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Topic Review (Newest First)
26th November 2015 01:46 PM
Raman Vij
Re: BHEL Supervisor Trainee Recruitment model papers

Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited recruits capable candidates for Supervisor Trainee posts. Candidates who have completed Graduation in Finance Background are eligible for this post.

Selection procedure

Written Test
Personal Interview

Exam pattern

The BHEL Supervisor Written Test consists of the following features :

The exam is of objective type i.e it consists of Multiple Choice Questions.
Duration of the exam is 2 Hours.
The exam is conducted for a total of 150 marks.
There will be 150 questions from various subjects.
There is a negative marking for each wrong answer.

Paper pattern

Professional Knowledge (Finance)
Reasoning Ability
Logical Thinking
General Awareness
English usage


Model papers BHEL Supervisor Trainee Recruitment


BHEL Recruitment Paper Feb 2007
1. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to. = 1.41
2. A perfect gas at 270C is heated at constant pressure till its volume is double. The final
temperature is = 3270C
3. An engine operates between temperature of 9000K and T2 and another engine between T2 and
8000K. For both to do equal work, value of T2 will be. = 6500K
4. Internal energy of a substance depends on = Temperature
5. Work done in compressing 1kg of gas adiabatically from p1,V1,T1 to p2, V2, T2 is equal to =
Cv(T2-T1)
6. The unit of entropy is = J/kg 0K
7. Indicated power of a 4-stroke engine is equal to = pLAN/2
8. Which of the following is not an internal combustion engine : a) 2 stroke petrol engine b)4
stroke petrol engine c) Diesel engine d) steam engine e) Gas turbine. = (d)
9. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for that cylinder the:
a) exhaust will be smoky b) piston rings would stick into piston grooves c) exhaust
temperature will be high d) engine starts overheating e) all of the above. = (e)
10. The spark plug gap is normally maintained at: = 0.45 to 0.6mm
11. A distributor in spark ignition engines performs the function of : = Providing the correct firing
order in engine
12. Which of the following does not relate to C.I. engine:: a) fuel pump b) fuel injector c) governor
d) carburetor e) flywheel = (d)
13. Air fuel ratio in a jet engine is = 60:1
14. What is the value of Prandtl No.?
15. In domestic refrigerator, the tubes at the back of the refrigerator are: a) evaporator b) condenser
c) capillary tubes d)………
16. Which refrigerants has the highest critical point temperature. = Freon-11
17. Wet bulb temperature is. = indication of amount of moisture in air
18. On psychrometric chart, dry bulb temperature lines are. = Vertical
19. Surface tension has the units. = newtons/m
20. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the. =centroid of the displaced volume of
fluid
21. A pressure of 25m of head of water is equal to. =245kN/m2
22. For a submerged body to be in stable equilibrium, the centre of gravity should be. =Below the
centre of buoyancy.
23. The actual velocity at vena contracta for flow through an orifice from a reservoir of height H=?.
=Cv√2gH
24. A body weighing 2kg in air weights 2.5kg when submerged in water. Its specific gravity is. = 6
25. In a free vortex motion: = each particle moves in a circular path with a speed varying inversely
as the distance from the centre.
26. A centrifugal pump has speed-1000rpm, Flow-1200l.p.m, Head-20m, Power-5H.P. If its speed
is increased to 1500rpm, new flow will be.: = 1800l.p.m
27. Runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is: = the speed if the turbine runner is allowed to revolve
freely without load and with the wicket gates wide open.
28. 10m of water column is equal to = 100kN/m2
29. M.I. of a circular area about an axis perpendicular to the area is: = πr4/2
30. A projectile is fired at an angle θ to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximum when θ is
. =450
31. An elevator weighing 1000kg attains an upward velocity of 4m/sec in two seconds with uniform
acceleration. The tension in the supporting cables will be = 1200kg.
