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8th June 2015, 04:07 PM
IPU CET MBA Previous Year Question Papers

Hello, I am appearing for the IPU CET exam. So I am looking for the question paper for MBA. So can you please share the details regarding this with the syllabus and the paper pattern??
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8th June 2015, 04:34 PM
Super Moderator
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: IPU CET MBA Previous Year Question Papers

You are looking for the details of the IPU CET MBA exam. So I am providing it to you:

Structure of Exam:

The Indraprastha university common entrance exam for the MBA is of MCQ format with for different options. The MBA test covers the topics from

• English Language & Comprehension
• Numerical Ability including data interpretation
• Computer Awareness
• Reasoning ability

The candidates should complete the enter paper within 150 minutes and there is a penalty for each wrong response. The written test will follow GD&PI.


General Awareness

• Technological and cultural environments
• Industrial, trade, fiscal, budgetary and monetary policies
• Indian banking system
• Indian and international trade
• Economic agreements
• Indian economy
• Changes in political
• Basic economic indicators
• Awareness about corporate sector

Numerical ability and Data interpretation

• Elementary algebra - algebraic equations
• HCF and LCM
• Interest
• Percentage
• Power, exponents and roots
• Time and distance
• Ratio
• Relative speed
• Rules of divisibility
• Shares and discount
• Stocks
• Time and work
• Elementary geometry
• Basics of trigonometry and coordinate geometry
• Linear and quadratic equations
• Sets
• Basic of probability
• Permutation and combination
• Reasoning and Intelligence
• Syllogism
• Number series
• Logical diagrams
• Letter series
• Coding and decoding

English language and Comprehension

• Word formation
• Vocabulary
• Synonyms
• Sentence structure and construction
• Prepositions
• Pairing of words
• Identification of mistakes
• Grammar and usage
• Comprehension at paragraph and sentence level
• Completion of sentences
• Antonyms
• Analogies
• Active and passive voice

List of Test centers:

• Shimla
• Nagpur
• Moradabad
• Lucknow
• Kolkata
• Jallandhar
• Jaipur
• Hissar
• Delhi
• Dehradun
• Chandigarh
• Bhopal
• Bangalore

You are looking for the sample paper. So I am providing it to you:

1. Following two wave trains are approaching each other.
y1 = a sin 200 π t y2 = a sin 208 π t
The number of beats heard per second is :
A. 8 B. 4 C. 1 D. 0
2. One of the geo-stationary satellites of India is vertically above
A. New Delhi B. Mumbai C. Allahabad D. None of these
3. Light of wavelength 2400 x 10-10 m in air will become light of wavelength in glass (µ = 1.5)
equal to
A. 1600 x 10-10 m B. 7200 x 10-10 m C. 1080 x 10-10 m D. none of these
4. The ratio of secondary to primary turns is 4:5. If power input is P, what will be the ratio of
power output (neglect all losses) to power input ?
A. 4:9 B. 9:4 C. 5:4 D. 1:1
5. Lenz's law applies to
A. electrostatics B. lenses
C. electro-magnetic induction D. cinema slides
6. If a proton and anti-proton come close to each other and annihilate, how much energy will be
released ?
A. 1.5 x 10-10 J B. 3 x 10-10 J C. 4.5 x 10-10 J D. none of these
7. If Sn is doped with As, what will be the result
A. n-type
B. p-type
C. intrinsic
D. none of
8. A charge is placed at the centre of a cube, what is the electric flux passing through one of its
A. (1/6) x (q/ε0) B. q/ε0 C. 6q/ε0 D. None of these
9. What is the degree of freedom in case of a mono atomic gas ?
A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. None of these
10. The ratio of secondary to primary turns is 4:5. If power input is P, what will be the ratio of
power output (neglect all losses) to power input ?
A. B. C. D.
11. Speed of recession of galaxy is proportional to its distance
A. directly B. inversely C. exponentially D. none of these
12. If a substance goes in a magnetic field and is pushed out of it, what is it ?
A. Paramagnetic B. Ferromagnetic C. Diamagnetic D. Antiferromagnetic
13. Which is not a scalar quantity?
A. Work B. Power C. Torque D. Gravitational
14. Minimum energy required to excite an electron in a Hydrogen atom in ground state is :
A. -13.6 eV B. 13.6 eV C. 10.2 eV D. 3.4 eV
15. If Gravitational Constant is decreasing in time, what will remain unchanged in case of a
satellite orbiting around earth ?
A. Time period B. Orbiting radius C. Tangential velocity D. Angular velocity
16. If a transparent medium of refractive index µ = 1.5 and thickness t = 2.5 x 10-5 m is inserted
in front of one of the slits of Young's Double Slit experiment, how much will be the shift in the
interference pattern ? The distance between the slits is 5.0 x 10-3 cm and that between slits and
screen is 100 cm.
A. 5 cm B. 2.5 cm C. 0.25 cm D. 0.1 cm
17. How does light propagate in optical fibres?
A. Total internal
reflection B. Refraction C. Reflection D. None of these
18. Dispersion of light is due to
A. wavelength B. intensity of light C. density of medium D. none of these
19. Which of the following conclusions is correct regarding
a stationary body?
A. No force is acting on the body
B. Vector sum of forces acing on the body is zero
C. The body is in vacuum
D. The forces acting on the body do not constitute a couple
20. Energy released in stars is due to
A. Fission B. Fusion C. Combustion D. Chemical reaction
21. 13 days is the half-life period of a sample. After how many days, the sample will become
1/16th of the original substance ?
A. 52 B. 3.8 C. 3 D. none of these
22. Absolute zero is the temperature at which
A. water solidifies B. all gases become liquid
C. motion of molecules becomes minimum D. everything solidifies
23. Motion of liquid in a tube is described by
A. Bernaulli's Theorem B. Poiseuille Equation C. Stoke's Law D. Archimedes'
24. Molecular motion shows itself as
A. Temperature B. Internal Energy C. Friction D. Viscosity
25. Which is this gate ?
26. Energy bands in solids are a consequence of
A. Ohm's Law B. Pauli's Exclusion Principle
C. Bohr's Theory D. Heissenberg's Uncertainty Principle
27. A boy of mass M stands on the floor of an elevator moving downwards with an acceleration
a which is less than g. The force exerted by the boy on the floor of the elevator is
A. Mg x Ma B. g + a C. Mg – Ma D. Mg + Ma
28. A body A of mass m1 exerts a force on another body B of mass m2. If the acceleration of B be
a2, then the acceleration (in magnitude ) of A is
A. m2/m1 (a2) B. m1m2 a2 C. m1/m2 (a2) D. (m1 + m2) a2
29. What does not change when sound enters from one medium to another ?
A. Wavelength B. Speed C. Frequency D. none of these
30. Resolving power of a microscope depends upon
A. wavelength of light used, directly B. wavelength of light used, inversely
C. frequency of light used D. focal length of objective
31. An astronaut of weight Mg is in a rocket accelerating upward with an acceleration of 4g. The
apparent weight of the astronaut will be
A. 5Kg B. 4Kg C. Mg D. zero
32. One proton beam enters a magnetic field of 10-4 m/s normally, sp. charge = 1011 C/kg,
velocity = 109 m/s. What is the radius of the circle describe by it ?
A. 0.1 m B. 100 m C. 10 m D. none of these
33. If a black body radiates 20 calories per second at 227°C, it will radiate at 727°C
A. 10 calories per
B. 80 calories per
C. 320 calories per
second D. none of these
34. If a carnot engine is working with source temperature equal to 227°C and its sink
temperature is at 27°C, its efficiency will be
A. 20% B. 10% C. 67% D. 50%
35. If the frequency of an oscillating particle is n, then the frequency of oscillation of its potential
energy is
A. n B. 2n C. n/2 D. 4n
36. If an electron oscillates at a frequency of 1 GHz, it gives :
A. X-rays B. Micro-waves
C. Infra-red rays D. None of these
37. Earth's atmosphere is richest in
A. Ultra-violet rays B. Infra-red rays C. X-rays D. Micro-waves
38. Cathode rays consist of
A. Photons B. Electrons C. Protons D. α -particles
39. A body of mass m1 is moving with a velocity V. It collides with another stationary body of
mass m2. They get embedded. At the point of collision, the velocity of the system
A. increases B. decreases but does not become zero
C. remains same D. becomes zero
40. One projectile moving with velocity V in space, gets burst into 2 parts of masses in the ratio
1:2. The smaller part becomes stationary. What is the velocity of the other part ?
A. 4V B. V C. 4V/3 D. 2V/3
41. A thief steals a box of weight W & jumps from the third floor of a building. During jump, he
experiences a weight of
