16th June 2015 08:48 AM | |
Quick Sam | Re: Online LSAT Practice Test Here I am providing the list of few Law School Admission Test questions which you are looking for . Law School Admission Test questions SECTION I Time—35 minutes 23 Questions Directions: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. Questions 1–5 A company employee generates a series of five-digit product codes in accordance with the following rules: The codes use the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, and 4, and no others. Each digit occurs exactly once in any code. The second digit has a value exactly twice that of the first digit. The value of the third digit is less than the value of the fifth digit. 1. If the last digit of an acceptable product code is 1, it must be true that the (A) first digit is 2 (B) second digit is 0 (C) third digit is 3 (D) fourth digit is 4 (E) fourth digit is 0 2. Which one of the following must be true about any acceptable product code? (A) The digit 1 appears in some position before the digit 2. (B) The digit 1 appears in some position before the digit 3. (C) The digit 2 appears in some position before the digit 3. (D) The digit 3 appears in some position before the digit 0. (E) The digit 4 appears in some position before the digit 3. 3. If the third digit of an acceptable product code is not 0, which one of the following must be true? (A) The second digit of the product code is 2. (B) The third digit of the product code is 3. (C) The fourth digit of the product code is 0. (D) The fifth digit of the product code is 3. (E) The fifth digit of the product code is 1. 4. Any of the following pairs could be the third and fourth digits, respectively, of an acceptable product code, EXCEPT: (A) 0, 1 (B) 0, 3 (C) 1, 0 (D) 3, 0 (E) 3, 4 5. Which one of the following must be true about any acceptable product code? (A) There is exactly one digit between the digit 0 and the digit 1. (B) There is exactly one digit between the digit 1 and the digit 2. (C) There are at most two digits between the digit 1 and the digit 3. (D) There are at most two digits between the digit 2 and the digit 3. (E) There are at most two digits between the digit 2 and the digit 4. Questions 6–10 Exactly three films—Greed, Harvest, and Limelight—are shown during a film club’s festival held on Thursday, Friday, and Saturday. Each film is shown at least once during the festival but never more than once on a given day. On each day at least one film is shown. Films are shown one at a time. The following conditions apply: On Thursday Harvest is shown, and no film is shown after it on that day. On Friday either Greed or Limelight, but not both, is shown, and no film is shown after it on that day. On Saturday either Greed or Harvest, but not both, is shown, and no film is shown after it on that day. 6. Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate description of the order in which the films are shown at the festival? (A) Thursday: Limelight, then Harvest; Friday: Limelight; Saturday: Harvest (B) Thursday: Harvest; Friday: Greed, then Limelight; Saturday: Limelight, then Greed (C) Thursday: Harvest; Friday: Limelight; Saturday: Limelight, then Greed (D) Thursday: Greed, then Harvest, then Limelight; Friday: Limelight; Saturday: Greed (E) Thursday: Greed, then Harvest; Friday: Limelight, then Harvest; Saturday: Harvest 7. Which one of the following CANNOT be true? (A) Harvest is the last film shown on each day of the festival. (B) Limelight is shown on each day of the festival. (C) Greed is shown second on each day of the festival. (D) A different film is shown first on each day of the festival. (E) A different film is shown last on each day of the festival. 8. If Limelight is never shown again during the festival once Greed is shown, then which one of the following is the maximum number of film showings that could occur during the festival? (A) three (B) four (C) five (D) six (E) seven 9. If Greed is shown exactly three times, Harvest is shown exactly twice, and Limelight is shown exactly once, then which one of the following must be true? (A) All three films are shown on Thursday. (B) Exactly two films are shown on Saturday. (C) Limelight and Harvest are both shown on Thursday. (D) Greed is the only film shown on Saturday. (E) Harvest and Greed are both shown on Friday. 