LSAT CR Problems

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I am looking for the Law School Admission Test Critical Reasoning Questions. Will you please provide it?

[Quick Sam]

Here I am providing the list of few questions of Law School Admission Test Critical Reasoning Questions which you are looking for .

Law School Admission Test Critical Reasoning Questions
1.One of the truisms of the advertising industry is that it is rarely necessary to say something
of substance in an advertisement in order to boost sales. Instead, one only needs to attract the
potential customer’s attention; memory does the rest, for it is more important for sales that
people know of a product than that they know something about it.
Which of the following is assumed by the argument?
A. People can remember a product without having much information about it.
B. Advertisements, in their own way, function to improve people’s memories.
C. Attracting a potential customer’s attention is a simple matter.
D. The advertising industry knows little of substance about the products it promotes.
E. Advertisements seldom tell the truth about a product.
Explanation:
The passage discusses how advertising usually need only draw people’s attention to a
product and need not provide any substance for people to remember the product. Thus, the
passage implies that people can remember a product without having much information about
it, and A is the correct answer.
B is incorrect. The passage suggests that if advertisements draw people’s attention to a
product, the people are more apt to remember the product. The advertisement is not said to
improve people’s memories, only to draw people’s attention so they will use their existing
memories.
C is also incorrect. The passage says that all one usually needs to do is attract a potential
customer’s attention. It does not say how easy or difficult that is.
The fourth answer choice is incorrect. The passage says that it is rarely necessary to say
something of substance in an advertisement but does not suggest that the advertising industry
knows little of substance about the product.
The last answer choice is incorrect. The passage does not suggest that advertisements make
false claims about products.
2.Why save endangered species? For the general public, endangered species appear to be
little more than biological oddities. A very different perception is gained from considering the
issue of extinction in a wider context. The important point is that many major social advances
have been made on the basis of life forms whose worth would never have been perceived in
advance. Consider the impact of rubber-producing plants on contemporary life and industry:
approximately two-thirds of the world’s rubber supply comes from rubber producing plants and
is made into objects as diverse as rubber washers and rubber boots.
The point of the passage is made chiefly by
A. acknowledging the validity of two opposing points of view
B. appealing to the emotions of the audience rather than to their intellects
C. suggesting a useful perspective for viewing the question raised at the beginning of the
passage
D. trying to discredit the view of an opponent without presenting an alternative hypothesis
E. generalizing from similar to dissimilar cases.
Explanation:
The passage suggests that considering the possibility of extinction with an eye toward the
possible utility of a previously unvalued species will lead to a different answer to the question
than considering the possibility of extinction from a more general perspective. C describes the
author’s procedure of suggesting a new perspective and is thus the correct answer.
The first choice is incorrect. The author argues that it is important to preserve endangered
species without endorsing any opposing point of view. The view attributed to the general
public is not accepted; rather, an argument is given to show what that view misses. B is
incorrect. The author uses an approach that is primarily factual, and does not seek to arouse
the emotions of its audience. D is also incorrect. The author tries to undermine an opposing
position by presenting an alternative to it. The last answer choice is incorrect. The
generalization about the potential value of life forms whose value was not perceived in
advance is supported by an example of a similar case, namely that of rubber plants.
3.Only a member of the Regionalist party would oppose the bill for a new recycling law that
would protect the environment from industrial interests. Ellen cannot be a member of the
Regionalist party because she supports the bill.
Which of the following statements points out why the conclusion is invalidly drawn?
A. Regionalist party members have organized to oppose industrial interests on several other
issues.
B. Industrial interests need not oppose the protection of the environment.
C. Past attempts to protect the environment through recycling laws have failed.
D. It is possible that some Regionalist party members may not oppose the bill for a new
recycling law.