A. W B. 3W C. 1.5W D. zero
42. Two electron beams are moving parallel in space but in opposite directions; then
A. they will attract each other B. they will repel each other
C. no interaction will take place D. none of these
43. Two wires with resistances R and 3R are connected in parallel, the ratio of heat generated in
2R and R is
A. 1 : 3 B. 2 : 1 C. 1 : 4 D. 4 : 1
44. A wire is drawn such that its radius changes from r to 2r, the new resistance is
A. 2 times B. 4 times C. 8 times D. 1/16 times
45. In solids, inter-atomic forces are
A. totally repulsive B. totally attractive
C. combination of (a) and (b) D. none of these
46. When horse starts running all of a sudden, the rider on the horse back falls backward because
A. he is taken aback
B. he is afraid
C. due to inertia of rest, the upper part of his body remains at rest
D. due to inertia of motion, the lower part of his body comes in motion
47. What should be the minimum velocity at the highest point of a body tied to a string, so that
the string just does not slack ?
A. √ (Rg) B. √ (5Rg) C. (R/g)3/2 D. √ (2Rg)
48. If a person standing on a rotating disc stretches out his hands, the speed will:
A. increase B. decrease
C. remain same D. none of these
49. EMF is most closely related to
A. mechanical force B. potential difference C. electric field D. magnetic field
50. Planetary system in the solar system describes
A. conservation of energy B. conservation of linear momentum
C. conservation of angular momentum D. none of these
51. Lenz's law is based upon
A. energy B. momentum C. angular momentum D. inertia
52. Faraday's second law states that mass deposited on the electrode is directly proportional to
A. atomic mass B. atomic mass x
velocity C. atomic mass/valency D. valency
53. Unit of power is
A. kilowatt hour B. kilowatt per hour C. kilowatt D. erg
54. Power can be expressed as
A. F.v B. 1/2 (Fv2) C. F.t D. F x v
55. Units of coefficient of viscosity are
A. Nms-1 B. Nm2 s-1 C. Nm-2 s D. Nms-2
56. Dimensions of torque are
A. MLT-2 B. ML2T-2 C. M2L2T-2 D. ML-2T-2
57. A body of weight mg is hanging on a string, which extends its length by l. The work done in
extending the string is
A. mg l B. mg l/2 C. 2 mg l D. none of these
58. The water droplets in free fall are spherical due to
A. gravity B. viscosity C. surface tension D. inter-molecular
59. A ball of mass 1Kg is accelerating at a rate of 1ms-2. The rate of change of momentum is
A. 1 Kg ms-2 B. 2 Kg ms-2 C. 3 Kg ms-2 D. 4 Kg ms-2
60. A body orbitting around earth at a mean radius which is two times as great as the parking
orbit of a satellite. The period of the body is
A. 4 days B. 2√ 2 days C. 16 days D. 64 days
61. Gamma rays are
A. high energy electrons B. low energy electrons
C. high energy electro-magnetic waves D. high energy positrons
62. Which is the most abundant metal in the earth's crust?
A. Fe B. Al C. Ca D. Na
63. Which one does not give a precipitate with excess of NaOH?
A. ZnSO4 B. FeSO4 C. AgNO3 D. HgCl2
64. What volume of CO2 will be liberated at NTP of 12 gm of carbon is burnt in excess of
A. 11.2 litres B. 22.4 litres C. 2.24 litres D. 1.12 litres
65. Which base is found only in nucleotides of RNA?
A. Adenine B. Uracil C. Guanine D. Cytosine
66. Ascorbic acid is the chemical name of
A. Vitamin B6 B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D
67. A hydrocarbon has carbon and hydrogen. Its molecular weight is 28. Its possible formula
would be
A. C3H6 B. C2H4 C. CH4 D. C4H8
68. The first Noble Prize in chemistry was given to
A. Faraday B. Cnrizzaro C. Mendeleevs D. Moseley
69. Four different colloids have the following gold number. Which one has its most effective
A. 10 B. 30 C. 20 D. 40
70. Which is an example of thermosetting polymer?
A. Polythene B. PVC C. Neoprene D. Bakelite
71. The number of unpaired electrons in ferrous ion is
A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5
72. Strongest reducing agent is
A. K B. Mg C. Al D. Ba
73. Which of the following is man-made element?
A. Ra B. U C. Np D. C – 4
74. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A. Boiling point of alkylhalide is greater than its
corresponding alkane
B. In water, solubility of CH3OH > C2H5OH >
C. Aniline is a weaker base than NH3
D. All of the above
75. Which amine of the following will not answer Carbylamine reaction?
A. Ethylamine B. Methylamine C. Dimethylamine D. Phenylamine
76. Tollen's reagent can be used to detect
A. (CH3)2 – CHOH B. CH3 – CO.CH3 C. CH3CH2CHO D. CH3OCH3
77. Glycerol on heating with Potassium bisulphate yields
A. Acetone B. Glyceraldehyde C. Acrolein D. Propanol
78. Salicylic acid on heating with sodalime gives
A. Benzene B. Calcium salicylate C. Benzoic acid D. Phenol
79. Which one of the following will not give iodoform test?
A. Ethanol B. Ethanal C. 2-propanone D. None of these
80. The rusting of iron is catalysed by
A. Fe B. O2 C. Zn D. H+
81. 100 ml of a liquid A was mixed with 25 ml of a liquid B to give non-ideal solution of A-B
mixture. The volume of this mixture will be
A. 75 ml B. 125 ml exact
C. fluctuating between 75 ml and 125 ml D. close to 125 ml but not to exceed 125 ml
82. IUPAC name of a compound having the formula (CH3)3 C - CH = CH2 is
A. 3, 3 - dimethyl - l - butene B. 1, 1 - dimethyl - 3 - butene
C. 1,1, 1 - dimethyl - 2 - propene D. 3, 3, 3 - dimethyl - 1 - l propene
83. Which of the following compounds will be optically active?
A. (OH3)2 – CHOH B. CH3 - CH2 - CH2 -
CH3 C. CH3 – CHCl.COOH D. (CH3)3.C.Cl
84. The major components of brass are
A. Zn and Sn B. Cu and Zn C. Fe and Ni D. Zn and Fe
85. Lunar castic is
A. Silver Chloride B. Silver Nitrate C. Sodium Hydroxide D. Potassium Nitrate
86. When hot iron is exposed in hot water vapour, the compound formed is
A. FeO B. Fe2O4 C. Fe3O4 D. Fe2 (OH)2
87. Which of the following halide is not oxidised by MnO2?
A. F B. Cl - C. Br - D. I -
88. The outermost electronic configuration of the most electronegative element is
A. ns2np3 B. ns2np4 C. ns2np5 D. ns2np6
89. Shape of CO2 is
A. tetrahedral B. trigonal C. bent D. linear
90. The catalyst used in the manufacture of H2SO4 by contact process is
A. Al2O3 B. Cr2O3 C. V2O5 D. MnO2
91. The composition of the common glass is
A. Na2O.CaO.6SiO2 B. Na2O.Al2O3.2SiO2 C. CaO.Al2O3.2SiO2 D.

