Power Grid Exam for Electrical Engineering question papers

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[Kiran Chandar]

The applicants who have Bachelor of Technology/ Bachelor of Engineering with a minimum of 65% marks (50% marks for SC/ST/OBC/PH) are eligible for the Power Grid Corporation exam.

Paper pattern:

For General Aptitude section:

1 mark questions: 5 Questions

2 mark questions: 5 Questions

Total Number of Questions: 1

Total Marks Allotted:

For Subject Specific Questions:

1 mark questions: 25 Questions

2 mark questions: 30 Questions

Total Number of Questions: 55

Total Marks Allotted: 85


You are asking for the Power Grid Exam for Electrical Engineering question papers. Here I am providing you the Power Grid Exam for Electrical Engineering question papers. These are as follows:

1 An ice block submerged in the water, if the ice melts level of water (increase,decrease,remains same,none)

2 Simply supported beam with w point load at the middle, max. bending moment?(wl/4)

3 Simply supported beam with UDL ,max.deflection (wl4/384EI)

4 Cantilevel beam point load at tip,max.bending momemt comes at (end)

5 When bearing life L10 represents (bearings 10%survive,bearings 10% fails, none )

6 For welding high carbon steels which type of flame is used (oxidizing,carburizing,neutral,none)

7. Arrange the following cutting tools in decreasing order of machining hardness…Ceramics

8. When P1 and P2 are the loads acting on bearings with life L1 and L2 then L1/L2=?
L1/L2={P2/P1}10/3

9.Product simplification does not mean??
Product characterization

10 Which of the following process has the most scope in manufacturing?
CAD/CAM, CAM, CIM, All the above.

11. Concurrent engineering means?
(Manufacturing, designing, both,none)

12. Which manufacturing process yields higher output and increases worker productivity-
(process layout,line+process,functional layout)

13. 18-4-1 represents-, Tungsten-Cr-Vn

14 For which material is negative allowance provided-(Graphite,steel,bronze,cast iron)

15. What is the recrystallisation temperature of tin- (60,300,1000,none)

16. What is the purpose of borax in soldering-

17. Top gates are provided in which type of casting-(Shallow casting,simple,complex,none)
18. Which statement is true regarding simple gear trains-(i/p and o/p shafts r fixed, each shaft has 2 gears, i/p & o/p shafts r moving)

19. What is the purpose of normalizing- (Refining of grain structure)

20. As the grain size is decreased-(Hardness increases,corrosion resistance decreases,both)

21. Isothermal gas is filled in a vessel at a pressure P and temperature T then considering the compressible forces as the height increases pressure ??(linearly increases linearly decreases exponentially increase )

22. A bottle is filled with water and air and is tied to a string and is rotated in horizontal direction. Then in which direction will air bubble travel?
(bottom,neck,uniformly spread)

23. A empty bottle(in vaccum) filled with a gas at temp T and press P when the pressure of bottle reaches P temperature of the gas is _? (T,T/K,TK)

24. Bearing somerfield number _ with load on bearing?
(increases,decreases,no change)

25. Critical radius for a sphere is-(2k/h)

26. Critical radius exist for_ (spherical,cylindrical,both,slab)

27. Convectional resistance/internal resistance is called (biot number)

28. Nusselt no. is? (hl/k)

29. EOQ=?

30 Which statement is true regarding critical path method? (i only one critical path exists for a network, more than one with same duration,)

31. Shipment cost,inspection cost,storage cost comes under_ (carrying cost ,holding cost,)

32. Ischronous governers sensitivity is- (zero,infinite)

33. self energized brakes are-(friction moment acts in the direction of application of force,opposite to the direction of force, does not need a force to act ,)

34 The ratio of heat capacities for evaporator and condenser is_ (Zero,infinity)

35. when steam and air mixture with partial pressure 0.06 and 0.07 enters a condenser what is the condenser pressure? (0.06,0.07,0.53,0.03)

36. In pulverized burning of coal heat transfer from boiler to water occurs through_( predominant radiation, convection, conduction, conduction+convection)