E. Ellen has attended programs and distributed literature prepared by the Regionalist party.
Explanation:
The fact that only a member of the Regionalist party would oppose the bill does not imply that
all members of the Regionalist party would oppose the bill. Based on the initial statement,
Ellen may or may not be a member of the Regionalist party if she supports the bill. For the
conclusion to be valid, the initial statement would have to read, “All members of the
Regionalist party would oppose the bill for a new recycling law…” Thus, the choice of D makes
the relevant logical point.
The first three answer choices are incorrect. Each presents at best a piece of background
information without being specifically related to the question of whether all Regionalist party
members would oppose the bill. The last answer choice is also incorrect. Ellen’s attending
programs and distributing literature prepared by the Regionalist party might appear to make it
likely that the conclusion is false. But suggesting that the conclusion might be false does not
help show why the conclusion is invalidly drawn.
4.Roberta was born in 1967, and so in 1976 she was nine years old. It is clear from this
example that the last two digits of a person’s birth year will be the same as the last two digits
of the year of that person’s ninth birthday, except that the position of the digits will be
reversed.
Which of the following is the best criticism of the assertions made?
A. The generalization is valid only for those birth years that do not end in two zeroes.
B. The example does not exhibit the same principle as is expressed in the generalization
based on it.
C. The generalization is valid only for those birth years in which the last digit is one greater
than the second-to-last digit.
D. The example cannot be shown to be correct unless the truth of the generalization is already
presupposed.
E. The generalization is valid only for those birth years in which the last digit is greater than
five.
Explanation:
The generalization is only true for some birth years. A good criticism of the generalization
would show when the generalization is not true. C does just that and thus is the correct
answer.
A is incorrect. It is false that the generalization holds for all years that do not end in two zeros.
For example, 1970 is a birth year that does not end in two zeros. However, 1970 plus nine
equals 1979, and hence this is a case for which the generalization is not valid. Since this
answer choice is false, it cannot be a good criticism of the assertions.
The second answer choice is also incorrect. In the example, the last two digits of the person’s
birth year-67-are the same as the last two digits of the year of the person’s ninth
birthday-76-except reversed. Thus, the example does in fact exhibit the same principle as the
generalization.
The fourth answer choice is incorrect. The difference between 1976 and 1967 is nine. The
correctness of the first statement depends only on this fact and the fact that Roberta was born
in 1967 and was still alive in 1976. Thus, the truth of the generalization is not presupposed.
The last answer choice is also incorrect. Consider birth year 1923. a person born in 1923
would have been nine in 1932 and the generalization holds. So E is false.
5.The greatest chance for the existence of extraterrestrial life is on a planet beyond our solar
system. The Milky Way galaxy alone contains 100 billion other suns, many of which could be
accompanied by planets similar enough to Earth to make them suitable abodes of life.
The statement presupposes which of the following?
A. Living creatures on another planet would probably have the same appearance as those on
Earth.
B. Life cannot exist on other planets in our solar system.
C. If the appropriate physical conditions exist, life is an inevitable consequence.
D. More than one of the suns in the galaxy is accompanied by an Earth-like planet.
E. It is likely that life on another planet would require conditions similar to those on Earth.
Explanation:
In stating that planets may exist that are similar enough to Earth to make them suitable for
supporting life, the author implicitly rules out planets dissimilar to Earth as likely to support life.
The assumption underlying the statement is that life on another planet is likely to require
conditions similar to those on Earth. Therefore, E is the correct answer.
A is not correct. The statement presupposes nothing about the appearance of extraterrestrial
life. B is incorrect. The statement implies that it is relatively unlikely that life exists on other
planets in our solar system, but it makes no presupposition absolutely ruling out the possibility
that such life exists. The answer choice of C is incorrect. Although the statement suggests that
there is the greatest chance for life when physical conditions are appropriate, it leaves open
the possibility that no life will exist even with appropriate conditions. D is also incorrect. The
statement says that it is possible that more than one of the suns in the galaxy is accompanied
by an Earth-like planet, but it does not presuppose that there are actually any such suns.
