31st March 2016 03:06 AM | |
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23rd August 2014 03:52 PM | |
Kiran Chandar | Re: All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test previous year question papers As you want to get the All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test previous year question papers so here it is for you: Syllabus of AIPMT: Syllabus Physics - 45 questions Class XI: Physical World and Measurement; Kinematics; Laws of Motion; Work, Energy and Power; Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Body; Gravitation; Properties of Bulk Matter; Thermodynamics; Behavior of Perfect Gas and Kinetic Theory; Oscillations and Waves Class XII: Electrostatics; Current Electricity; Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism; Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents; Electromagnetic Waves; Optics; Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation; Atoms and Nuclei; Electronic Devices Chemistry - 45 questions Class XI: Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry; Structure of Atom; Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties; Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure; States of Matter: Gases and Liquids; Thermodynamics; Equilibrium; Redox Reactions; Hydrogen; s-Block Element (Alkali and Alkaline Earth metals); Some p-Block Elements; Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques; Hydrocarbons; Environmental Chemistry Class XII: Solid State; Solutions; Electrochemistry; Chemical Kinetics; Surface Chemistry; General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements; p-Block Elements; d and f Block Elements; Coordination Compounds; Haloalkanes and Haloarenes; Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers; Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids; Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen; Biomolecules; Polymers; Chemistry in Everyday Life Biology - 90 questions Class XI: Diversity in Living World; Structural Organization in Animals and Plants; Cell Structure and Function; Plant Physiology; Human Physiology Class XII: Reproduction; Genetics and Evolution; Biology and Human Welfare; Biotechnology and its Applications; Ecology and Environment Some content of the file has been given here: For more detailed information I am uploading PDF files which are free to download: http://www.jbigdeal.com/wp-content/u...stionPaper.pdf |
23rd August 2014 01:36 PM | |
Unregistered | All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test previous year question papers Will you please share with me the All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test previous year question papers? |
22nd July 2014 09:16 AM | |
Kiran Chandar | Re: All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test previous year question papers As you want to get the All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test previous year question papers so here it is for you: Some content of the file has been given here: 1. Which one, of the following statements about all the four of Spongilla, Leech, Dolphin and Penguinis correct. (1) Spongilla has special collared cells called choanocytes, not found in the remaining three (2) All are bilaterally symmetrical (3) Penguin is homoiothermic while the remaining three are poikilothermic (4) Leech is a fresh water form while all others atemaririe Ans. (1) 2. Which one of the following statements about human’sperm incorrect? (1) Acrosome servesas a sensory structure leading the sperm towards the ovum (2) Acrosome serves no particular function. (3) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting in fertilisation (4) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelope facilitating fertilisation Ans. (4) 3. The nerve centres which control the body temperature and the urge for eating are contained in (1) Cerebellum (2) Thalamus (3) Hypothalamus (4) Pons Ans. (3) 4. What is true about RBCs in humans ? (1) They frarisport about 80 per cent oxygen pnly and the rest; 20 per cent of it is transported in dissolved state in blood plasma (2) They do not carry CO2 at all (3) They carry about 20–25 per cent of CO2 (4) They do not carry CO2 at all They carry about 20-25 per cent of CO2 They transport 99.5 percent of O2 Ans. (3) 5. Which one of the following is used as vector for cloning genes into higher organisms? (1) Rhizopus nigriccans (2) Retrovirus (3) Baculovirus (4) Salmonella typhimurium Ans. (2) 6. Select the two corret statements out of the four (a–d) given below about lac operon. (1) Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it (2) Inthe absence of lactose the repressor binds with the operatorregion (3) The z-gene codes for permease (4) This was elucidated byFrancois Jacob and Jacque Monod Ans. (1) 7. The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or maize is comparable to which part of the seed in other monocotyledons ? (1) Aleurone layer (2) Plumule (3) Cotyledons (4) Endosperm Ans. (3) 8. Ringworm in humans is caused by: (1) Nematodes (2) Viruses (3) Bacteria (4) Fungi Ans. (4) 9. The technical term used for the androecium in a flower of China rose (Hibiscus rosasinensis) is: (1) Polyandrous (2) Polyadelphous (3) Monadelphous (4) Diadelphous Ans. (3) 10. