 2 and sum to infinity is 8, will be A. 6 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1 126. Equation of circle having diameters 2x  3y = 5 and 3x  4y = 7, and radius 8 is A. x2 + y2  2x + 2y  62 = 0 B. x2 + y2 + 2x + 2y  2 = 0 C. x2 + y2 + 2x  2y + 62 = 0 D. none of the above 127. A and B are points in the plane such that PA/PB = K (constant) for all P on a circle. The value of K cannot be equal to A. 1/2 B. 1/2 C. 1 D. 1 128. If the centroid and circumcentre of a triangle are (3, 3) and (6, 2) respectively, then the orthocentre is A. (3, 5) B. (3, 1) C. (3, 1) D. (9, 5) 129. If sin x + cos x = 1/5, 0 ≤ x ≤ π, then tan x is equal to A.  4/3 or 3/4 B. 4/3 C. 4/5 D. none of the above 130. If r1, r2, r3 in a triangle be in H.P., then the sides are in A. H.P. B. A.P. C. G.P. D. none of the above 131. cot θ = sin 2θ (θ ≠ nπ, n integer) if θ equals A. 45o and 90o B. 45o and 60o C. 90o only D. 45o 132. If a = (b  c) sec θ, then sin = b  c 2 A. cos θ B. cot θ C. tan θ D. sin θ 133. The average of n numbers x1, x2, x3, ........, xn is M. If xn is replaced by x', then new average is M  xn + x' A. n (n  1)M + x' B. n nM  xn + x' C. n D. M  xn + x' 134. In an entrance test, there are multiple choice questions. There are four possible answers to each question of which one is correct. The probability that a student knows the answer to a question is 90%. If he gets the correct answer to a question, then the probability that he was guessing is A. 1/9 B. 36/37 C. 1/37 D. 47/40 135. The value of tan [cos 1 (4/5) + tan 1 (2/3)] is A. 16/7 B. 6/17 C. 7/16 D. none of the above 136. Lt x  [x] , where k is an integer, is equal to x → k A. 1 B. 1 C. 0 D. 2 tan x [log (x  2)] 137. The values of x where the function f (x) = is discontinuous are given by x2  4x + 3 A. ( ∞, 2) ∪ {3, nπ, n ≥ 1} B. ( ∞, 2) C. ( ∞, 2) ∪ {2nπ, π/2, n = 1} D. none of the above d2x 138. If y = x + ex, then is dy2 1 A. (1 + ex)2 ex B. (1 + ex)2 ex C. (1 + ex)3 D. ex 139. At x = 5π/6, f(x) = 2 sin 3x + 3 cos 3x is A. zero B. maximum C. minimum D. none of the above 140. If a < 0, the function (eax + eax) is a strictly monotonically decreasing function for values of x is given by A. x < 1 B. x > 1 C. x < 0 D. x > 0 141. ∫ [sin (log x) + cos (log x)] dx is equal to A. sin (log x) + cos (log x) + c B. sin (log x) + c C. x cos (log x) + c D. none of the above 142.  x cos π/2 x  dx is A. 0 B. 1 C. (π√2 + 4√2  8)/π2 D. none of the above 143. Solution of differential equation xdy  ydx = 0 represents A. parabola whose vertex is at origin B. circle whose centre is at origin C. a rectangular hyperbola D. straight line passing through origin 144. If h(x) = f(x) + f(x), then h(x) has got an extreme value at a point where f '(x) is A. even function B. odd function C. zero D. none of the above 145. If x = 1/3, then the greatest term in the expansion of (1 + 4x)8 is A. 3rd term B. 6th term C. 5th term D. 4th term 146. Roots of x2 + k = 0, k < 0 are A. real and equal B. rational C. real and distinct D. equal 147. In a quadratic equation with leading coefficient 1, a student reads the coefficient 16 of x strongly as 19 and obtains the roots as 15 and  4. The correct roots are A. 8, 8 B. 6, 10 C.  6,  10i D.  8,  8 148. The value of m for which the equation x2  mx2 + 3x  2 = 0 has two roots equal in magnitude but opposite in sign is A. 4/5 B. 3/4 C. 2/3 D. 1/2 149. If 1/(ba) + 1/(bc) = 1/a + 1/c, then a, b, c are in A. H.P. B. G.P. C. A.P. D. none of the above 150. If every term in G.P. is positive and also every term in the sum of two proceeding terms, then the common ratio of the G.P. is A. (1  √5)/2 B. (√5 +1 )/2 C. (√5  1)/2 D. 1 151. If y =  (x3 + x6/2 + x9/3 + ......), then A. x3 = 1  ey B. x3 = log(1 + y) C. x3 = ey D. x3 = 1 + ey 152. Vinay, Manish, Rahul, and Sumit have to give speeches in a class. The teacher can arrange the order of their presentation in A. 12 ways B. 24 ways C. 4 ways D. 256 ways 153. There are n (>2) points in each of two parallel lines. Every point on one line is joined to