37. Rankine cycle efficiency for same parameters increases mostly with_(reheat, regeneration, super heating )

38. Ericson cycle with all reversible processes assume_(carnot cycle,stirling,brayton

39. Air delivery tank at outlet of reciprocating compressor is provided for_ (provide constant pressure, avoid cavitation, )

40. High speed centrifugal pump has _?
(vanes faces in forward direction side,backward,radial vanes)

41. Thermal efficiency in decreasing order_?
(Otto cycle>dual cycle>diesel cycle)

42. When a 1000 K body comes in contact with atmosphere at 300K a loss of 9000 KJ heat is transferred. The net available energy transferred is_
43. When entropy of a system increases_?
(unavailable energy increases )

44. Rolling is a process widely used for_?

(I section,tubes)

45. Tool nomenclature_?

46. In francis turbine movement of steam?

47. For low power consumption _?
(rake angle should be increased / decreased, nose angle increased/ decreased)

47. Continuous chips occur in_?
(High speeds,low speeds,both,none)

48. Primary forces in a reciprocating engine_?
(fully balanced, partially balanced, completely unbalanced, none)

49. In proximate analysis pyrogallol is used for analysis of which element_?
(nitrogen,oxygen)

50. Sulphur content in fuel greatly affects_?
(corrosion)

51. Heat transfer through radiation can be increased by_?

(decreasing emissivity and increases temperature of hot body)

52. which theory of failure clearly explains the failure in case of ductile material?
(Maximun shear stress theory or Guests or trescas theory)

53. When a material is subjected to continuous cycles which limit is being verified?
(Endurance limit)

54. where is stress concentration maximum?
(notches, stress reducing throughcuts)

55. Power transmitted through a belt drive_?
P(T2-T1)

56. According to Eulers theory crippling or buckling load is
(Wcr = Cπ2EI/l2)

57. During sensible heating, specific humidity_?
(remains constant)

58. COP of a refrigerator is _?
(greater than 1 )

59. The maximum temperature in a refrigeration cycle is_?
(less than/greater than/equal to critical temperature)
60. The pressure at the throat of the nozzle_?
(maximum,min)

61. for a statically determinate set of forces for equilibrium_?
(∑ f(X),f(Y),f(Z)=0,∑M=0)

62. For a statically determinate set of forces-
(there r as many equations as the no. of unknowns)
63. 1-2-3 analysis is used for_?
(1.break even analysis, ??)

64. A problem on mean time of service something like a salesman has a rating of 120. considering 10% allowance time calculate the time required to serve 120???

65. A problem n determining time in a queue??

66. Energy equation for a laminar flow is _?
(Uniform and steady ,non uniform and unsteady)
67. Undercuts in welding occurs due to_?
(low welding current,high welding current)

68. Work holding equipment in shearing??

69. At the centre of a nozzle _?
(Mach no=1;=1)

1 (95.6x 910.3) ÷ 92.56256 = 9?
(A) 13.14
(B) 12.96
(C) 12.43
(D) 13.34
(E) None of these
2. (4 86%of 6500) ÷ 36 =?
(A) 867.8
(B) 792.31
(C) 877.5
(D) 799.83
(E) None of these
3. (12.11)2 + (?)2 = 732.2921
(A)20.2
(B) 24.2
(C)23.1
(D) 19.2
(E) None of these
4.576÷ ? x114=8208
(A)8
(B)7
(C)6
(D)9
(E) None of these
5. (1024—263—233)÷(986—764— 156) =?
(A)9
(B)6
(C)7
(D)8
(E) None of these
6. ?125÷5x ?=6265
(A)1253
(B) 1250
(C)1245
(D) 1550
(E) None of these
7.(42)2÷6.3 x 26 =?
(A)7182
(B) 7269
(C)7260
(D) 7240
(E) None of these
8.384×12×2=?