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation ? (1) Sacred groves (2) National park (3) Wildlife sanctuary (4) Seed bank Ans. (4) 11. Wind pollinated flowers are: (1) large producing abundant nectar and pollen (2) small, producing nectar and dry pollen (3) small, brightly coloured, producing large number of pollen grains (4) small, producing large number of dry pollen grains Ans. (4) 12. Keel is characteristic of the flowers of: (1) Calotropis (2) Bean (3) Gulmohur (4) Cassia Ans. (2) 13. The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores and the decomposers is called: (1) Standing crop (2) Gross primary productivity (3) Net primary productivity (4) Secondary productivity Ans. (3) 14. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in: (1) DNA and testosterone (2) ribose and potassium (3) fructose and calcium (4) glucose and calcium Ans. (3) 15. The principal nitrogenouse excretory compound in humans is synthesised: (1) in liver and also eliminated by the same through bile (2) in the liver, but eliminated mostly through kidneys (3) in kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver (4) in kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys Ans. (2) 16. Darwin’s finches are a good example of: (1) Adaptive radiation (2) Convergent evolution (3) Industrial melanism (4) Connecting link Ans. (1) 17. Which one of the following statements about morula in humans is corect? (1) It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote (2) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote (3) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplams as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA (4) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote Ans. (3) 18. An element playing important role in nitrogen fixation is: (1) Manganese (2) Zinc (3) Molybdenum (4) Copper Ans. (3) 19. The two gases making highest relative contribution to the greenhouse gases are: (1) CFC5 and N2O (2)CO2 and N2O (3) CO2 and CH4 (4) CH4 and N2O Ans. (3) 20. Toxic agents present in food which interfere with thyroxine synthesis lead to the development of: (1) simple goitre (2) thyrotoxicosis (3) toxic goitre (4) cretinism Ans. (1) 21. In unilocular ovary with a single ovule the placentation is: (1) Free Central (2) Axile (3) Marginal (4) Basal Ans. (4) 22. Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from: (1) Antipodal cells (2) Diploid egg (3) Synergids (4) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule Ans. (4) 23. Which one of the following has its own DNA? (1) Lysosome (2) Peroxisome (3) Mitochondria (4) Dictyosome Ans. (3) 24. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls of blood vessels is: (1) ciliated columnar epithelum (2) squamous epithelium (3) cuboidal epithelium (4) columnar epithelium Ans. (2) 25. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is called: (1) Karyogamy (2) Autogamy (3) Xenogamy (4) Gitnogamy Ans. (4) 26. The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs: (1) Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum (2) in the Graafian follicle following the first maturation division (3) Shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the Fallopian tube (4) Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm Ans. (4) 27. Which one of the following is not used in organic farming? (1) Oscillatoria (2) Snail (3) Glomus (4) Earthworm Ans. (1) 28. Which two of the following changes (a-d) usually tend to occur in the plain dwellers when they move to high altitudes (3,500 m or more)? (a) Increase in red blood cell size (b) Increase in red blood cell production (c) Increased breathing rate (d) Increase in thrombocyte count Changes occurring are: (1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) and (b) (3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d) Ans. (3) 29. A renewable exhaustible natural resource is: (1) Minerals (2) Forest (3) Coal (4) Petroleum Ans. (2) 30. Slect the correct statement from the following : (1) Biogas commonly called gobar gas, is pure methane (2) Activated sludge-sediment in settlement tanks of sewage treatment plant is a rich source of aerobic bacteria (3) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria on animal waste (4) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found in rumen of cattle Ans. (2) 31. The permissible use of the teachnique amniocentesis is for: (1) transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate mother (2) detecting any genetic abnormality (3) detecting sex of the unborn foetus (4) artificial insemination Ans. (2) 32. The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is: (1) Cytoplasm (2) Nucleus (3) Plasma membrane (4) Mitochondrian Ans. (1) 33. Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution of: (1) Cytokinins (2) Auxin (3) Gibberellins (4) Phytochorme Ans. (2) 34. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (a-d) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal human adult: Respiratory Respiratory capacities volumes (a) Rsidual volume 2500 mL (b) Vital capacity 3500 mL (c) Inspiratory reserve 1200 mL (d) Inspiratory capacity 4500 mL Shich one of the following is the correct matchign of two capacities and volumes? (1) (d) 3500 mL (a) 1200 mL (2) (a) 4500 mL (b) 3500 mL (3) (b) 2500 mL (c) 4500 mL (4) (c) 1200 mL (d) 2500 mL Ans. (1) 35. The signals for parturition originate from: (1) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary (2) fully developed foetus only (3) placenta only (4) placenta as well as fully developed foetus Ans. (4) 36. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross (1) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations as the tightly linked ones (2) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations (3) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations (4) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations Ans. (2) 37. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which: (1) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase (2) remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule (3) make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule (4) recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase Ans. (3) 38. The part of Fallopian tube closest to the ovary is: (1) Cervix (2) Ampulla (3) Isthmus (4) Infundibulum Ans. (4) 39. ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by the gene I. It has three alleles-AA, IB and i. Since there are three different alleles, six different genotypes are possible. How many phenotypes can occur? (1) Four (2) Two (3) Three (4) One Ans. (1) 40. dB is a standard abbreviation used for the quantitative expression of (1) the dominant Bacilus in a culture (2) a certain pesticide (3) the density of bacteria in a medium (4) a particular pollutant Ans. (4) 41. The one aspect which is not a salient feature of genetic code, is its being: (1) Universal (2) Specific (3) Degenerate (4) Ambiguous Ans. (4) 42. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by: (1) Pedigree analysis (2) Back cross (3) Test cross (4) Dihybrid cross Ans. (3) 43. Which one of the following does not follow the central dogma of molecular biology? (1) Chlamydomonas (2) HIV (3) Pea (4) Mucor Ans. (2) 44. Consider the following four statements (a-d) regarding kidney transplant and select the two correct ones out of these. (a) Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient may need to take immuno-suppresants for a long time (b) The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection (c) The B-lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft (d) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on specific interferons The two correct statements are: (1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (b) (3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d) Ans. (2) 45. An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice: (1) is completely resistant to all insect pests and diseases of paddy (2) gives high yield but has no characterisitic aroma (3) does not require chemical fertilizers and growth hormones (4) gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A Ans. (4) 46. Heartwood differs from sapwood in: (1) Having dead and non0conducting elements (2) Being susceptible to pests and pathogens (3) Presence of rays and fibres (4) Absence of vessels and parenchyma Ans. (1) 47. Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by sonie particular restriction enzyme? (1) 5’-----GAATTC------3’ 3’-----CTTAAG------5’ (2) 5’-----GACGTA------3’ 3’-----GTCAGT------5’ (3) 5’-----CGTTCG------3’ 3’-----ATGGTA------5’ (4) 5’-----GATATG------3’ 3’-----CTACTA------5’ Ans. (1) 48. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called: (1) Clone (2) Plasmid (3) Vector (4) Probe Ans. (4) 49. The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which month of pregnancy> (1) Sixth month (2) Third month (3) Fourth month (4) Fifth month Ans. (4) 50. Which one of the following is not a micronutrient? (1) Zinc (2) Boron (3) Molybdenum (4) Magnesium Ans. (4) 51. PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was discovered in photosynthesis of: (1) Angiosperm (2) Alga (3) Bryophyte (4) Gymnosperm Ans. (2) 52. Single-celled eukaryotes are included in: (1) Archaea (2) Monera (3) Protista (4) Fungi Ans. (3) 53. Which one of the following symbols and its representation, used in human pedigree analysis is correct? (1) = unaffected female (2) = male affected (3) = mating between relatives (4) = unaffected male For more detailed information I am uploading PDF files which are free to download: Contact Details: Central Board of Secondary Education Community Centre, Preet Vihar Metro Railway Station, Shiksha Kendra,Building No.2, Acharya Nag Raj Marg, Block D, Preet Vihar, New Delhi, Delhi 110092 011 2202 3737 India Map Location: [MAP]https://www.google.co.in/maps?q=Central+Board+of+Secondary+Education&hl=en& ll=28.639677,77.295878&spn=0.010584,0.015171&sll=2 8.632879,77.239101&sspn=0.010584,0.015171&hq=Centr al+Board+of+Secondary+Education&t=m&z=16&iwloc=B[/MAP] |
20th July 2014 12:36 PM | |
Unregistered | All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test previous year question papers Will you please share with me the All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test previous year question papers? |