every point on the other line by a line segment drawn within the lines. The number of points (between the lines) in which these segments intersect is A. nC2 x nC2 B. 2nC2  2(nC2) C. 2nC2  2(nC1) + 2 D. none of the above 154. The number of ways in which 7 persons can sit around a table so that all shall not have the same neighbours in any two arrangements is A. 360 B. 720 C. 270 D. 180 155. The length of sub normal to the parabola y2 = 4ax at any point is equal to A. a√2 B. 2√2a C. a/√2 D. 2a 156. The expansion of (8  3x)3/2 in terms of power of x is valid only if A. x > 8/3 B.  x  < 8/3 C. x < 3/8 D. x < 8/3 157. If y =  (x3/2 + x3  x4/4 + ......), then x is A. ey  1 B. log(1 + C. ey + 1 D. ey y) 158. If a, b, c are in G.P., then logam, logbm, logcn are in A. G.P. B. H.P. C. A.P. D. none of the above 159. If A is a matrix of order 3 x 4, then each row of A has A. 12 elements B. 3 elements C. 7 elements D. 4 elements 160. If A = i 0 0 i , n ∈ N, then A4n equals A. 0 i i 0 B. 0 0 0 0 C. 1 0 0 1 D. 0 i i 0 161. If α , β , γ are the roots of the equation x2 + px + q = 0, then the value of the determinant α β γ β γ α γ α β is A. q B. 0 C. p D. p2  2q 162. If A, B, C are any three matrices, then A' + B' + C' is equal to A. A + B + C B. (A + B + C)' C.  (A + B + C) D. a null matrix 163. If A is any matrix, then the product A.A, i.e., A2 is defined only when A is a matrix of order A. m > n B. m = n C. m < n D. m ≥ n 164. The area of the parallelogram of which i andi+ j are adjacent is A. √2 B. 1/2 C. 2 D. 1 165. If the direction cosines of line are (1/c, 1/c, 1/c), then A. 0 < c < 1 B. c > 2 C. c > 0 D. ± √ 3 x  2 y  3 z  4 166. The sine of the angle between the straight line = = and 3 4 5 the plane 2x  2y + z = 5 is A. 10/(6√5) B. 4/(5√2) C. √ 2/10 D. (2√ 3)/5 167. Constant term in the expansion of (x  1/x)10 is A. 152 B.  152 C.  252 D. 252 168. The latus rectum of the ellipse 5x2 + 9y2 = 45 is A. 5/3 B. 10/3 C. (2√5)/3 D. √5/3 169. i2 + i4 + i6 + ........ (2n + 1) terms = A.  1 B. 1 C.  i D. i 170. If the sum of the series 2, 5, 8, 11, ...... is 60100, then n is A. 100 B. 200 C. 150 D. 250 171. Two of the lines represented by the equation ay4 + bxy3 + cx2y2 + dx3y + ex4 = 0 will be perpendicular, then A. (b + d)(ad + be) + (e  a)2(a + c + e) = 0 B. (b + d)(ad + be) + (e + a)2(a + c + e) = 0 C. (b  d)(ad  be) + (e  a)2(a + c + e) = 0 D. (b  d)(ad  be) + (e + a)2(a + c + e) = 0 172. The probability that an event A happens on trial of an experiment is 0.4. Three independent trials of the experiment are formed. The probability that the event A happens at least once is A. 0.936 B. 0.784 C. 0.904 D. 0.984 173. The numbers are selected at random from 1, 2, 3, .... 100 and are multiplied, then the probability correct to two places of decimals that the product thus obtained is divisible by 3, is A. 0.55 B. 0.44 C. 0.22 D. 0.33 174. If p2 + q2 = 1 and m2 + n2 = 1, then A.  pm + qn  ≤ 0 B.  pm + qn  ≤ 1 C.  pq + mn  > 1 D.  pq + mn  < 2 175. In a football championship, there were played 153 matches. Every two team played one match with each other. The number of teams participating in the championship is A. 9 B. 11 C. 13 D. 18 176. The solution of  (x  1) + 2  = 1 is A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. φ 177. The equation loge x + loge (1 + x) = 0 can be written as A. x2 + x  e = 0 B. x2 + x  1 = 0 C. x2 + x + 1= 0 D. x2 + xe  e = 0 178. Both the roots of the equation (x  b)(x  c) + (x  a)(x  c) + (x  a)(x  b) = 0 are always A. positive B. negative C. real D. imaginary 179. The value of tan x/tan 3x whenever defined never lies between A. 1/3 and 3 B. 1/4 and 4 C. 1/5 and 5 D. 5 and 6 180. Given (a + d) > (b + c) where a, b, c, d are real numbers, then A. a, b, c, d are in A.P. B. 1/a, 1/b, 1/c, 1/d are in A.P. C. (a + b), (b + c), (c + d), (a + d) are in A.P. D. 1/(a + b), 1/(b + c), 1/(c + d), 1/(a + d) are in A.P. For more detailed paper here I am attaching pdf files of previous year question paper West Bengal Joint Entrance Examinations. 