(A)9024
(B) 9216
(C)6676
(D) 6814
(E) None of these
9.6534÷40÷33=?
(A)3.06
(B) 5.25
(C)4.82
(D) 6.12
(E) None of these
10. ?2704 x ?2209=?
(A)1996
(B)2444
(C)2452
(D)1983
(E)None of these
11.2536+4851—?=3450+313
(A)3961
(B)4532
(C)3624
(D)4058
(E) None of these
12. (2560 x 1.4) +(7400 x 0.6) =?
(A)7512
(B) 9746
(C)6523
(D) 8024
(E) None of these
13. 36%of 850+? %of 592 = 750
(A)73
(B)89
(C)82
(D)75
(E) None of these
14.64%of 2650+40% 0f 320=?
(A)1824
(B) 1902
(C)1829
(D) 1964
(E) None of these
15. 486+32×25—59=?
(A) 514
(B) 528
(C) 599
(D) 507
(E) None of these

16. 1827÷ 36 x ?=162.4
(A)4.4
(B)3.2
(C)2.1
(D) 3.7
(E) None of these
17. 1008÷36=?
(A)28
(B) 32.5
(C)36
(D) 22.2
(E) None of these
18. 56.21 +2.36+5.41 —21.4+1.5=?
(A)40.04
(B) 46.18
(C)44.08
(D) 43.12
(E) None of these
19. 65%of 320+?=686
(A) 480
(B) 452
(C)461
(D) 475
(E) None of these
20. 83250÷?=74×25
(A)50
(B) 45
(C)40
(D) 55
(E) None of these
21. ?7744=?
(A)88
(B)62
(C)58
(D)78
(E)None of these
22.35%of ?=242
(A)729
(B)652
(C)693
(D)759
(E) None of these
23. 1256+4813+765=?
(A)5642
(B) 5876
(C)6788

(D) 6878
(E) None of these
24. 22 x4+(?)2=(13)2
(A) 81
(C) 27
(B) 9
(D) 64
(E) None of these
25. 432+2170+35=?
(A)494
(B) 475
(C)481
(D) 469
(E) None of these
26. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3: 4 :5 respectively. If the sum of
the first and third numbers is more than the second number by 52, then
which will be the largest number?
(A) 65
(B) 52
(C) 79
(D) 63
(E) None of these
27. The compound interest on a certain amount for 2 years at the rate of
8 p.c.p.a. is Rs.312. What will be the simple interest on the same amount
and at the same rate and same time?
(A)Rs. 349.92
(B) Rs. 300
(C)Rs. 358.92
(D) Rs. 400
(E) None of these
28. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 7 ems. If the length
is decreased by 4 cm. and the breadth is increased by 3 cms., then the
area of the new rectangle will be the same as the area of the original
rectangle. What will be the perimeter of the original rectangle?
(A)45 cms.
(B)40 cems.
(C)50 cms.
(D)55 cms.
(E)None of these
29. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number
formed by reversing the digits is greater than the original number by 54,
then what will be the original number?
(A)28
(B) 48
(C)39
(D) 93
(E) None of these

30. In a fraction, twice the numerator is two more than the denominator.
If 3 is added to the numerator and the denominator each, then the
resultant fraction will be 2/3 .What was the original fraction ?
(A)5/18
(B)6/13
(C)13/6
(D)7/12
(E) None of these
31. Four-fifth of a number is 10 more than two-third of the same number.
What is the number?
(A) 70
(B) 75
(C) 69
(D) 85
(E) None of these
32. A shopkeeper purchased 200 bulbs for Rs. 10 each. However, 5 bulbs
were fused and had to be thrown away. The remaining were sold at Rs. 12
each. What will be the percentage
profit?
(A) 25
(B) 15
(C) 13
(D) 17
(E) None of these
33. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the number
series given below?
25, 34, 52,79, 115,?
(A)160
(B) 140
(C)153
(D) 190
(E)None of these
34. What number should replace both the question marks (?) in the
following question ?
?/144= 49 /?
(A)95
(B) 76
(C)82
(D) 84
(E)None of these
35. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 252. What is the sum of
the smallest and the largest numbers?
(A)158
(B) 148
(C)168
(D) 198
(E) None of these