10. If Limelight is shown exactly three times, Harvest is shown exactly twice, and Greed is shown exactly once, then which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the films that could be the first film shown on Thursday? (A) Harvest (B) Limelight (C) Greed, Harvest (D) Greed, Limelight (E) Greed, Harvest, Limelight Questions 11–17 A cruise line is scheduling seven week-long voyages for the ship Freedom. Each voyage will occur in exactly one of the first seven weeks of the season: weeks 1 through 7. Each voyage will be to exactly one of four destinations: Guadeloupe, Jamaica, Martinique, or Trinidad. Each destination will be scheduled for at least one of the weeks. The following conditions apply to Freedom’s schedule: Jamaica will not be its destination in week 4. Trinidad will be its destination in week 7. Freedom will make exactly two voyages to Martinique, and at least one voyage to Guadeloupe will occur in some week between those two voyages. Guadeloupe will be its destination in the week preceding any voyage it makes to Jamaica. No destination will be scheduled for consecutive weeks. 11. Which one of the following is an acceptable schedule of destinations for Freedom, in order from week 1 through week 7? (A) Guadeloupe, Jamaica, Martinique, Trinidad, Guadeloupe, Martinique, Trinidad (B) Guadeloupe, Martinique, Trinidad, Martinique, Guadeloupe, Jamaica, Trinidad (C) Jamaica, Martinique, Guadeloupe, Martinique, Guadeloupe, Jamaica, Trinidad (D) Martinique, Trinidad, Guadeloupe, Jamaica, Martinique, Guadeloupe, Trinidad (E) Martinique, Trinidad, Guadeloupe, Trinidad, Guadeloupe, Jamaica, Martinique 12. Which one of the following CANNOT be true about Freedom’s schedule of voyages? (A) Freedom makes a voyage to Trinidad in week 6. (B) Freedom makes a voyage to Martinique in week 5. (C) Freedom makes a voyage to Jamaica in week 6. (D) Freedom makes a voyage to Jamaica in week 3. (E) Freedom makes a voyage to Guadeloupe in week 3. 13. If Freedom makes a voyage to Trinidad in week 5, which one of the following could be true? (A) Freedom makes a voyage to Trinidad in week 1. (B) Freedom makes a voyage to Martinique in week 2. (C) Freedom makes a voyage to Guadeloupe in week 3. (D) Freedom makes a voyage to Martinique in week 4. (E) Freedom makes a voyage to Jamaica in week 6. 14. If Freedom makes a voyage to Guadeloupe in week 1 and a voyage to Jamaica in week 5, which one of the following must be true? (A) Freedom makes a voyage to Jamaica in week 2. (B) Freedom makes a voyage to Trinidad in week 2. (C) Freedom makes a voyage to Martinique in week 3. (D) Freedom makes a voyage to Guadeloupe in week 6. (E) Freedom makes a voyage to Martinique in week 6. 15. If Freedom makes a voyage to Guadeloupe in week 1 and to Trinidad in week 2, which one of the following must be true? (A) Freedom makes a voyage to Martinique in week 3. (B) Freedom makes a voyage to Martinique in week 4. (C) Freedom makes a voyage to Martinique in week 5. (D) Freedom makes a voyage to Guadeloupe in week 3. (E) Freedom makes a voyage to Guadeloupe in week 5. 16. If Freedom makes a voyage to Martinique in week 3, which one of the following could be an accurate list of Freedom’s destinations in week 4 and week 5, respectively? (A) Guadeloupe, Trinidad (B) Jamaica, Guadeloupe (C) Martinique, Trinidad (D) Trinidad, Jamaica (E) Trinidad, Martinique 17. Which one of the following must be true about Freedom’s schedule of voyages? (A) Freedom makes a voyage to Guadeloupe either in week 1 or else in week 2. (B) Freedom makes a voyage to Martinique either in week 2 or else in week 3. (C) Freedom makes at most two voyages to Guadeloupe. (D) Freedom makes at most two voyages to Jamaica. (E) Freedom makes at most two voyages to Trinidad. Questions 18–23 There are exactly three recycling centers in Rivertown: Center 1, Center 2, and Center 3. Exactly five kinds of material are recycled at these recycling centers: glass, newsprint, plastic, tin, and wood. Each recycling center recycles at least two but no more than three of these kinds of material. The following conditions must hold: Any recycling center that recycles wood also recycles newsprint. Every kind of material that Center 2 recycles is also recycled at Center 1. Only one of the recycling centers recycles plastic, and that recycling center does not recycle glass. 18. Which one of the following could be an accurate account of all the kinds of material recycled at each recycling center in Rivertown? (A) Center 1: newsprint, plastic, wood; Center 2: newsprint, wood; Center 3: glass, tin, wood (B) Center 1: glass, newsprint, tin; Center 2: glass, newsprint, tin; Center 3: newsprint, plastic, wood (C) Center 1: glass, newsprint, wood; Center 2: glass, newsprint, tin; Center 3: plastic, tin (D) Center 1: glass, plastic, tin; Center 2: glass, tin; Center 3: newsprint, wood (E) Center 1: newsprint, plastic, wood; Center 2: newsprint, plastic, wood; Center 3: glass, newsprint, tin 19. Which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the recycling centers in Rivertown any one of which could recycle plastic? (A) Center 1 only (B) Center 3 only (C) Center 1, Center 2 (D) Center 1, Center 3 (E) Center 1, Center 2, Center 3 20. If Center 2 recycles three kinds of material, then which one of the following kinds of material must Center 3 recycle? (A) glass (B) newsprint (C) plastic (D) tin (E) wood 21. If each recycling center in Rivertown recycles exactly three kinds of material, then which one of the following could be true? (A) Only Center 2 recycles glass. (B) Only Center 3 recycles newsprint. (C) Only Center 1 recycles plastic. (D) Only Center 3 recycles tin. (E) Only Center 1 recycles wood. 22. If Center 3 recycles glass, then which one of the following kinds of material must Center 2 recycle? (A) glass (B) newsprint (C) plastic (D) tin (E) wood 23. If Center 1 is the only recycling center that recycles wood, then which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the kinds of material that one of the recycling centers recycles? (A) plastic, tin (B) newsprint, wood (C) newsprint, tin (D) glass, wood (E) glass, tin SECTION II Time—35 minutes 25 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. 1. Economist: Every business strives to increase its productivity, for this increases profits for the owners and the likelihood that the business will survive. But not all efforts to increase productivity are beneficial to the business as a whole. Often, attempts to increase productivity decrease the number of employees, which clearly harms the dismissed employees as well as the sense of security of the retained employees. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main conclusion of the economist’s argument? (A) If an action taken to secure the survival of a business fails to enhance the welfare of the business’s employees, that action cannot be good for the business as a whole. (B) Some measures taken by a business to increase productivity fail to be beneficial to the business as a whole. (C) Only if the employees of a business are also its owners will the interests of the employees and owners coincide, enabling measures that will be beneficial to the business as a whole. (D) There is no business that does not make efforts to increase its productivity. (E) Decreasing the number of employees in a business undermines the sense of security of retained employees. 2. All Labrador retrievers bark a great deal. All Saint Bernards bark infrequently. Each of Rosa’s dogs is a cross between a Labrador retriever and a Saint Bernard. Therefore, Rosa’s dogs are moderate barkers. Which one of the following uses flawed reasoning that most closely resembles the flawed reasoning used in the argument above? (A) All students who study diligently make good grades. But some students who do not study diligently also make good grades. Jane studies somewhat diligently. Therefore, Jane makes somewhat good grades. (B) All type A chemicals are extremely toxic to human beings. All type B chemicals are nontoxic to human beings. This household cleaner is a mixture of a type A chemical and a type B chemical. Therefore, this household cleaner is moderately toxic. (C) All students at Hanson School live in Green County. All students at Edwards School live in Winn County. Members of the Perry family attend both Hanson and Edwards. Therefore, some members of the Perry family live in Green County and some live in Winn County. (D) All transcriptionists know shorthand. All engineers know calculus. Bob has worked both as a transcriptionist and as an engineer. Therefore, Bob knows both shorthand and calculus. (E) All of Kenisha’s dresses are very well made. All of Connie’s dresses are very badly made. Half of the dresses in this closet are very well made, and half of them are very badly made. Therefore, half of the dresses in this closet are Kenisha’s and half of them are Connie’s. 3. A century in certain ways is like a life, and as the end of a century approaches, people behave toward that century much as someone who is nearing the end of life does toward that life. So just as people in their last years spend much time looking back on the events of their life, people at a century’s end _______. Which one of the following most logically completes the argument? (A) reminisce about their own lives (B) fear that their own lives are about to end (C) focus on what the next century will bring (D) become very interested in the history of the century just ending (E) reflect on how certain unfortunate events of the century could have been avoided 4. Consumer: The latest Connorly Report suggests that Ocksenfrey prepackaged meals are virtually devoid of nutritional value. But the Connorly Report is commissioned by Danto Foods, Ocksenfrey’s largest corporate rival, and early drafts of the report are submitted for approval to Danto Foods’ public relations department. Because of the obvious bias of this report, it is