32. A 13m ladder is placed against a smooth vertical wall with its lower end 5m from the wall.
What should be the co-efficient of friction between ladder and floor so that it remains in
equilibrium. = 0.21
33. A car is moving with a velocity of 60km/hr and possesses energy of 5x105 joules. The mass of
the car will be. =3000kg.
34. If l is the span of a light suspension bridge whose each cable carries total weight (w) and the
central diop is y, the horizontal pull at each support is: = wl/y OR
35. A beam of length l, having uniform load w kg/unit length is supported freely at the ends. The
moments at mid span will be: = wl2/8.
36. A boiler shell 200cm dia and plate thickness 1.5cm is subjected to internal pressure of 1.5MN/
m2, then the hoop stress will be. = 100N/m2
37. 100KW is to be transmitted by each of two separate shafts. A is turning at 250rpm and B at
300rpm. Which shaft must have greater diameter.: = B
38. Two identical leaf springs of spring constant k are arranged like cantilevers in parallel and
attached at free end by a spring of spring constant k. The equivalent spring constant of
combination is; = 1.5k.
39. Automobile steering gear is an example of: = lower pair.
40. The type of coupling used to join two shafts whose axes are neither in same straight line nor
parallel, but intersect is. = Universal coupling.
41. To transmit power from one rotation shaft to another whose axes are neither parallel nor
intersecting, use: = Spiral gear.
42. A gear having 100 teeth is fixed and another gear having 25 teeth revolves around it, the centre
lines of both gears being joined by an arm. How many revolutions will be made by gear of 25
teeth for one revolution of arm. = 5 rev.
43. The secondary critical speed of a shaft occurs at: = twice the speed of primary critical speed.
44. Brittle coating technique is used for: = experimental stress analysis.
45. Factor of safety is the ratio of: = yield stress/working stress.
46. Type of gear used for non-intersection perpendicular shafts: = Hypoid gears.
47. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding: = Chromium & Nickel
48. The product of Cupola is called: = cast iron
49. Brinell tester uses a hardness steel ball of size: = 10mm
50. Sintered and tungsten carbides can be machined by: = EDM
51. What kind of abrasive cut off wheel should be used to cut concrete, stone and masonry?
=Diamond grit.
52. In break-even analysis, total cost consists of: = Fixed cost + Variable cost.
53. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident fund is :
=deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner.
54. PERT is: = event oriented technique
55. Bar charts are suitable for: = minor works.
56. on a PERT/CPM chart represents: = a significant event representing some mile-stone
57. Electron volt is the unit of : = Energy.
58. Seamless tubes are made by?
59. Reheating in gas turbine results in: = increase of work ratio and decrease of thermal efficiency.
60. Why DC current is not used in transformer?
61. What is the purpose of draft tube in hydraulic turbines: = to convert the kinetic energy into
pressure energy.
62. A mass of 100kg is falling from a height of 1m and penetrates the sand to 1m. what is the
resistance force of the sand?
63. Two cars travel in the same direction at 40km/hr at a regular distance. A car comes in the
opposite direction at 60km/hr. It meets each car in a gap of 8 seconds. What is the distance
between the two cars?
26th November 2015 01:45 PM
Unregistered
Re: BHEL Supervisor Trainee Recruitment model papers

Hello sir I am preparing for Supervisor Trainee post of BHEL so please provides me model papers of this exam so that I can prepare accordingly.
5th November 2014 11:23 AM
Kiran Chandar
Re: BHEL Supervisor Trainee Recruitment model papers

You are asking for the BHEL Supervisor Trainee Recruitment model papers. Here I am providing you the BHEL Supervisor Trainee Recruitment model papers. These are as follows:

BHEL Supervisor Trainee Aptitude Model Paper

1. A certain type of mixture is prepared by mixing brand A at Rs.9 a kg. with brand B at Rs.4 a kg. If the mixture is worth Rs.7 a kg., how many kgs. of brand A are needed to make 40kgs. of the mixture?
Ans. Brand A needed is 24kgs.