36. Ajay spends 25% of his salary on house rent, 5% on food, 15% on
travel, 10% on clothes and the remaining amount of Rs. 27,000 is saved.
What is Ajay’s income?
(A) Rs. 60,000
(B) Rs. 80,500
(C) Rs. 60,700
(D) Rs. 70,500
(E) None of these
37. In how many different ways, can the letters of the word ‘CRISIS’ be
arranged ?
(A) 150
(B) 240
(C) 120
(D) 200
(E) None of these
38. At each corner of a square park with side equal to 40 m, there is a
flower bed in the form of a sector of radius 14 m. What is the area of
the remaining part of the park?
(A)984 Square m
(B) 789 Square m
(C) 1014 Square m
(D) 1024 Square m
(E) None of these
39. The length of a rectangular field is thrice its breadth. If the cost
of cultivating the field at Rs. 367.20 per square meter is Rs. 27,540,
then what is the perimeter of the rectangle?
(A)47m
(B) 39m
(C)52m
(D)40m
(E) None of these
40. If the fractions8/5,7/2,9/5,5/4,4/5 are arranged in descending order
of their values, which one will be fourth?
(A)4/5
(B)5/4
(C)9/5
(D)8/5
(E) 7/2
41. The present ages of Chetna and Shikha are in the ratio of 5 :7
respectively. After 7 years, their ages will be in the ratio of 11:14
respectively. What is the difference between their ages?
(A)9 years
(B) 4 years
(C)5 years
(D) 7 years
(E) None of these

42. If 13 men can complete a piece of work in 36 days, then in how many
days will 18 men complete the same work?
(A)16 days
(B) 20 days
(C)26 days
(D) 30 days
(E) None of these
43. If the area of a circle is 75.44 square cm then what is the
circumference of the circle?
(A)29.2 cm
(B) 28.9 cm
(C)30.8 cm
(D) 40.2 cm
(E) None of these
44. Girish started a business investing Rs. 45,000. After 3 months, Vijay
joined him with a capital of Rs. 60,000. After another 6 months, Ankush
joined them with a capital of Rs. 90,000. At the end of the year, they
made a profit of Rs. 16,500. What is Girish’s share of profit ?
(A) Rs. 5,500
(B) Rs. 6,000
(C) Rs. 6,600
(D) As. 5,900
(E) None of these
45. What is the average age of a family of five members, whose ages are
42, 49, 56, 63 and 35 years respectively?
(A)60 years
(B) 49 years
(C)45 years
(D) 58 years
(E) None of these
46. A and B are two taps which can fill a tank individually in 10 minutes
and 20 minutes respectively. However, there is a leakage at the bottom
which can empty a filled tank in 40 minutes. If the tank is empty
initially, how much time will both the taps take to fill the tank
(leakage is still there) ?
(A) 8 minutes
(B) 7 minutes
(C) 10 minutes
(D)15 minutes
(E) None of these
47. What is 50% of 40% of Rs. 3,450?
(A) Rs. 690
(B) As. 520
(C) Rs. 517.5
(D) Rs. 499.2
(E) None of these
48. If an amount of Rs. 5,86,700 is distributed equally amongst 25
persons, then how much would each person get?

(A) Rs. 2,54,876
(B) Rs. 2,34,68
(C) Rs. 3,74,20
(D) Rs. 1,95,62
(E) None of these
49. An urn contains 9 blue, 7 white and 4 black balls. If 2 balls are
drawn at random, then what is the probability that only one ball is
white?
(A) 71/190
(B) 121/190
(C) 91/190
(D) 93/190
(E) None of these
50. If the price of 5 transistors and 2 pen stands is Rs. 810, then what
will be the price of 7 transistors and 9 pen stands?
(A) Rs. 1,320
(B) Rs. 1,500
(C) Rs.1,150
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
ANSWERS:
1 - D 2 - C 3 - B 4 - A 5 - D 6 - A 7 - E 8 - B 9 - E 10 - B 11 - C 12- D 13 - D 14 - A 15 - B16 - B 17 - A 18 - C 19 - E 20 - B 21 - A 22 - C 23 - E 24 - B 25 - A 26- A 27 - B 28 - C 29 - C 30 - D 31 - B 32 - D 33 - A 34 - D 35 - C 36 -A 37 - E 38 - A 39 - D 40 - B 41 - E 42 - C 43 - C44 - A 45 - B 46 - A 47 - A 48 - B 49 - E 50 - D