clear that Ocksenfrey’s prepackaged meals really are nutritious. The reasoning in the consumer’s argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument (A) treats evidence that there is an apparent bias as evidence that the Connorly Report’s claims are false (B) draws a conclusion based solely on an unrepresentative sample of Ocksenfrey’s products (C) fails to take into account the possibility that Ocksenfrey has just as much motivation to create negative publicity for Danto as Danto has to create negative publicity for Ocksenfrey (D) fails to provide evidence that Danto Foods’ prepackaged meals are not more nutritious than Ocksenfrey’s are (E) presumes, without providing justification, that Danto Foods’ public relations department would not approve a draft of a report that was hostile to Danto Foods’ products 5. Scientist: Earth’s average annual temperature has increased by about 0.5 degrees Celsius over the last century. This warming is primarily the result of the buildup of minor gases in the atmosphere, blocking the outward flow of heat from the planet. Which one of the following, if true, would count as evidence against the scientist’s explanation of Earth’s warming? (A) Only some of the minor gases whose presence in the atmosphere allegedly resulted in the phenomenon described by the scientist were produced by industrial pollution. (B) Most of the warming occurred before 1940, while most of the buildup of minor gases in the atmosphere occurred after 1940. (C) Over the last century, Earth received slightly more solar radiation in certain years than it did in others. (D) Volcanic dust and other particles in the atmosphere reflect much of the Sun’s radiation back into space before it can reach Earth’s surface. (E) The accumulation of minor gases in the atmosphere has been greater over the last century than at any other time in Earth’s history. 6. An undergraduate degree is necessary for appointment to the executive board. Further, no one with a felony conviction can be appointed to the board. Thus, Murray, an accountant with both a bachelor’s and a master’s degree, cannot be accepted for the position of Executive Administrator, since he has a felony conviction. The argument’s conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is assumed? (A) Anyone with a master’s degree and without a felony conviction is eligible for appointment to the executive board. (B) Only candidates eligible for appointment to the executive board can be accepted for the position of Executive Administrator. (C) An undergraduate degree is not necessary for acceptance for the position of Executive Administrator. (D) If Murray did not have a felony conviction, he would be accepted for the position of Executive Administrator. (E) The felony charge on which Murray was convicted is relevant to the duties of the position of Executive Administrator. 7. Ethicist: The most advanced kind of moral motivation is based solely on abstract principles. This form of motivation is in contrast with calculated selfinterest or the desire to adhere to societal norms and conventions. The actions of which one of the following individuals exhibit the most advanced kind of moral motivation, as described by the ethicist? (A) Bobby contributed money to a local charity during a charity drive at work because he worried that not doing so would make him look stingy. (B) Wes contributed money to a local charity during a charity drive at work because he believed that doing so would improve his employer’s opinion of him. (C) Donna’s employers engaged in an illegal but profitable practice that caused serious damage to the environment. Donna did not report this practice to the authorities, out of fear that her employers would retaliate against her. (D) Jadine’s employers engaged in an illegal but profitable practice that caused serious damage to the environment. Jadine reported this practice to the authorities out of a belief that protecting the environment is always more important than monetary profit. (E) Leigh’s employers engaged in an illegal but profitable practice that caused serious damage to the environment. Leigh reported this practice to the authorities only because several colleagues had been pressuring her to do so. 8. Proponents of the electric car maintain that when the technical problems associated with its battery design are solved, such cars will be widely used and, because they are emission-free, will result in an abatement of the environmental degradation caused by auto emissions. But unless we dam more rivers, the electricity to charge these batteries will come from nuclear or coal-fired power plants. Each of these three power sources produces considerable environmental damage. Thus, the electric car _______. Which