2. A wizard named Nepo says “I am only three times my son’s age. My father is 40 years more than twice my age. Together the three of us are a mere 1240 years old.” How old is Nepo?
Ans. 360 years old.

3. One dog tells the other that there are two dogs in front of me. The other one also shouts that he too had two behind him. How many are they?
Ans. Three.

4. A man ate 100 bananas in five days, each day eating 6 more than the previous day. How many bananas did he eat on the first day?
Ans. Eight.

5. If it takes five minutes to boil one egg, how long will it take to boil four eggs?
Ans. Five minutes.

6. Three containers A, B and C have volumes a, b, and c respectively; and container A is full of water while the other two are empty. If from container A water is poured into container B which becomes 1/3 full, and into container C which becomes 1/2 full, how much water is left in container A?

7. ABCE is an isosceles trapezoid and ACDE is a rectangle. AB = 10 and EC = 20. What is the length of AE?
Ans. AE = 10.

8. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle at A and B respectively and the chord BC is parallel to tangent PA. If AC = 6 cm, and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm, then what is the length of the chord BC?
Ans. BC = 4 cm.

9 Three cards are drawn at random from an ordinary pack of cards. Find the probability that they will consist of a king, a queen and an ace.
Ans. 64/2210.

10. A number of cats got together and decided to kill between them 999919 mice. Every cat killed an equal number of mice. Each cat killed more mice than there were cats. How many cats do you think there were ?
Ans. 991.

11. If Log2 x – 5 Log x + 6 = 0, then what would the value / values of x be?
Ans. x = e2 or e3.

12. The square of a two digit number is divided by half the number. After 36 is added to the quotient, this sum is then divided by 2. The digits of the resulting number are the same as those in the original number, but they are in reverse order. The ten’s place of the original number is equal to twice the difference between its digits. What is the number?
Ans. 46

13.Can you tender a one rupee note in such a manner that there shall be total 50 coins but none of them would be 2 paise coins.?
Ans. 45 one paisa coins, 2 five paise coins, 2 ten paise coins, and 1 twenty-five paise coins.

14.A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each hour, it hops 3ft. and slips back 2ft. How much time would it take the monkey to reach the top?
Ans.18 hours.

15. What is the missing number in this series? 8 2 14 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12
Ans. 9

16. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour hand at intervals of 64 minutes of correct time. How much a day does the clock gain or lose?
Ans. 32 8/11 minutes.

17. Solve for x and y: 1/x – 1/y = 1/3, 1/x2 + 1/y2 = 5/9.
Ans. x = 3/2 or -3 and y = 3 or -3/2.

18. Daal is now being sold at Rs. 20 a kg. During last month its rate was Rs. 16 per kg. By how much percent should a family reduce its consumption so as to keep the expenditure fixed?
Ans. 20 %.

19. Find the least value of 3x + 4y if x2y3 = 6.
Ans. 10.

20. Can you find out what day of the week was January 12, 1979?
Ans. Friday.

21. A garrison of 3300 men has provisions for 32 days, when given at a rate of 850 grams per head. At the end of 7 days a reinforcement arrives and it was found that now the provisions will last 8 days less, when given at the rate of 825 grams per head. How, many more men can it feed?
Ans. 1700 men.

22. From 5 different green balls, four different blue balls and three different red balls, how many combinations of balls can be chosen taking at least one green and one blue ball?
Ans. 3720.

23. Three pipes, A, B, & C are attached to a tank. A & B can fill it in 20 & 30 minutes respectively while C can empty it in 15 minutes. If A, B & C are kept open successively for 1 minute each, how soon will the tank be filled?
Ans. 167 minutes.