1. six members of a familyare travelling these are a,b,c,d,e, and f. b is
the son of c but c is not mothers of b. a and c are a married couple, e
is the brother of c. d is the daughter of a. f is the brother of b.
who is the wife of e:
(a) a
(b)f
(c)b
(d) cant be determined
2.six members of a familyare travelling these are a,b,c,d,e, and f. b is
the son of c but c is not mothers of b. a and c are a married couple, e
is the brother of c. d is the daughter of a. f is the brother of b.
which of following is pair of female
(a)ae
(b)bd
(c)df
(d)ad
3. six members of a familyare travelling these are a,b,c,d,e, and f. b is
the son of c but c is not mothers of b. a and c are a married couple, e
is the brother of c. d is the daughter of a. f is the brother of b.
how is e related to d:
(a) father
(b)brother
(c)uncle
(d)none of these
4.there is a group of five teachers a,b,c,d and e
- b and c teaches maths and geography
- a and c teach maths and history
- b and d teach political science and geofraphy
- d and e tech political science and biology
- e teaches biology, history, and political science
who teaches political science, geography and biology
(a)e
(b)d
(c)c
(d)b
5. there os a group of five teachers a,b,c,d and e
- b and c teaches maths and geography
- a and c teach maths and history
- b and d teach political science and geofraphy
- d and e tech political science and biology
- e teaches biology, history, and political science
who teaches in mathematics, political science and geography:
(a) a
(b)b
(c)d
(d)e
6. there os a group of five teachers a,b,c,d and e
- b and c teaches maths and geography

- a and c teach maths and history
- b and d teach political science and geofraphy
- d and e tech political science and biology
- e teaches biology, history, and political science
who teaches maths, geography and history
(a) c
(b)e
(c)a
(d)b
7. there os a group of five teachers a,b,c,d and e
- b and c teaches maths and geography
- a and c teach maths and history
- b and d teach political science and geofraphy
- d and e tech political science and biology
- e teaches biology, history, and political science
who teaches maths, geography and history
(a) e
(b)a
(c)d
(d)c
8.there os a group of five teachers a,b,c,d and e
- b and c teaches maths and geography
- a and c teach maths and history
- b and d teach political science and geofraphy
- d and e tech political science and biology
- e teaches biology, history, and political science
who teaches political science, history and biology
(a)a
(b)b
(c)c
(d)e
9.1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
how is ravi related to raju
(a)brother
(b)uncle
(c)cousin
(d)maternal uncle
10.1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
how ravi related to ashok
(a)maternal uncle
(b)cousin
(c)brother in law

(d)father in law
11.1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
how is ram related to suresh:
(a)brother
(b)cousin
(c)uncle
(d)brother in law
12. 1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
what is the surname of sanjay:
(a) chawla
(b) chopra
(c) khanna
(d) suresh
13. 1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
how is ram related to rita:
(a) brother
(b) uncle
(c) maternal uncle
(d) cousin
14. 1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
renu is sanjay's ----------
(a) sister
(b)sister in law
(c)aunty
(d)cousin
15. 1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
raju's sur name is:
(a) chawla
(b)khanna

(c)chopra
(d)none of these
16. 1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
sumit and suresh are related as:
(a) brother in law
(b)cousin
(c)brother
(d)uncle
17. 1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
how sonu related to ravi.
(a) brother
(b)brother in law
(c)nephew
(d)father
18.1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
how garima is related to mr. & mrs. khanna:
(a)daughter
(b)neice
(c)sister in law
(d)daughter in law
19. 1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
how ashok and sanjay are lated to mr. mrs. copra:
(a)sons
(b)nephews
(c)grand son
(d)none of these
20. in the office amongst staff a,b,c,d ,e of g. h there is only
computer. a programe has to be made and can be made by only one person at
a time. the office has 3 shifts, the morning shift from 6 am-12 am has 3
staff, afternoon shift from 12am. to 6 pm. has 3 staff, evening shift
from 6 pm to 12 pm has 2 staff one of the person did not used a printer:
1 b is the last person who use the computer
2 h use the computer after a and came iwth a