92. In a borax lead test, the brown colour is due to
A. Chromium B.Cobalt C. Manganese D. Iron
93. Which of the following is not a fertiliser?
A. Urea B. Superphosphate of
C. Benzene
Hexachloride D. Potassium
94. Which one of the following belongs to representative group of elements in the Periodic
A. Lanthanum B. Argon C. Chromium D. Aluminium
95. Which one of the following is not an isotope of Hydrogen?
A. Tritium B. Deuterium C. Ortho-hydrogen D. None of the above
96. In the reaction I2 + 2S2O3
2 - = 2I - + S4O6
2 -, equivalent weight of iodine will be equal to
A. its molecular weight B. 1/2 of its molecular weight
C. 1/4 the molecular weight D. twice the molecular weight
97. Which of the following is the most powerful oxidising agent?
A. F2 B. Cl2
C. Br2 D. I2
98. From the following values of dissociating constants of four acids, which value represents the
strongest acid?
A. 2 x 10 -2 B. 0.02 x 10 -1 C. 3 x 10 -3 D. 2.0 x 104
99. In which of the following cases, does the reaction go the farthest for completion?
A. K = 103 B. K = 10 -2 C. K = 10 D. K = 1
100. The reaction which proceeds in the forward direction is
A. Fe2O3 + 6HCl → 2FeCl3 + 3H2O B. NH3 + H2O + NaCl → NH4Cl + NaOH
C. SnCl4 + Hg2Cl2 → SnCl2+ 2HgCl2 D. 2CuI + I2 + 4K+ → 2Cu2+ + 4KI
101. The substance capable of being drawn into fine wire is called
A. malleable B. tensile C. ductile D. mild
102. The idea that most of the mass of an atom is concentrated in a very small core, i.e., nucleus
is given by
A. Amedo Avogadro B. Rutherford C. Bohr D. Henery Mosley
103. Which of the following does contain a co-ordinate covalent bond?
A. N2H5
+ B. BaCl2 C. HCl D. H2O
Attached Files
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