24. A person walking 5/6 of his usual rate is 40 minutes late. What is his usual time?
Ans. 3 hours 20 minutes.


BHEL Supervisor Trainee Reasoning Model Paper

1. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series?
ACE, FGH, ?, PON
(A) KKK
(B) JKI
(C) HJH
(D) IKL
Ans. (A)

2. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer: ?
(A) Script
(B) Pen
(C) Paper
(D) Book
Ans. (B)

3. Paint: Artist : : Wood: ?
(A) Furniture
(B) Forest
(C) Fire
(D) Carpenter
Ans. (D)

4. acme : mace :: alga: ?
(A) glaa
(B) gaal
(C) laga
(D) gala
Ans. (D)

5. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT:?
(A) UTOPTU
(B) UOTUPT
(C) TUOUTP
(D) TUOTUP
Ans. (D)

6. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
Ans. (C)

7. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D)G
Ans. (C)

8. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans. (D)

9. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX
Ans. (C)

10. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(C) 52
(B) 49
(D) 56
Ans. (B)

Directions—(Q. 11 to 14): Select the one which is different from the other three.
11. (A) Bokaro
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai
(D) Agra
Ans. (D)

12. (A) January
(B) February
(C) July
(D) December
Ans. (B)

13. (A) Bible
(B) Panchsheel
(C) Geeta
(D) Quran
Ans. (B)

14. (A) Star
(B) Sun
(C) Sky
(D) Moon
Ans. (C)

Directions—(Q. 15 to 17): based on alphabets.
15. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left?
(A) N
(B) L
(C) O
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)

16. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) W
(D) Y
Ans. (B)
17. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right?
(A) V
(B) X
(C) W
(D) I
Ans. (C)

Directions—(Q. 18 to 23) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
18. (A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Colour
(D) Orange
Ans. (C)

19. (A) Rabbit
(B) Crocodile
(C) Earthworm
(D) Snail
Ans. (A)

20. (A) Polo
(B) Chess
(C) Ludo
(D) Carrom
Ans. (A)

21. (A) Sun
(B) Universe
(C) Moon
(D) Star
Ans. (B)

22. (A) Cheese
(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Ghee
Ans. (B)

23. (A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Potato
(D) Brinjal
Ans. (D)

24. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’ written in that code?
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI
Ans. (D)

25. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTF
Ans. (C)

26. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
Ans. (B)

27. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
Ans. (A)

28. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
Ans. (C)

29. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (B)

30. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (D)

31. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest?
(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
Ans. (A)

32. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks?
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)

33. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)

34. If Amit’ s father is Billoo’ s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo?
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
Ans. (C)

35. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
Ans. (C)

36. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
Ans. (D)

37. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in the class?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
Ans. (D)

38. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
Ans. (D)

39. How many 5’s are in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by 7?
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (A)

40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5?
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (C)

41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
Ans. (D)

42. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded
in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
Ans. (D)

43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……..
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
Ans. (B)

44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ………
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Ans. (B)

45. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
Ans. (D)

46. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
Ans. (B)

47. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related to …….
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
Ans. (D)

48. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to………
(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
Ans. (D)

49. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to …………
(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
Ans. (B)

50. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to …………
(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Ans. (B)


Directions—(Q. 1–5) Each sentence has one or two blanks. Choose the word or set of words that best completes the sentence meaningfully.

1. He went to the library ……… to find that it was closed.
(A) seldom
(B) never
(C) only
(D) solely
Ans : (C)

2. The ties that bind us together in common activity are so ………that they can disappear at any moment.
(A) tentative
(B) tenuous
(C) consistent
(D) restrictive
Ans : (B)

3. Her reaction to his proposal was ………. She rejected it ……….
(A) inevitable–vehemently
(B) subtle–violently
(C) clever–abruptly
(D) sympathetic–angrily
Ans : (A)

4. His ……… directions misled us we did not know which of the two roads to take.
(A) complicated
(B) ambiguous
(C) narrow
(D) fantastic
Ans : (B)

5. It would be difficult for one so ……… to believe that all men are equal irrespective of caste, race and religion.
(A) emotional
(B) democratic
(C) intolerant
(D) liberal
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 6–10) In each of the following sentences four words or phrases have been bold. Only one bold part in each sentence is not accepted in standard English. Identify that part and mark its letter (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your as answer.