3 d used the computer after h and come with h but before e
4 c used the computer before b but arrived after e
5 a use the computer before f and arrived before g
if g used a computer justbefore c who use 4:
(a) a
(b)b
(c)e
(d)d
21. in the office amongst staff a,b,c,d ,e of g. h there is only
computer. a programe has to be made and can be made by only one person at
a time. the office has 3 shifts, the morning shift from 6 am-12 am has 3
staff, afternoon shift from 12am. to 6 pm. has 3 staff, evening shift
from 6 pm to 12 pm has 2 staff one of the person did not used a printer:
1 b is the last person who use the computer
2 h use the computer after a and came iwth a
3 d used the computer after h and come with h but before e
4 c used the computer before b but arrived after e
5 a use the computer before f and arrived before g
who arethe person in the night shift.
(a)f g
(b)f e
(c)b e
(d)b c
22. in the office amongst staff a,b,c,d ,e of g. h there is only
computer. a programe has to be made and can be made by only one person at
a time. the office has 3 shifts, the morning shift from 6 am-12 am has 3
staff, afternoon shift from 12am. to 6 pm. has 3 staff, evening shift
from 6 pm to 12 pm has 2 staff one of the person did not used a printer:
1 b is the last person who use the computer
2 h use the computer after a and came iwth a
3 d used the computer after h and come with h but before e
4 c used the computer before b but arrived after e
5 a use the computer before f and arrived before g
who use the 2nd computer
(a) a
(b)h
(c)d
(d)e
23. in the office amongst staff a,b,c,d ,e of g. h there is only
computer. a programe has to be made and can be made by only one person at
a time. the office has 3 shifts, the morning shift from 6 am-12 am has 3
staff, afternoon shift from 12am. to 6 pm. has 3 staff, evening shift
from 6 pm to 12 pm has 2 staff one of the person did not used a printer:
1 b is the last person who use the computer
2 h use the computer after a and came iwth a
3 d used the computer after h and come with h but before e
4 c used the computer before b but arrived after e
5 a use the computer before f and arrived before g
who are the person in the morning shift
(a) hec
(b)ahd

(c)efg
(d)dec
24. in the office amongst staff a,b,c,d ,e of g. h there is only
computer. a programe has to be made and can be made by only one person at
a time. the office has 3 shifts, the morning shift from 6 am-12 am has 3
staff, afternoon shift from 12am. to 6 pm. has 3 staff, evening shift
from 6 pm to 12 pm has 2 staff one of the person did not used a printer:
1 b is the last person who use the computer
2 h use the computer after a and came iwth a
3 d used the computer after h and come with h but before e
4 c used the computer before b but arrived after e
5 a use the computer before f and arrived before g
who takes first computer
(a) a
(b)h
(c)d
(d)e
25. seven persons p,q,r,s,t,u,v and w are to be assigned seven adjacent
chambers on the same floor in a apartment according to following
conditions:
1 u is assigned as far away from r as t is
2 p and r prefer to have adjacent chanmbers
3 v will have to be assigned chamber no. 5
4 q;s work requirs him to speak on phone frequently through out the day.
5 p, s and t all smoke. v is allergic to toacco smoke and must have non
smoker in the chamber ajjacent own.
6 unless otherwise specified all employeed maintain silence in their
chambers.
the best location of s in on the floor is:
(a)2
(b)3
(c)4
(d)7
Answers:
1 d 2 d 3 c 4 b 5 b 6 c7 d 8 d 9 b 10 a 11 d 12 b13 c 14 c 15 b 16 a 17 c 18 d19 c 20 c 21 d 22 b 23 b 24 a 25 a

Can you provide me the previous year question paper of Power Grid Exam for Electrical Engineering as I will be giving the exam this year?