one of the following most logically completes the argument? (A) will have worse environmental consequences than its proponents may believe (B) will probably remain less popular than other types of cars (C) requires that purely technical problems be solved before it can succeed (D) will increase the total level of emissions rather than reduce it (E) will not produce a net reduction in environmental degradation 9. Although video game sales have increased steadily over the past 3 years, we can expect a reversal of this trend in the very near future. Historically, over three quarters of video games sold have been purchased by people from 13 to 16 years of age, and the number of people in this age group is expected to decline steadily over the next 10 years. Which one of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument? (A) Most people 17 years old or older have never purchased a video game. (B) Video game rentals have declined over the past 3 years. (C) New technology will undoubtedly make entirely new entertainment options available over the next 10 years. (D) The number of different types of video games available is unlikely to decrease in the near future. (E) Most of the people who have purchased video games over the past 3 years are over the age of 16. 10. Double-blind techniques should be used whenever possible in scientific experiments. They help prevent the misinterpretations that often arise due to expectations and opinions that scientists already hold, and clearly scientists should be extremely diligent in trying to avoid such misinterpretations. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main conclusion of the argument? (A) Scientists’ objectivity may be impeded by interpreting experimental evidence on the basis of expectations and opinions that they already hold. (B) It is advisable for scientists to use double-blind techniques in as high a proportion of their experiments as they can. (C) Scientists sometimes neglect to adequately consider the risk of misinterpreting evidence on the basis of prior expectations and opinions. (D) Whenever possible, scientists should refrain from interpreting evidence on the basis of previously formed expectations and convictions. (E) Double-blind experimental techniques are often an effective way of ensuring scientific objectivity. 11. It is now a common complaint that the electronic media have corroded the intellectual skills required and fostered by the literary media. But several centuries ago the complaint was that certain intellectual skills, such as the powerful memory and extemporaneous eloquence that were intrinsic to oral culture, were being destroyed by the spread of literacy. So, what awaits us is probably a mere alteration of the human mind rather than its devolution. The reference to the complaint of several centuries ago that powerful memory and extemporaneous eloquence were being destroyed plays which one of the following roles in the argument? (A) evidence supporting the claim that the intellectual skills fostered by the literary media are being destroyed by the electronic media (B) an illustration of the general hypothesis being advanced that intellectual abilities are inseparable from the means by which people communicate (C) an example of a cultural change that did not necessarily have a detrimental effect on the human mind overall (D) evidence that the claim that the intellectual skills required and fostered by the literary media are being lost is unwarranted (E) possible evidence, mentioned and then dismissed, that might be cited by supporters of the hypothesis being criticized 12. Suppose I have promised to keep a confidence and someone asks me a question that I cannot answer truthfully without thereby breaking the promise. Obviously, I cannot both keep and break the same promise. Therefore, one cannot be obliged both to answer all questions truthfully and to keep all promises. Which one of the following arguments is most similar in its reasoning to the argument above? (A) It is claimed that we have the unencumbered right to say whatever we want. It is also claimed that we have the obligation to be civil to others. But civility requires that we not always say what we want. So, it cannot be true both that we have the unencumbered right to say whatever we want and that we have the duty to be civil. (B) Some politicians could attain popularity with voters only by making extravagant promises; this, however, would deceive the people. So, since the only way for some politicians to be popular is to deceive, and any politician needs to be popular, it follows that some politicians must deceive. (C) If we put a lot of effort into making this report look good, the client might think we did so because we believed our