6. Gaze for a thing (A) that are not (B) available easily (C) in the country is a universal phenomenon. (D)
Ans : (B)

7. It is foolish to be expecting (A) one person to be like another (B) person, for (C) each individual is born (D) with his characteristics traits.
Ans : (A)

8. The tendency to believe (A) that (B) man is inherently dishonest is something (C) that will be decried. (D)
Ans : (D)

9. I have not come across very (A) few (B) people who (C) think of thing beyond (D) their daily work.
Ans : (B)

10. He managed to board (A) the running train (B) but all his luggages (C) was (D) left on the station.
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Select the pair of words which are related in the same way as the capitalised words are related to each other.

11. SCALES : JUSTICE : :
(A) Weights : Measures
(B) Laws : Courts
(C) Torch : Liberty
(D) Launch : Peace
Ans : (C)

12. HOBBLE : WALK : :
(A) Gallop : Run
(B) Stammer : Speak
(C) Stumble : Fall
(D) Sniff : Smell
Ans : (B)

13. FRAYED : FABRIC : :
(A) Watered : Lawn
(B) Renovated : Building
(C) Thawed : Ice
(D) Worn : Nerves
Ans : (D)

14. YOLK : EGG : :
(A) Rind : Melon
(B) Nucleus : Cell
(C) Stalk : Corn
(D) Web : Spider
Ans : (B)

15. BAMBOO : SHOOT : :
(A) Bean : Sprout
(B) Pepper : Corn
(C) Oak : Tree
(D) Holly : Sprig
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) For each of the following capitalized words, four words or phrases are given of which only one is synonymous with the given word. Select the synonym.

16. DEFER
(A) Respect
(B) Dislike
(C) Postpone
(D) Disrespect
Ans : (C)

17. DUBIOUS
(A) Clear
(B) Undoubtedly
(C) Hesitant
(D) Doubtful
Ans : (D)

18. COARSE
(A) Impolite
(B) Rough
(C) Polished
(D) Improper
Ans : (B)

19. PROXIMITY
(A) Nearness
(B) Aloofness
(C) Completely
(D) Nearly
Ans : (A)

20. ABSTAIN
(A) Stay
(B) Tempt
(C) Refrain
(D) Pardon
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Fill in blanks by selecting appropriate alternative.

21. I met him only a week ……….
(A) back
(B) past
(C) ago
(D) previous
Ans : (C)

22. Lovey asked me ……….
(A) why are you angry ?
(B) why I am angry ?
(C) why I was angry ?
(D) why was I angry ?
Ans : (C)

23. Even after repeated warnings, he ……… to office on time.
(A) never come
(B) never comes
(C) is never coming
(D) have never come
Ans : (B)

24. He told his wife that ……… from Germany.
(A) he will like to visit France
(B) he was liking to visit France
(C) he would like to visit France
(D) he is liking to visit France
Ans : (C)

25. Some people can ……… even with murder.
(A) get on
(B) get out
(C) get off
(D) get away
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Choose the correct antonym from the choises for each of the following capitalised words—

26. INDIFFERENT
(A) Curious
(B) Varied
(C) Alike
(D) Uniform
Ans : (A)

27. DISCREET
(A) Wise
(B) Diplomatic
(C) Prudent
(D) Careless
Ans : (D)

28. OBSOLETE
(A) Free
(B) Ancient
(C) Current
(D) Cultured
Ans : (C)

29. RATIONAL
(A) Sound
(B) Insane
(C) Judicious
(D) Sensible
Ans : (B)

30. SCEPTICAL
(A) Doubtful
(B) Convinced
(C) Questioning
(D) Cinic
Ans : (B)
5th November 2014 09:59 AM
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