[Arun Vats]

The previous year question paper of Power Grid Exam for Electrical Engineering as you will be giving the exam this year is as follows:

Q.1 The two windings of a transformer is
(A) conductively linked.
(B) inductively linked.
(C) not linked at all.
(D) electrically linked.
Ans : B
Q.2 A salient pole synchronous motor is running at no load. Its field current is switched off. The motor will
(A) come to stop.
(B) continue to run at synchronous speed.
(C) continue to run at a speed slightly more than the synchronous speed.
(D) continue to run at a speed slightly less than the synchronous speed.
Ans: B
Q.3 The d.c. series motor should always be started with load because
(A) at no load, it will rotate at dangerously high speed.
(B) it will fail to start.
(C) it will not develop high starting torque.
(D) all are true.
Ans: A
Q.4 The frequency of the rotor current in a 3 phase 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor at full load speed is about
(A) 50 Hz.
(B) 20 Hz.
(C) 2 Hz.
(D) Zero.
Ans: C
Q.5 In a stepper motor the angular displacement
(A) can be precisely controlled.
(B) it cannot be readily interfaced with micro computer based controller.
(C) the angular displacement cannot be precisely controlled.
(D) it cannot be used for positioning of work tables and tools in NC machines.
Ans: A
Q.6 The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor is
(A) low at light load only.
(B) low at heavy load only.
(C) low at light and heavy load both.
(D) low at rated load only.
Ans: A
Q.7 The generation voltage is usually
(A) between 11 KV and 33 KV.
(B) between 132 KV and 400 KV.
(C) between 400 KV and 700 KV.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: A
Q.8 When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding produces
(A) damping torque.
(B) eddy current torque.
(C) torque aiding the developed torque.
(D) no torque.
Ans: D
Q.9 If a transformer primary is energised from a square wave voltage source, its output voltage will be
(A) A square wave.
(B) A sine wave.
(C) A triangular wave.
(D) A pulse wave.
Ans: A
Q.10 In a d.c. series motor the electromagnetic torque developed is proportional to
(A) Ia
(B) (Ia)2
(C) 1/Ia
(D) 1/(Ia)2
Ans: B
Q.11 In a 3 – phase induction motor running at slip ‘s’ the mechanical power developed in terms of air gap power
(A) (s-1)Pg
( B) Pg/(1-s)
(C) (1-s)Pg
(D) s.Pg
Ans: C
Q.12 In a 3 – phase induction motor the maximum torque
(A) is proportional to rotor resistance r2
(B) does not depend on r2
(C) is proportional to sqrt(r2)
(D) is proportional to (r2)2
Ans: B
Q.13 In a d.c. machine, the armature mmf is
(A) stationary w.r.t. armature.
(B) rotating w.r.t. field.
(C) stationary w.r.t. field.
(D) rotating w.r.t. brushes.
Ans: C
Q.14 In a transformer the voltage regulation will be zero when it operates at
(A) unity p.f.
(B) leading p.f.
(C) lagging p.f.
(D) zero p.f. leading.
Ans: B
Q.15 The maximum power in cylindrical and salient pole machines is obtained respectively at load angles of
(A) 900,900
(B) <900,900
(C) 900,>900
(D) 900,<900
Ans: D
Q.16 The primary winding of a 220/6 V, 50 Hz transformer is energised from 110 V, 60 Hz supply. The secondary
output voltage will be
(A) 3.6 V.
(B) 2.5 V.
(C) 3.0 V.
(D) 6.0 V.
Ans: C
Q.17 The emf induced in the primary of a transformer
(A) is in phase with the flux.
(B) lags behind the flux by 90 degree.
(C) leads the flux by 90 degree.
(D) is in phase opposition to that of flux.
Ans: C
Q.18 The relative speed between the magnetic fields of stator and rotor under steady state operation is zero for a
(A) dc machine.
(B) 3 phase induction machine.
(C) synchronous machine.
(D) single phase induction machine.