proposal would not stand on its own merits. On the other hand, if we do not try to make the report look good, the client might think we are not serious about her business. So, whatever we do, we risk her criticism. (D) If creditors have legitimate claims against a business and the business has the resources to pay those debts, then the business is obliged to pay them. Also, if a business has obligations to pay debts, then a court will force it to pay them. But the courts did not force this business to pay its debts, so either the creditors did not have legitimate claims or the business did not have sufficient resources. (E) If we extend our business hours, we will either have to hire new employees or have existing employees work overtime. But both new employees and additional overtime would dramatically increase our labor costs. We cannot afford to increase labor costs, so we will have to keep our business hours as they stand. 13. Standard aluminum soft-drink cans do not vary in the amount of aluminum that they contain. Fifty percent of the aluminum contained in a certain group (M) of standard aluminum soft-drink cans was recycled from another group (L) of used, standard aluminum softdrink cans. Since all the cans in L were recycled into cans in M and since the amount of material other than aluminum in an aluminum can is negligible, it follows that M contains twice as many cans as L. The conclusion of the argument follows logically if which one of the following is assumed? (A) The aluminum in the cans of M cannot be recycled further. (B) Recycled aluminum is of poorer quality than unrecycled aluminum. (C) All of the aluminum in an aluminum can is recovered when the can is recycled. (D) None of the soft-drink cans in group L had been made from recycled aluminum. (E) Aluminum soft-drink cans are more easily recycled than are soft-drink cans made from other materials. 14. A cup of raw milk, after being heated in a microwave oven to 50 degrees Celsius, contains half its initial concentration of a particular enzyme, lysozyme. If, however, the milk reaches that temperature through exposure to a conventional heat source of 50 degrees Celsius, it will contain nearly all of its initial concentration of the enzyme. Therefore, what destroys the enzyme is not heat but microwaves, which generate heat. Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument? (A) Heating raw milk in a microwave oven to a temperature of 100 degrees Celsius destroys nearly all of the lysozyme initially present in that milk. (B) Enzymes in raw milk that are destroyed through excessive heating can be replaced by adding enzymes that have been extracted from other sources. (C) A liquid exposed to a conventional heat source of exactly 50 degrees Celsius will reach that temperature more slowly than it would if it were exposed to a conventional heat source hotter than 50 degrees Celsius. (D) Milk that has been heated in a microwave oven does not taste noticeably different from milk that has been briefly heated by exposure to a conventional heat source. (E) Heating any liquid by microwave creates small zones within it that are much hotter than the overall temperature that the liquid will ultimately reach. 15. A new government policy has been developed to avoid many serious cases of influenza. This goal will be accomplished by the annual vaccination of high-risk individuals: everyone 65 and older as well as anyone with a chronic disease that might cause them to experience complications from the influenza virus. Each year’s vaccination will protect only against the strain of the influenza virus deemed most likely to be prevalent that year, so every year it will be necessary for all high-risk individuals to receive a vaccine for a different strain of the virus. Which one of the following is an assumption that would allow the conclusion above to be properly drawn? (A) The number of individuals in the high-risk group for influenza will not significantly change from year to year. (B) The likelihood that a serious influenza epidemic will occur varies from year to year. (C) No vaccine for the influenza virus protects against more than one strain of that virus. (D) Each year the strain of influenza virus deemed most likely to be prevalent will be one that had not previously been deemed most likely to be prevalent. (E) Each year’s vaccine will have fewer side effects than the vaccine of the previous year since the technology for making vaccines will constantly improve. 