6.The state with the greatest fraction of its population in urban areas, if the urban areas are
considered to include the suburbs, is California. The West is highly urbanized, but California is
exceptional even in that region: 91 percent of its population lives in urban areas.
Geographically, however, California is rural: 96 percent of its land is outside urban areas.
If all of the statements are true, which of the following is best supported on the basis of them?
A. No state has a smaller fraction of its population in rural areas than California has.
B. The current rate of population growth in California’s urban areas exceeds that current rate
of population growth in California’s rural areas.
C. In California 96 percent of the population lives on 9 percent of the land.
D. No state has a smaller area devoted to urban settlement than California has.
E. California’s population density is among the highest of all states in the United States.
Explanation:
The passage states that of all the states, California has the greatest fraction of its population
(91 out of 100) living in urban areas. That means only 9 out of every 100 California residents
live in rural areas. The greatest fraction of any other states’ population living in urban areas, to
be smaller than California’s fraction, must be 90 or fewer out of every 100. That means that, in
every other state, 10 or more out of every 100 residents live in rural areas. Since 9 out of
every 100 is smaller than 10 or more out of every 100, so A is the correct answer.
B is incorrect. In order to decide whether this statement is true, it is necessary to know about
rates of population growth. No such information is provided in the passage. The third answer
choice is also incorrect. Since 96 percent of the land is outside urban areas, 4 percent is
inside urban areas. Thus, 91 percent of the population lives on 4 percent of the land. The
fourth answer choice is incorrect. The passage does not provide enough information to
determine whether this statement is true or false. No comparison is made between the amount
of land area in California devoted to urban settlement and the amount of land area in other
states devoted to urban settlement. E is incorrect. The passage does not provide sufficient
information to determine whether this statement is true or false. Information on the actual size
of the population as compared to total land area of California and other states would be
necessary to make a judgment about population density in these states.
7.A ten-year comparison between the countries of Arudia and Cazonia in terms of crop yields
per acre revealed that when only planted acreae is compared, Cazonian yields are equal to 68
percent of Arudian yields. When total agricultural acreage (planted acreage plus fallow
acreage) is compared, however, Cazonia’s yield is 114 percent of Arudia’s yield.
From the information above, which of the following can be most reliably inferred about Arudian
and Cazonian agriculture during the ten-year period?
A. A higher percentage of total agricultural acreage was fallow in Arudia than in Cazonia.
B. Arudia had more fallow acreage than planted acreage.
C. Fewer total acres of available agricultural land were fallow in Cazonia than in Arudia.
D. Cazonia had more planted acreage than fallow acreage.
E. Cazonia produced a greater volume of crops than Arudia produced.
Explanation:
If crop yield per planted acre was less in Cazonia than it was in Arudia, yet crop yield per total
(planted plus fallow) agricultural acreage was greater in Cazonia than it was in Arudia, there
must have been a lower percentage of the total acreage that was left fallow in Cazonia than
there was in Arudia. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
B is incorrect. From the information in the passage, it is impossible to tell whether Arudia had
more or less fallow acreage than planted acreage. C is not correct. Since the comparisons
made in the passage are based on crop yields per acre, it is impossible to tell whether there
was more or less fallow acreage in Cazonia than in Arudia. D is also incorrect. From the
information in the passage, it is impossible to tell whether Cazonia had more or less planted
acreage than fallow acreage. The last answer choice is incorrect. Since the comparisons
made in the passage are based on crop yields per acre, it is impossible to tell whether
Cazonia produced a greater volume of crops than Arudia produced.
8.In the United States between 1850 and 1880, the number of farmers continued to increase,
but at a rate lower than that of the general population.
Which of the following statements directly contradicts the information presented above?
A. The number of farmers in the general population increased slightly in the thirty years
between 1850 and 1880.
B. The rate of growth of the United States labor force and the rate of growth of the general
population rose simultaneously in the thirty years between 1850 and 1880.