Ans: all options are correct
Q.19 The current from the stator of an alternator is taken out to the external load circuit through
(A) slip rings.
(B) commutator segments.
(C) solid connections.
(D) carbon brushes.
Ans: C
Q.20 A motor which can conveniently be operated at lagging as well as leading power factors is the
(A) squirrel cage induction motor.
(B) wound rotor induction motor.
(C) synchronous motor.
(D) DC shunt motor.
Ans: C
Q.21 A hysteresis motor
(A) is not a self-starting motor.
(B) is a constant speed motor.
(C) needs dc excitation.
(D) can not be run in reverse speed.
Ans: B
Q.22 The most suitable servomotor for low power applications is
(A) a dc series motor.
(B) a dc shunt motor.
(C) an ac two-phase induction motor.
(D) an ac series motor.
Ans: B
Q.23 The size of a conductor used in power cables depends on the
(A) operating voltage. (B) power factor.
(C) current to be carried. (D) type of insulation used.Ans: C Q.24 Out of the following
methods of heating the one which is independent of supply frequency is
(A) electric arc heating (B) induction heating (C) electric resistance heating (D)
dielectric heating
Ans: C
Q.25 A two-winding single phase transformer has a voltage regulation of 4.5% at full-load and unity power-factor.
At full-load and 0.80 power-factor lagging load the voltage regulation will be
(A) 4.5%. (B) less than 4.5%. (C) more than 4.5%. (D) 4.5% or more than 4.5%.
Ans: C
Q.26 In a dc shunt motor the terminal voltage is halved while the torque is kept constant. The resulting approximate
variation in speed ” ω” and armature current “Ia‘” will be
(A) Both ω and Ia are doubled.
(B) ω is constant and Ia is doubled
(C) w is doubled while Ia is halved
(D) w is constant but Ia is halved
Ans: B
Q.27 A balanced three-phase, 50 Hz voltage is applied to a 3 phase, 4 pole, induction motor. When the motor is
delivering rated output, the slip is found to be 0.05. The speed of the rotor m.m.f. relative to the rotor structure is
(A) 1500 r.p.m.
(B) 1425 r.p.m.
(C) 25 r.p.m.
(D) 75 r.p.m.
Ans: D
Q.28 An alternator is delivering rated current at rated voltage and 0.8 power-factor lagging case. If it is required
to deliver rated current at rated voltage and 0.8 power-factor leading, the required excitation will be
(A) less.
(B) more.
(C) more or less.
(D) the same.
Ans: B
Q.29 A ceiling fan uses
(A) split-phase motor.
(B) capacitor start and capacitor run motor.
(C) universal motor.
(D) capacitor start motor.
Ans: D
Q.30 A stepper motor is
(A) a dc motor. (B) a single-phase ac motor. (C) a multi-phase motor. (D) a two phase motor.
Ans: D
Q.31 The ‘sheath’ is used in cable to
(A) provide strength to the cable.
(B) provide proper insulation.
(C) prevent the moisture from entering the cable.
(D) avoid chances of rust on strands.
Ans: A
Q.32 The drive motor used in a mixer-grinder is a
(A) dc motor. (B) induction motor. (C) synchronous motor. (D) universal motor.
Ans: DQ.33 A 1:5 step-up transformer has 120V across the primary and 600 ohms resistance across the secondary.
Assuming 100% efficiency, the primary current equals (A) 0.2 Amp. (B) 5 Amps. (C) 10 Amps.
(D) 20 Amps.
Ans: A
Q.34 A dc shunt generator has a speed of 800 rpm when delivering 20 A to the load at the terminal voltage of
220V. If the same machine is run as a motor it takes a line current of 20A from 220V supply. The speed of the
machine as a motor will be
(A) 800 rpm. (B) more than 800 rpm. (C) less than 800 rpm. (D) both higher or lower than 800
rpm.
Ans: C
Q.35 A 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor has a full load speed of 1440 r.p.m. The number of poles of the motor are
(A) 4. (B) 6. (C) 12. (D) 8.
Ans: A