16. Taylor: Researchers at a local university claim that 61 percent of the information transferred during a conversation is communicated through nonverbal signals. But this claim, like all such mathematically precise claims, is suspect, because claims of such exactitude could never be established by science. Sandra: While precision is unobtainable in many areas of life, it is commonplace in others. Many scientific disciplines obtain extremely precise results, which should not be doubted merely because of their precision. The statements above provide the most support for holding that Sandra would disagree with Taylor about which one of the following statements? (A) Research might reveal that 61 percent of the information taken in during a conversation is communicated through nonverbal signals. (B) It is possible to determine whether 61 percent of the information taken in during a conversation is communicated through nonverbal signals. (C) The study of verbal and nonverbal communication is an area where one cannot expect great precision in one’s research results. (D) Some sciences can yield mathematically precise results that are not inherently suspect. (E) If inherently suspect claims are usually false, then the majority of claims made by scientists are false as well. 17. Hospital executive: At a recent conference on nonprofit management, several computer experts maintained that the most significant threat faced by large institutions such as universities and hospitals is unauthorized access to confidential data. In light of this testimony, we should make the protection of our clients’ confidentiality our highest priority. The hospital executive’s argument is most vulnerable to which one of the following objections? (A) The argument confuses the causes of a problem with the appropriate solutions to that problem. (B) The argument relies on the testimony of experts whose expertise is not shown to be sufficiently broad to support their general claim. (C) The argument assumes that a correlation between two phenomena is evidence that one is the cause of the other. (D) The argument draws a general conclusion about a group based on data about an unrepresentative sample of that group. (E) The argument infers that a property belonging to large institutions belongs to all institutions. 18. Modern science is built on the process of posing hypotheses and testing them against observations—in essence, attempting to show that the hypotheses are incorrect. Nothing brings more recognition than overthrowing conventional wisdom. It is accordingly unsurprising that some scientists are skeptical of the widely accepted predictions of global warming. What is instead remarkable is that with hundreds of researchers striving to make breakthroughs in climatology, very few find evidence that global warming is unlikely. The information above provides the most support for which one of the following statements? (A) Most scientists who are reluctant to accept the global warming hypothesis are not acting in accordance with the accepted standards of scientific debate. (B) Most researchers in climatology have substantial motive to find evidence that would discredit the global warming hypothesis. (C) There is evidence that conclusively shows that the global warming hypothesis is true. (D) Scientists who are skeptical about global warming have not offered any alternative hypotheses to explain climatological data. (E) Research in global warming is primarily driven by a desire for recognition in the scientific community. 19. Historian: The Land Party achieved its only national victory in Banestria in 1935. It received most of its support that year in rural and semirural areas, where the bulk of Banestria’s population lived at the time. The economic woes of the years surrounding that election hit agricultural and small business interests the hardest, and the Land Party specifically targeted those groups in 1935. I conclude that the success of the Land Party that year was due to the combination of the Land Party’s specifically addressing the concerns of these groups and the depth of the economic problems people in these groups were facing. Each of the following, if true, strengthens the historian’s argument EXCEPT: (A) In preceding elections the Land Party made no attempt to address the interests of economically distressed urban groups. (B) Voters are more likely to vote for a political party that focuses on their problems. (C) The Land Party had most of its successes when there was economic distress in the agricultural sector. (D) No other major party in Banestria specifically addressed the issues of people who lived in semirural areas in 1935. (E) The greater the degree of economic distress someone is in, the more likely that person is to vote. For more questions , here is the attachment; |
15th June 2015 01:00 PM | |
Unregistered | Online LSAT Practice Test I want to obtain good marks in Law School Admission Test . Will you please provide the Law School Admission Test questions for practice ? |