C. The proportion of farmers in the United States labor force remained constant in the thirty
years between 1850 and 1880.
D. The proportion of farmers in the United States labor force decreased from 64 percent in
1850 to 49 percent in 1880.
E. The proportion of farmers in the general population increased from 68 percent in 1850 to 72
percent in 1880.
Explanation:
The passage indicates that the proportion of farmers in the general population decreased from
1850 to 1880. the fifth answer choice says exactly the opposite-that this proportion increased;
therefore, it contradicts the passage and is the correct response.
A is incorrect. The passage also indicates that the number of farmers increased between 1850
and 1880, and thus agrees with this choice. B is also incorrect. The passage does not tell us
about the rate of growth of the labor force. It can be inferred from the passage that the general
population grew, but this choice agrees with, rather than contradicts, this conclusion. The
choice of C is not the correct answer. We cannot draw any conclusions about the proportion of
farmers in the labor force from the passage alone. The fourth is also incorrect. We cannot
draw any conclusions about the proportion of farmers in the labor force from the passage
alone.
9.The 38 corporations that filed United States income tax returns showing a net income of
more than $ 100 million accounted for 53 percent of the total taxable income from foreign
sources reported on all tax returns. Sixty percent of the total taxable income from foreign
sources came from the 200 returns reporting income from 10 or more countries.
If the statements above are true, which of the following must also be true?
A. Most of the total taxable income earned by corporations with net income above $ 100
million was earned from foreign sources.
B. Wealthy individuals with large personal incomes reported 47 percent of the total taxable
income from foreign sources.
C. Income from foreign sources amounted to between 53 and 60 percent of all reported
taxable income.
D. Some of the corporations with net income above $ 100 million reported income from 10 or
more countries.
E. Most of the tax returns showing income from 10 or more countries reported net income of
more than $ 100 million.
Explanation:
If 38 tax returns in one category account for 53 percent of the total taxable income from
foreign sources, and if 200 tax returns in another category account for 60 percent of the same
amount, then the two categories must overlap to some extent. Only if the two percentages,
added together, amounted to 100 percent or less is there not necessarily any overlap. Here,
the two percentages add up to 113 percent. The answer choice that expresses an overlap
between the category of corporations with a net income of above $ 100 million and that of
corporations with income from 10 or more countries is D, which is thus the correct answer.
A is not correct. Whereas corporations with net incomes of above $ 100 million account for
more than half of the total taxable income from foreign sources, we cannot tell from the
information given what proportion of their own total incomes from all sources is derived from
incomes from foreign sources. The second answer choice is incorrect. All we can infer is that
47 percent was reported by taxpayers other than corporations with net incomes above $ 100
million. These taxpayers could be other corporations with somewhat lower incomes. C is not
the correct answer choice. The figures of 53 and 60 percent refer to percentages of total
taxable income from foreign sources. Neither these nor any other figures in the passage refer
to or imply any percentages of all reported taxable income. E, the last choice, is also incorrect.
Since there are only 38 corporations with reported net incomes of more than $ 100 million, but
200 taxpayers with income from 10 or more countries, at the very most somewhat less than 20
percent of those 200 taxpayers could report net incomes of more than $ 100 million.
10.The greater the division of labor in an economy, the greater the need for coordination. This
is because increased division of labor entails a larger number of specialized producers, which
results in a greater burden on managers and, potentially, in a greater number of disruptions of
supply and production. There is always more division of labor in market economies than in
planned economies.
If all of the statements given are true, the which of the following must also be true?
A. Disruptions of supply and production are more frequent in planned economies than in
market economies.
B. There are more specialized producers in planned economies than in market economies.
C. The need for coordination in market economies is greater than in planned economies.
D. A manager’s task is easier in a market economy than in a planned economy.
E. Division of labor functions more effectively in market economies than in planned
economies.
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